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Psych/Soc Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the 3 Ps of socioeconomic status?

A

prestige
power
property

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2
Q

What does prestige refer to in the context of socioeconomic status?

A

one’s reputation and standing in society

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3
Q

What does power refer to in the context of socioeconomic status?

A

the ability to enforce one’s will on other people

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4
Q

What does property refer to in the context of socioeconomic status?

A

possessions, income and other wealth

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5
Q

What 3 things are often used to measure socioeconomic status?

A

education
income
occupation

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6
Q

Explain accessibility vs availability in terms of health care

A

availability is the presence of resources i.e. hospitals, doctors etc in your area
accessibility is the ability of someone to obtain those existing resources i.e. can they afford it, can they get to the hospital etc

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7
Q

Explain the caste system of social stratification

A

lower social mobility
less dependent on effort
social statues is defined by birth

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8
Q

Explain the class system of social stratification

A

some social mobility

social status is determined by both birth and individual merit

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9
Q

Explain the meritocracy system of social straification

A

higher social mobility
more dependent on effort
social status is based on individual merit

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10
Q

What is social reproduction?

A

when social inequality is transmitted from one generation to the next

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11
Q

What determines a person’s social mobility?

A

capital

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12
Q

What are the 3 types of capital?

A

physical
cultural
social

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13
Q

What is physical capital?

A

money, property, land, other physical assets

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14
Q

What is cultural capital?

A

non-financial characteristics evaluated by society

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15
Q

What is social capital?

A

social networks i.e. who you know

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16
Q

How does functionalism view society?

A

as a complex system composed of many individual parts working together to maintain solidarity and social stability

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17
Q

What level of theory is functionalism?

A

macro

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18
Q

Who is Emile Durkheim?

A

he is one of the founding fathers of modern sociology
he established sociology as separate from psychology and political philosophy
he was a major proponent of functionalism

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19
Q

When does dynamic equilibrium occur?

A

when multiple interdependent parts in a society work together toward social stability

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20
Q

Describe some of Durkheim’s assertions regarding functionalism and society

A
  • modern societies are quite complex and require many different types of people working together to make the society function
  • dynamic equilibrium
  • the individual is significant only in terms of his or her status, position in patterns of social relations and associated behaviours
  • social structure is a network of statuses connected by associated roles
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21
Q

What is a manifest function? Latent function?

A

a manifest function is the clear and open function of a social structure
a latent function is under the surface (not as obvious)

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22
Q

How does conflict theory view society?

A

as a competition for limited resources

individuals and groups compete for social, political and material resources

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23
Q

Name two sociologists associated with conflict theory

A

Karl Marx

Max Weber

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24
Q

Describe some of Karl Marx’s assertions in conflict theory

A
  • societies progress through class struggle between those who control production and those who provide the manpower for production i.e. capitalism vs proletariat
  • capitalism produces internal tensions which will ultimately destroy capitalist society, which will be replaced by socialism
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25
Q

Describe some of Max Weber’s assertions in conflict theory

A
  • a capitalist system does lead to conflict, but the collapse is not inevitable
  • there could be more that one source of conflict i.e. inequalities in political power and social status
  • there are several factors the moderate people’s reaction to inequality such as agreement with authority figures, high rates of social mobility and low rates of class difference
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26
Q

Who were the founding fathers of sociology?

A

Durkheim
Marx
Weber

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27
Q

What level of theory is conflict theory?

A

macro

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28
Q

How does symbolic interactionism view society?

A

it analyzes the meanings that people impose on objects, events and behaviours
people behave based on what they believe is true
therefore society is socially constructed through human interpretation and it is these interpretations that form the social bond

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29
Q

Explain how symbolic interactionism holds the principal of meaning to be the central aspect of human behaviour

A
  • humans ascribe meaning to things and act toward those things based on their ascribed meaning
  • communication via language allows humans to generate meaning through social interaction with each other and society
  • humans modify meanings through an interpretive thought process
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30
Q

What level of theory is symbolic interactionism?

A

micro

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31
Q

How does social constructionism view society?

A

it suggests that we actively shape our society through social interactions, social institutions and knowledge are created by individuals interacting within the system rather than having any inherent truth of their own

major focus is studying how individuals and groups participate in the construction of society and social reality

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32
Q

What is a social construct?

A

a concept or practice that is created by a group, essentially everyone is society agrees to treat a certain aspect a certain way regardless of its inherent value and that is what determines its value
ie marriage

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33
Q

Is social construction dynamic?

A

yes

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34
Q

What level on theory is social constructionism?

A

micro

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35
Q

What is status?

A

a socially defined position or role within a society

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36
Q

What is master status?

A

the role or position that dominates i.e. what determines your general “place” in society

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37
Q

What is an ascribed status?

A

a status that is assigned to you by society regardless of your effort

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38
Q

What is an achieved status?

A

a status that is earned

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39
Q

What is a role?

A

a socially defined expectation about how you will behave based on your status

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40
Q

What is role conflict?

A

when two or more stases are held by an individual and there is conflict between the expectations for each i.e. you have limited time

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41
Q

What is role strain?

A

when you face conflicting expectations for a single role

i.e. you’re a student so you need to study but you also want to have fun

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42
Q

What is role exit?

A

when you transition from one role to another

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43
Q

What is a social network?

A

a web of social relationships, including those in which a person is directly linked to others as well as those which are indirect

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44
Q

What is an organization?

A

a large group of people with a common purpose

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45
Q

What is the major difference between a social network and an organization?

A

organizations tend to be more complex, impersonal and hierarchically structured

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46
Q

Name 3 types of organizations

A

utilitarian
normative
coercive

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47
Q

What is a utilitarian organization?

A

members are motivated by some incentive or reward i.e. CAA

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48
Q

What is a normative organization?

A

members are motivated by a common cause or belief

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49
Q

What is a coercive organization?

A

members have been forced to join i.e. prison

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50
Q

What is a probability distribution?

A

a function that assigns a probability of falling within a given range on the x-axis

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51
Q

What percentage of a normal distribution falls within 1SD of the mean? 2SD? 3SD

A

1 SD = 68.2%
2 SD = 95.4%
3 SD = 99.8%

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52
Q

How does percentile rank correspond to SD of a normal distribution?

A

-3SD is 0.1 percentile
-2SD is 2nd
-1SD is 16th
mean is 50th
+1SD is 84th
+2SD is 98th
+3SD is 99.9th

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53
Q

What needs to be true in order to draw conclusions about populations from samples?

A

sample needs to be large enough i.e. n=30

samples need to be independent and random

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54
Q

When do we reject the null hypothesis for the MCAT?

A

when is less than 0.05

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55
Q

What does a t-test do?

A

uses the control sample to estimate the population parameter, then calculates the probability that the treatment group is sampled from this same population

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56
Q

What does ANOVA do?

A

calculates the ratio of the difference between groups divided by the difference within groups then uses the sample size and this ratio to perform a significance test

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57
Q

What is type 1 error?

A

false positive

ie experiment concludes there is a difference between groups even though there isn’t

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58
Q

What is type 2 error?

A

false negative

ie experiment concludes there is no difference between groups even though there is

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59
Q

What is sensitivity?

A

there is a difference between groups and the experiment is right

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60
Q

What is specificity?

A

there is no difference between groups and the experiment is right

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61
Q

What is power?

A

the extent to which a study can detect a difference when a difference exists

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62
Q

Give a few examples of how you can maximize the difference within or between groups to increase your chances of a significant finding

A

between groups:
-have an effective intervention i.e. your antidepressant actually works really well

within groups:

  • increase sample size
  • use repeated measures on the same people
  • screen people in groups so that they are as similar as possible on relevant variables
  • randomly assign people to groups
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63
Q

What defines a non-experimental design?

A

lack of a control group i.e. case studies, surveys, observational studies etc

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64
Q

What is internal validity?

A

the extent to which we can say that the change in the dependent variable is due to the intervention (treatment)

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65
Q

What is external validity?

A

the extent to which the findings can be generalized to the real world

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66
Q

List some threats to internal validity

A 
spontaneous recovery 
maturation 
measurement 
secular shift (society changes)
history effects (i.e. natural disaster)
regression to the mean (ppl at extremes in a study move back to the mean on later tests)
instrument effects 
selection effects
attrition effects (i.e. more people drop out of one group than another for some reason)
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67
Q

List some threats to external validity

A

experiment doesn’t reflect the real world
selection criteria
situational effects

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68
Q

What is incidence vs prevalence?

A

prevalence is the # or % of people diagnosed with a disease or condition during the time window specified, while incidence is the # of NEW cases of a disease or condition that began during the time window specified

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69
Q

What is cross-sectional data?

A

data collected all at once i.e. a “snapshot”

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70
Q

What is longitudinal data?

A

repeated data collection from a group over time

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71
Q

What is personal identity?

A

all of the personal attributes that you consider integral to the description of who you are

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72
Q

What is social identity?

A

all of the socially defined attributes defining who you are

ie age, race, gender, religion, occupation

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73
Q

What is self-concept? What is another name for it?

A

also called self-identity, self-construction or self-perspective
it includes all of your beliefs about who you are as an individual

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74
Q

What is a self-schema?

A

beliefs and ideas that we have about ourselves that we use to guide and organize the processing of information that is relevant to ourselves

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75
Q

What is learned helplessness?

A

basically you don’t even try to avoid a negative stimulus any more even though it actually is escapable

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76
Q

When does learned helplessness tend to occur?

A

when an individual posses low self-efficacy and an external locus of control

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77
Q

What is self-efficacy?

A

our belief in our abilities, competence and effectiveness

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78
Q

What is a locus of control?

A

our belief in whether or not we can influence the events that impact us

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79
Q

What is self-consciousness?

A

awareness of one’s self

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80
Q

What is self-esteem?

A

beliefs about one’s self-worth

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81
Q

What does the Attribution Theory explain?

A

how we understand our own behaviour and the behaviour of others

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82
Q

According to Attribution Theory, given a set of circumstances, we tend to attribute behaviour to what?

A

dispositional attribution (internal causes) or situational attribution (external causes)

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83
Q

What 3 factors determine whether we attribute behaviour to internal or external causes?

A

distinctiveness
consensus
consistency

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84
Q

Explain distinctiveness in terms of Attribution Theory

A

the extent to which the individual behaves in the same way in similar situations

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85
Q

Explain consensus in terms of Attribution Theory

A

the extent to which the individual is behaving similarly to other individuals

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86
Q

Explain consistency in terms of Attribution Theory

A

the extent to which the individual’s behaviour is similar every time this situation occurs

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87
Q

What is the fundamental attribution error?

A

we attribute another person’s behaviour to their personality

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88
Q

What is actor/observer bias?

A

we attribute our own actions to the situation

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89
Q

What is self-serving bias?

A

we attribute our successes to ourselves, but our failures to others

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90
Q

What is optimism bias?

A

we believe that bad things happen to other people, but not to ourselves

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91
Q

What is the just world belief?

A

we believe that bad things happen to others because of their own actions

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92
Q

What is the social facilitation effect?

A

when the presence of others improves our performance

this tends to only occur with simple, well-ingrained tasks

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93
Q

What is deindividualization?

A

in situations where there is a high degree of arousal and a low degree of personal responsibility, people may lose their sense of restraint and their individual identity in exchange for identifying with a mob mentality

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94
Q

What is the bystander effect?

A

we are less likely to help a victim when other people are present because everyone feels a diffusion of responsibility

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95
Q

What was study in the case of Kitty Genovese?

A

the bystander effect

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96
Q

What is social loafing?

A

when working in a group each person has a tendency to exert less individual effort than if they were working independently

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97
Q

What is groupthink?

A

when the desire for harmony or conformity in a group of people results in members attempting to minimize conflict and reach a consensus decision without critical evaluation of alternative viewpoints

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98
Q

When is groupthink most likely to occur?

A
  • the group is overly optimistic and strongly believes in its stance
  • the group justifies its own decisions while demonizing those of opponents
  • dissenting opinions, information and/or facts are prevented from permeating the group (mind guarding)
  • individuals feel pressured to conform and censor their own opinions in favour of consensus (creates an illusion of unanimity)
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99
Q

What is mind guarding?

A

the process by which dissenting opinions, information and/or facts are prevented from permeating a group

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100
Q

What is group polarization?

A

when groups tend to intensify the pre-existing views of their members i.e. the average view of a member is accentuated

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101
Q

What is conformity?

A

when you adjust your behaviour or thinking based on the thinking of others

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102
Q

What were Solomon Asch’s experiments about?

A

conformity

they were the experiments comparing the sizes of lines

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103
Q

What is obedience?

A

when you yield to explicit instructions or orders from an authority

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104
Q

What were Stanley Milgram’s experiments about?

A

obedience

they were the experiments with a teacher shocking a learner

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105
Q

What is deviance?

A

a violation of society’s standards of conduct or expectations

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106
Q

What is social stigma?

A

the extreme disapproval of a person or a group on socially characteristic grounds that distinguish them from other members of a society

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107
Q

What is impression management?

A

conscious or unconscious process whereby we attempt to manage our own image by influencing the perceptions of others

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108
Q

Where does the dramaturgical perspective stem from?

A

the theory of symbolic interactionism

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109
Q

What is the dramaturgical perspective?

A

we imagine ourselves as playing certain roles when interacting with others, we base our presentations of cultural values, norms and expectations with the ultimate goal of presenting an acceptable self to others
we have a front and backstage self

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110
Q

What is persuasion?

A

a powerful way to influence what others think and do

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111
Q

What are the three key elements of persuasion?

A

message characteristics
source characteristics
target characteristics

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112
Q

What are message characteristics?

A

the features of a message itself

i.e. the logic and key points, length and grammatical complexity

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113
Q

What are source characteristics?

A

characteristics of the person or venue delivering the message
ie expertise, knowledge, trustworthiness, attractiveness

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114
Q

What are target characteristics?

A

characteristics of the person receiving the message

i.e. self-esteem, intelligence, mood

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115
Q

What does the Elaboration-Likelihood Model propose?

A

that there are two cognitive routes of persuasion: the central route and the peripheral route

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116
Q

What is the central route of persuasion? What kind of outcome does it lead to?

A

when people are persuaded by the content of the argument itself
leads to a lasting change that resists fading and counter attacks

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117
Q

What is the peripheral route of persuasion? What kind of outcome does it lead to?

A

when people focus on superficial or secondary characteristics of the message
leads to a temporary change that is susceptible to fading and counterattacks

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118
Q

When is the audience more likely to use the central processing route?

A

when they have high motivation and ability to think about the message

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119
Q

When is the audience more likely to use the peripheral processing route?

A

when they have low motivation ability to think about the message

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120
Q

What experiments did Harry Harlow and Margaret Harlow do?

A

experiments on monkeys, testing attachment to others
found that they were attached to their mothers for comfort
(originally was thought that it was only for food)

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121
Q

What experiments did Mary Ainsworth do?

A

“strange situation experiments” about different attachment styles of infants

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122
Q

What are the 2 types of attachment styles of infants that Mary Ainsworth discovered?

A

securely attached and insecurely attached

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123
Q

Describe securely attached infants

A

will happily explore in the presence of their mothers, cry when mother leaves, are quickly consoled when she returns

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124
Q

Describe insecurely attached infants

A

will not explore their surroundings while their mother is present, when mother leaves they will either cry loudly and stay upset or will be indifferent to her departure and return

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125
Q

What is personality?

A

our thoughts, feelings, ways of thinking about things, beliefs and behaviours

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126
Q

What are the big five traits used to describe personality?

A 
openness 
conscientiousness
extraversion 
agreeableness
neuroticism
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127
Q

Who developed the psychoanalytic perspective of personality?

A

Sigmund Freud

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128
Q

What is the psychoanalytic perspective of personality?

A

theory that asserts that personality is shaped largely by the unconscious

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129
Q

What two things did Freud suggest that human behaviour is motivated by?

A

libido (life instinct)

death instinct

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130
Q

What is libido?

A

life instinct

drives behaviours focused on pleasure, survive; and avoidance of pain

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131
Q

What is the death instinct?

A

drives behaviours fueled by the unconscious desire to die or hurt oneself or others

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132
Q

What 3 components did Freud propose the human psyche could be divided into?

A

id
ego
superego

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133
Q

Describe the id

A

largely unconscious

responsible for our drives to avoid pain and seek pleasure

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134
Q

Describe the superego

A

responsible for our moral judgments of right and wrong

strives for perfection

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135
Q

Describe the ego

A

responsible for our logical thinking and planning

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136
Q

How many stages are there in Freud’s psychosexual stages of development?

A

5

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137
Q

Describe Freud’s first stage of psychosexual development

A 
oral stage 
0 to 1 
erogenous zones is the mouth i.e. sucking, chewing, biting
Adult fixation examples:
-orally aggressive (verbally abusive)
-orally passive i.e. smoking overeating
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138
Q

Describe Freud’s second stage of psychosexual development

A 
anal stage 
1 to 3
erogenous zone is the anus i.e. bowel and bladder control
Adult fixation examples:
-anal retentive, overly neat/tidy
-anal expulsive, disorganized
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139
Q

Describe Freud’s third stage of psychosexual development

A 
phallic stage 
3 to 6
erogenous zone is the genitals
Adult fixation examples:
-Oedipus complex (males)
-Electra complex (females)
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140
Q

Describe Freud’s fourth stage of psychosexual development

A

latency
6 to 12
no erogenous zone, sexual feelings are dormant
no adult fixation

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141
Q

Describe Freud’s fifth stage of psychosexual development

A 
genital 
12+
sexual interests mature
Adult fixation examples:
-frigidity
-impotence
-difficulty in intimate relationships
142
Q

How many stages are in Erik Erikson’s psychosocial stages of development?

A

8

143
Q

What is Erik Erikson’s first stage of psychosocial development?

A

trust vs mistrust
infancy
trust: infant’s needs are met
mistrust: infant’s needs are not met

144
Q

What is Erikson’s second stage of psychosocial development?

A

autonomy vs shame
early childhood
autonomy: children learn self-control
shame: children remain dependent

145
Q

What is Erikson’s third stage of psychosocial development?

A

initiative vs guilt
preschool age
initiative: children achieve purpose
guilt: children thwarted in efforts

146
Q

What is Erikson’s fourth stage of psychosocial development?

A

industry vs inferiority
school age
industry: children gain competence
inferiority: children feel incompetent

147
Q

What is Erikson’s fifth stage of psychosocial development?

A

identity vs role confusion
adolescence
identity: adolescents learn sense of self
role confusion: adolescents lack own identity

148
Q

What is Erkison’s sixth stage of psychosocial development?

A

intimacy vs isolation
young adulthood
intimacy: YAs develop mature relationships
isolation: YAs unable to create social ties

149
Q

What is Erikson’s seventh stage of psychosocial development?

A

generativity vs stagnation
middle age
generativity: adults contribute to others/society
stagnation: adults feel life is meaningless

150
Q

What is Erikson’s eighth stage of psychosocial development?

A

integrity vs despair
later life
integrity: adults develop wisdom
despair: adults feel unaccomplished

151
Q

Which of Erikson’s stages of development corresponds to Freud’s oral stage?

A

trust vs mistrust

152
Q

Which perspective is Erik Erikson?

A

psychoanalytic

153
Q

Which of Erikson’s stages corresponds to Freud’s anal stage?

A

autonomy vs shame

154
Q

Which of Erikson’s stages corresponds to Freud’s phallic stage?

A

initiative vs guilt

155
Q

Which of Erikson’s stages corresponds to Freud’s latency stage?

A

industry vs inferiority

156
Q

Which of Erikson’s stages corresponds to Freud’s genital stage?

A

identity vs role confusion

157
Q

Who was the founding father of behaviourism?

A

BF Skinner

158
Q

What is the behaviourist perspective of personality?

A
  • personality is a result of learned behaviour patterns based on our environment
  • does not take internal thoughts and feelings into account
  • is deterministic
  • the development of a person occurs through classical and operant conditioning
159
Q

What is meant by the behaviourist perspective of personality being deterministic?

A

people begin as blank slates and environmental reinforcement and punishment completely determine an individual’s subsequent behaviour and personalities

160
Q

What is the social cognitive perspective of personality?

A
  • personality is a result of reciprocal interactions among behavioural, cognitive and environmental factors
  • emphasizes the importance of observational learning, self-efficacy, situational influence and cognitive processes
161
Q

Who is most associated with social learning or observational (vicarious) learning?

A

Albert Bandura

162
Q

What is the behavioural component of social cognitive theory?

A

behavioural component includes patterns of classical and operant conditioning AND observational learning

163
Q

What is the cognitive component of social cognitive theory?

A

includes the mental processes involved in observational learning and conscious cognitive processes such as self-efficacy beliefs

164
Q

What is the environmental component of social cognitive theory?

A

includes situational influences, such as opportunities, rewards, and punishments

165
Q

What were Albert Bandura’s experiments?

A

observational learning using the Bobo doll

166
Q

Who developed the humanist perspective of personality?

A

Carl Rogers

167
Q

What is the humanist perspective of personality?

A

humans are driven by an actualizing tendency to realize their own highest potential and personality conflicts arise when this is somehow thwarted

168
Q

How did Rogers describe human development?

A
  • as progressing from undifferentiated to differentiated
  • development of self-concept was the the main goal
  • self-concept was influenced by unconditional and conditional positive regard
  • those raised with unconditional positive regard have the opportunity to achieve self-actualization
  • those raised with conditional positive regard feel worthy only when they’ve met certain conditions
  • the ideal self is an impossible standard we can never reach
  • when the real self and ideal self are incongruent it can cause psychopathy
169
Q

What is motivation?

A

the driving force that causes us to act or behave in certain ways

170
Q

Name 4 factors that influence motivation

A

instincts
drives
needs
arousal

171
Q

What is drive-reduction theory?

A

suggests that a physiological need creates an aroused state that drives the organism to reduce that need by engaging in some behaviour

172
Q

What did Abraham Maslow create?

A

Maslow’s hierarchy of needs

173
Q

Name the components of Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs from bottom to top

A 
physiological needs
safety needs
love and belonging 
esteem needs 
self-actualization
174
Q

What is a psychological disorder?

A

a set of behavioural and/or psychological symptoms that are not in keeping with cultural norms, and that are severe enough to cause significant personal distress and/or significant impairment to social, occupational or personal functioning

175
Q

Name 5 anxiety disorders

A 
generalized anxiety disorder
phobias 
panic disorder
obsessive-compulsive disorder 
post-traumatic stress disorder
176
Q

What are the general characteristics of anxiety disorders?

A

excessive worry
uneasiness
apprehension
fear with both physiological and psychological symptoms

177
Q

Name 4 mood disorders

A

major depressive disorder
dysthymic disorder
bipolar disorder
cyclothymic disorder

178
Q

Name 3 cluster A personality disorders

A

paranoid personality disorder
schizoid personality disorder
schizotypal personality disorder

179
Q

Name 4 cluster B personality disorders

A

antisocial personality disorder
borderline personality disorder
histronic personality disorder
narcissistic personality disorder

180
Q

Name 3 cluster C personality disorders

A

avoidant personality disorder
dependent personality disorder
obsessive-compulsive personality disorder disorder

181
Q

What are the general characteristics of mood disorders?

A

disturbance in mood or affect

presence or absence of a manic or hypomanic episode (this is what distinguishes categories)

182
Q

What are the general characteristics of personality disorders?

A

enduring maladaptive patterns of behaviour and cognition that depart from social norms and are displayed across a variety of contexts, which develop early and cause significant dysfunction and distress

183
Q

Name 2 psychotic disorders

A

schizophrenia

delusional disorder

184
Q

What are the general characteristics of psychotic disorders?

A

a general loss of contact with reality, which can include delusions, hallucinations, and psychosis

185
Q

Name 3 dissociative disorders

A

dissociative identity disorder
dissociative amnesia
depersonalization disorder

186
Q

What are the general characteristics of dissociative disorders?

A

disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, or perception

may be caused by psychological trauma

187
Q

Name 4 eating disorders

A

anorexia nervosa
bulimia nervosa
binge-eating disorder
pica

188
Q

What are the general characteristics of eating disorders?

A

disruptive eating patterns that negatively impact physical and mental health

189
Q

Name 4 neurocognitive disorders

A

Alzheimer’s disease
delirium
dementia
amnesia

190
Q

What are the general characteristics of neurocognitive disorders?

A

cognitive decline in memory, problem-solving and perception

191
Q

Name 3 sleep disorders

A

insomnia
narcolepsy
sleepwalking

192
Q

Name 5 somatoform disorders

A 
conversion disorder 
somatization disorder 
hypochondriasis 
body dysmorphic disorder 
pain disorder
193
Q

What are the general characteristics of somatoform disorders?

A

symptoms that cannot be explained by a medical condition or substance use and are not attributable to another mental disorder

194
Q

When does non-associative learning occur?

A

when an organism is repeatedly exposed to a given stimulus

195
Q

What is habituation?

A

becoming accustomed to a stimulus

196
Q

What is dishabituation?

A

when a stimulus is removed after an organism has become habituated to it

197
Q

What is sensitization?

A

when an organism has increased responsiveness to a repeated stimulus

198
Q

What is desensitization?

A

when an organism has a diminished response to a stimulus to which sensitization has occurred

199
Q

Who was the first to describe classical conditioning?

A

Ivan Pavlov

200
Q

Using Pavlov’s dogs as an example of classical conditioning identify the unconditioned and conditioned stimulus and response

A

food = unconditioned stimulus
salivating = unconditioned response
bell ringing = conditioned stimulus
salivating = conditioned response

201
Q

What is generalization?

A

when stimuli other than the original conditioned stimulus elicit the conditioned response

202
Q

What is discrimination (in classical conditioning)?

A

when the conditioned stimulus is distinguished from other stimuli and is the only thing to elicit the conditioned response

203
Q

What is operant conditioning?

A

a process in which reinforcement and punishment are used to mild behaviour responses

204
Q

Who is the most associated with operant conditioning and what type of experiments did he do?

A

BF Skinner

he did experiments with rats in boxes with levers for food and electric shocks

205
Q

What is the difference between primary and secondary reinforcements and punishments?

A

primary are things like food, sleep, water etc that you need to survive
secondary are other things ie tokens for prizes or good/bad grades

206
Q

What is the difference between negative and positive punishments and reinforcements?

A

positive add something to the situation

negative take something away

207
Q

What is the difference between ratio and interval reinforcement schedules?

A

ratio schedules give reinforcement after a certain number of times the wanted action occurs
interval give reinforcement after a certain amount of time
(both can be fixed or variable)

208
Q

What type of reinforcement schedule is the most resistant to extinction?

A

variable ratio (VR=variable ratio=very resistant)

209
Q

What is observational learning? Who identified it and what kind of experiments did he do?

A

Albert Bandura
did experiments with the Bobo doll
it is learning through the observation of another’s behaviour

210
Q

What is insight learning?

A

a process in which the solution to a problem suddenly comes to us in “a flash of insight”

211
Q

Who first demonstrated insight learning and how did he do it?

A

Wolfgang Kohler

did studies with chimps where he placed food out of reach

212
Q

What is latent learning?

A

a process in which learning is occurring but it is not immediately obvious, later when needed the learning demonstrates itself

213
Q

What experiments were first use to demonstrate latent learning?

A

experiments involving rats in mazes looking for food

214
Q

What are the serial position effects of memory?

A 
primacy effect (remember first words)
recency effect (remember the last words)
215
Q

What is encoding with respect to memory?

A

it is the transfer of sensory memory into our memory system

may involves the coding/processing of information to be stored

216
Q

Name 7 encoding strategies

A 
rehearsal
organization 
semantic (putting in a meaningful context)
chunking 
dual-encoding (encoding via >1 stimuli) 
mnemonics 
self-reference
217
Q

What are the 3 components of memory in the Multi-Store Atkinson-Shiffrin Model of memory?

A

sensory memory
short-term memory
long-term memory

218
Q

In the Multi-Store Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory how do you get from sensory memory to short-term memory?

A

attention

219
Q

During which stages in the Multi-Store Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory can you lose information?

A

all 3

220
Q

How is info kept in the short-term memory stage?

A

maintenance rehearsal

221
Q

How does info go from short-term memory to long-term memory? How does it go the opposite way?

A

short-term to long term is encoding

long-term to short-term is retrieval

222
Q

Describe sensory memory in the Multi-Store Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory

A 
contains iconic (visual) and acoustic/echoic memory 
decays quickly
223
Q

How long does iconic memory last?

A

less than a second

224
Q

How long does echoic memory last?

A

2-4 seconds

225
Q

Describe short-term member in the Multi-Store Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory

A

has a rehearsal buffer w capacity of ~7 (+/- 2)
decays in 15-30 sec
encoding into STM is primarily acoustic

226
Q

Describe long-term memory in the Multi-Store Atkinson-Shiffrin model of memory

A

permanent storage
unlimited capacity
ecoding into LTM is primarily semantic (meaning-making)

227
Q

What are the 2 large components of long term memory?

A

explicit/declarative memory

implicit/non declarative

228
Q

What is explicit memory?

A

also called declarative memory

it is memory with conscious recall

229
Q

What is implicit memory?

A

also called non declarative memory

it is memory without conscious recall

230
Q

What is procedural memory?

A

a type of implicit memory

learning motor skills, physical actions etc

231
Q

What are the two types of explicit long-term memory?

A

episodic and semantic memory

232
Q

What is episodic memory?

A

events you have personally experienced

233
Q

What is procedural memory?

A

your general knowledge of facts and information

234
Q

How can you forget from sensory memory?

A

decay

235
Q

How can you forget from short-term memory?

A

decay

displacement

236
Q

How can you forget from long-term memory?

A

decay
interference
retrieval failure

237
Q

What is displacement with respect to short-term memory?

A

when new often relevant information in the rehearsal buffer is substituted for the actual information

238
Q

Name 4 types of retrieval

A

free recall
cued recall
recognition
relearning

239
Q

What is interference?

A

when competing material makes it more difficult to encode or retrieve information

240
Q

What are the two types of interference?

A

proactive and retroactive interference

241
Q

Describe proactive interference

A

information that has already been learned interferes with the ability to learn new information

242
Q

Describe retroactive interference

A

new information that has already been learned makes it more difficult to retrieve older information

243
Q

What are source monitoring errors?

A

source amnesia, forgetting who told you something etc

244
Q

What are false memories?

A

creation of memory that never existed

245
Q

What is anterograde amnesia?

A

inability to form new memories

246
Q

What is retrograde amnesia?

A

inability to retrieve or the loss of stored memories

247
Q

What part of the brain is involved a lot in memory?

A

hippocampus

248
Q

What is attitude?

A

our evaluation, on a scale from positive to negative of other people, events etc
formed from our past and present experiences
measurable and mutable
impact our behaviours and emotions

249
Q

What are the 3 components of attitude?

A

affect (our feelings)
behaviour (our internal and external responses)
cognition (our thoughts and beliefs)

250
Q

Give 4 situations in which attitude better predicts behaviour

A

social influences are reduced
general patterns of behaviour are observed (not specific)
specific attitudes are considered (rather than general)
self-reflection occurs

251
Q

What is the principle of aggregation?

A

attitude affects a person’s aggregate or average behaviour, but not necessarily each isolated act

252
Q

Give 3 situations in which behaviours are more likely to influence attitude

A

role-playing
public declarations
justification of effort

253
Q

What was Zimbardo’s prison experiment an example of?

A

behaviours influencing attitude

254
Q

Who’s theory was cognitive dissonance?

A

Leon Festinger

255
Q

What is cognitive dissonance?

A

when our attitudes and behaviours don’t match we feel tension/dissonance and so we make our views match what we’ve done to reduce the tension

256
Q

What is consciousness?

A

the awareness that we have of ourselves, our internal states and the environment
is important for reflection and directs our attention

257
Q

What controls alertness and arousal in the brain?

A

the reticular activating system (RAS)

258
Q

What are the three physiological indicators of a mammal’s circadian rhythm?

A

melatonin released by the pineal gland
body temperature
serum cortisol levels

259
Q

Name 3 dyssomnias

A

insomnia
narcolepsy
sleep apnea

260
Q

What are dyssomnias?

A

abnormalities in the amount, quality or timing of sleep

261
Q

What is insomnia?

A

inability to remain asleep

can stem from chronic stress

262
Q

What is narcolepsy?

A

periodic, overwhelming sleepiness during waking periods that usually last less than 5 minutes

263
Q

What is sleep apnea?

A

intermittent cessation of breathing during sleep which results in awakening after a minute or two without air
can repeat hundreds of times a night and deprive sufferers of deep sleep

264
Q

What are parasomnias? Name 2

A

abnormal behaviours that occur during sleep

somnambulism and night terrors

265
Q

What is sommniabulism?

A

sleep-walking

usually occurs during slow wave sleep (stage 3) and during the first third of the night

266
Q

What are night terrors?

A

usually occur during stage 3 sleep (vs nightmares which come at halloween)
don’t remember in the morning

267
Q

What type of waves does your brain emit when you’re awake?

A

beta

268
Q

What kind of waves does your brain emit when you’re drowsy?

A

alpha

269
Q

How much of your total sleep in a night is REM?

A

about 25%

270
Q

Are the different stages of sleep spaced evenly throughout the night?

A

no
deep sleep is front-loaded, REM and light sleep are back-loaded
there is no REM in the first 90-minute cycle

271
Q

How long is a sleep cycle?

A

about minutes

272
Q

Give the stages of sleep in order that they occurs

A

1 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 2 1

273
Q

Is there REM in the 1st 90 minute sleep cycle?

A

no

274
Q

When does stage 4 of sleep drop out? Stage 3?

A

stage 4 drops out after 2 cycles

stage 3 after 3

275
Q

Describe stage 1 of sleep

A 
light
theta waves 
slow rolling eye movements
moderate activity
fleeting thoughts
276
Q

Describe stage 2 of sleep

A 
light
sleep spindle and k-complex
no eye movement 
moderate activity
increased relaxation
decreased temp, HR and respiration
277
Q

Describe stages 3 and 4 of sleep

A 
deep
delta waves
no eye movement
moderate activity
heart and digestion slow
growth hormones secreted (from pituitary)
278
Q

Describe REM sleep

A 
light
similar to beta waves but more jagged
when most dreams occur
bursts of quick eye movements
almost no activity - paradoxical sleep
279
Q

What is REM rebound?

A

after not getting enough REM your body will make up for it in subsequent nights

280
Q

Give 3 examples of depressants

A

alcohol
barbiturates
opiates

281
Q

What is the mechanism of action of depressants?

A

depress the central nervous system

especially the fight or flight reflex

282
Q

What are some effects of depressants?

A

impaired motor control
eventual addiction
overdoses can lead to death

283
Q

Give 4 examples of stimulants

A

caffeine
nicotine
amphetamines
cocaine

284
Q

What is the mechanism of action of stimulants?

A

increases release or inhibits reuptake of neurotransmitters (or both)

285
Q

What are some effects of stimulants?

A

speed up body functions i.e. breathing, heart etc
pupil dilation
rush/high followed by a crash

286
Q

Name 2 types of hallucinogens

A

LSD

marijuana (THC)

287
Q

What is the mechanism of action of hallucinogens?

A

distorts perceptions in the absence of sensory input

288
Q

What are some effects of hallucinogens?

A

hallucinations
impaired judgement
slowed reaction time

289
Q

What determines physical vs psychological dependance?

A

withdrawal symptoms

290
Q

How is addiction defined?

A

as compulsive drug use despite harmful consequences
characterized by am inability to stop using the drug, failure to meet work, social or family obligations and sometimes tolerance and withdrawal

291
Q

What are the 3 components of emotion?

A

physiological
behavioural
cognitive

292
Q

What are the universal emotions? Who expresses them?

A 
happiness
sadness
surprise
fear
disgust
anger
they are expressed by all normally developing or developed humans across all cultures
293
Q

What is the Yerkes-Dodson law?

A

for non-complex tasks a high level of arousal is okay, for complex tasks lower levels of arousal are better

294
Q

Explain the James-Lange theory of emotion

A

“common sense view”
emotion inducing stimulus
gives physiological AND behavioural response which leads to cognitive interpretation and then labelling of emotion

295
Q

Explain the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion

A

emotion inducing stimulus
gives physiological response and cognitive interpretation at the same time
leads to behavioural response and the labelling of the emotion

296
Q

Explain the Schachter-Singer theory of emotion

A

also called the two-factor cognitive theory
emotion inducing stimulus
gives physiological response
which leads to cognitive interpretation
and then gives behavioural response and labelling of emotion

297
Q

Name the parts of the limbic system

A 
thalamus 
hypothalamus
frontal lobe 
olfactory bulb 
amygdala
hippocampus
298
Q

What is the role of the thalamus in the limbic system?

A

relay station for 4 of the senses (not smell)

299
Q

What is the role of the hypothalamus in the limbic system?

A

motivated behaviours ie hunger, thirst, sex drive

300
Q

What is the role of the frontal lobe in the limbic system?

A

executive function and control of emotion

301
Q

What is the role of the olfactory bulb in the limbic system?

A

smell

302
Q

What is the role of amygdala in the limbic system?

A

fear

303
Q

What is the role of the hippocampus in the limbic system?

A

memory consolidation

304
Q

What is our physiological response to acute stress? Chronic stress?

A 
acute = SNS (then PNS)
chronic = cortisol
305
Q

What is Hans Selye’s general adaptation syndrome?

A

alarm > resistance > exhaustion (resulting in sickness)

306
Q

Name 3 types of stressors

A

catastrophes
significant life changes
daily hassles

307
Q

What are catastrophes?

A

unpredictable, large-scale events that include natural disasters and wartime events and affect many people

308
Q

Can positive significant life changes cause stress?

A

yes

309
Q

What is absolute threshold?

A

the lowest level of a stimulus we can detect 50% of the time

310
Q

What is a difference threshold?

A

the minimum difference between two stimuli we can detect 50% of the time
also called the just noticeable difference

311
Q

What is Weber’s law?

A

human responses to physiological stimuli are generally proportional to a constant magnitude for a given sensory stimulus
different sensory stimuli and different discriminatory tasks have different difference thresholds
we are more accurate at detecting change when the initial intensity of the stimulus us weak, rather than strong

312
Q

What is signal detection theory? What are the 4 possible outcomes?

A

proposes a method for quantifying a person’s ability to detect a given stimulus amongst other, non-important stimuli
outcomes: hit, miss, false alarm, correct rejection

313
Q

What is required to detect a stimulus according to signal detection theory?

A

acquisition of information

application of criteria

314
Q

What does accuracy of detecting a stimulus rely on according to signal detection theory?

A

external noise

internal noise

315
Q

What does a receiver operating characteristic curve graph? What does it demonstrate?

A

displays hit rate vs false alarm rate

area under the graph is the person’s accuracy

316
Q

What kind of processing does Gestalt Psychology focus on?

A

top-down processing

317
Q

Name 2 key Gestalt principles and any laws within them

A 
figure and ground 
grouping:
law of proximity 
law of similarity (i.e. colour)
law of continuity (i.e. sin wave vs semi-circles)
law of connectedness
law of closure (closing shapes)
318
Q

What is the very broad definition of cognition?

A

how we process information i.e. receiving, storing, thought processes for language etc
basically everything

319
Q

What is Baddeley’s Model of Working Memory?

A

an explanation of how our 3 short-term sensory stores interact with the central executive, which controls the flow of info to and from the sensory stores

320
Q

What are the 3 short-term sensory stores in Baddeley’s model of working memory? Where do they each lead to?

A

phonological loop to semantic verbal memory
visuospatial sketchpad to semantic visual memory
episodic buffer to episodic memory

321
Q

What does the central executive do?

A

coordination of the slave systems
shifting between tasks or retrieval strategies
selective attention and inhibition

322
Q

What are the two possibilities for new information and integration into our schemas?

A

assimilate- interpret new info based on our current schemas

accommodate- incorporate new info and experiences into our schemas

323
Q

What did Jean Piaget contribute to psychology?

A

his 4 stages of cognitive development

324
Q

Describe Piaget’s first stage of cognitive development

A 
Sensorimotor 
0-1.5/2
child experiences the world directly through senses and motor movement 
child learns object permanence
child has stranger anxiety
325
Q

Describe Piaget’s second stage of cognitive development

A 
Preoperational 
2-6/7
child can represent things with words and images, but uses intuitive, not logical, reasoning 
like to pretend play a lot 
egocentrism
326
Q

Describe Piaget’s third stage of cognitive development

A

Concrete Operational
7-11
child thinks logically and performs simple mental manipulations with concrete concepts
learn conservation

327
Q

Describe Piaget’s fourth stage of cognitive development

A 
Formal Operational 
12-adult 
person can reason abstractly, solve hypothetical problems, deduce consequences etc
ie have abstract logic 
also learn moral reasoning
328
Q

What is an algorithm?

A

a step-by-step procedure that exhausts all possible options but guarantees a solution

329
Q

What is a heuristic?

A

a mental rule-of-thumb, shortcut or guideline that can be applied to problem solving

330
Q

What is confirmation bias?

A

when we seek evidence to support our conclusion or ideas more than we seek evidence that will refute them
also occurs when we interpret neutral or ambiguous evidence as supporting our beliefs

331
Q

What is fixation?

A

when we have structured a problem in our mind a certain way, even if that way is ineffective, and then are unable to restructure it

332
Q

What is a mental set?

A

our tendency to approach situations in a certain way because that method worked for us in the past

333
Q

What is functional fixedness?

A

a mental bias that limits our perspective for how an object can be used based on how that object is traditionally used

334
Q

What is the availability heuristic?

A

when we rely on immediate examples that come to mind when trying to make a decision or judgment
i.e. you overestimate the likelihood of something happening because you can think of examples of it

335
Q

What is the representativeness heuristic?

A

when we estimate the likelihood of an event y comparing it to an existing prototype (kind of like a stereotype) in our minds

336
Q

What is a prototype?

A

what we think is the most relevant or typical example of a particular event or object

337
Q

What is the behaviourist model of language acquisition?

A

infants are trained to learn language through operant conditioning

338
Q

Who is Noam Chomsky?

A

linguist that proposed Universal Grammar/Language Acquisition Device

339
Q

WHat is Universal Grammar? What is another name for it?

A

humans are born with an innate ability to learn language
all normally-developing humans learn language when exposed to it
there are critical periods
also called Language Acquisition Device
(proposed by Noam Chomsky)

340
Q

What are the functions of the frontal lobe of the brain?

A

decision-making
executive management
regulation of emotion

341
Q

What does the parietal lobe do?

A

touch sensations

space is allotted based on sensitivity

342
Q

What does the occipital lobe do?

A

vision

343
Q

What does the cerebellum deal with?

A

physical activity

344
Q

What does the temporal lobe deal with?

A

hearing

345
Q

Where is Broca’s Area?

A

inferior frontal gyrus of dominant hemisphere (usually left)

346
Q

What is Broca’s Area associated with?

A

language production

347
Q

What happens if someone’s Broca’s Area is damaged?

A

non-fluent aphasia with intact comprehension

i.e. they know what you’re saying but they don’t have fluent speech

348
Q

Where is Wernicke’s Area?

A

posterior superior temporal gyrus

349
Q

What is Wernicke’s Area associated with?

A

understanding written and spoken language

350
Q

What happens if someone has damage to Wernicke’s Area?

A

fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension

i.e. they talk and the grammatical structure makes sense but the actual sentences make no sense at all

MCAT (15 decks)

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