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PSYC*3270 > PSYC*3270 Week 3 > Flashcards

PSYC*3270 Week 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two organizing principles of the brain?

A
  • Anatomical (structural) principles
  • Chemical (functional) principles
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2
Q

What are emergent properties?

A

Complex, non-linear, interactions between systems

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3
Q

What type of properties cannot be predicted to exist based only in the knowledge of a system’s individual components?

A

Emergent properties

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4
Q

What are the three divisions of the brain?

A
  • Forebrain
  • Brain stem
  • Spinal cord
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5
Q

Which of the three brain divisions consists of the cerebral cortex, limbic system, and basal ganglia (among others)?

A

The forebrain

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6
Q

Which of the three brain divisions performs higher functions like thinking, perception, and planning?

A

The forebrain

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7
Q

Which of the three brain divisions performs regulatory and movement-producing functions?

A

The brain stem

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8
Q

Which of the three brain divisions conveys sensory information to the brain and send commands from the brain telling muscles to move?

A

The spinal cord

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9
Q

What are bumps in the brain’s folded surface called?

A

Gyri

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10
Q

What are cracks in the brain’s folded surface called?

A

Sulci

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11
Q

What are deep ridges in the brain’s folded surface called?

A

Fissures

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12
Q

What does the third ventricle wrap around?

A

The thalamus

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13
Q

Which ventricle connects the third and fourth ventricle?

A

The cerebral aqueduct

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14
Q

What are the two divisions of the forebrain?

A
  • Telencephalon
  • Diencephalon
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15
Q

The midbrain is also known as what?

A

The mesencephalon

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16
Q

What are the two divisions of the hindbrain?

A
  • Metencephalon
  • Myelencephalon
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17
Q

What are the five main subdivisions of the brain that develop from the neural tube (in order from dorsal to ventral)?

A
  • Telencephalon
  • Diencephalon
  • Mesencephalon
  • Metencephalon
  • Myelencephalon
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18
Q

What are the four lobes of the cerebrum?

A
  • Frontal
  • Temporal
  • Parietal
  • Occipital
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19
Q

T or F: The brain doubles in size postnatal.

A

False. Triples in size.

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20
Q

What is the somatotopic map?

A

The topographic map for somatosensory input

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21
Q

What is the retinotopic map?

A

The topographic map for visual input

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22
Q

What is the chemotopic map?

A

The topographic map for olfactory input

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23
Q

What is the tonotopic map?

A

The topographic map for auditory input

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24
Q

What is the gustotopic map?

A

The topographic map for taste

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25
Q

What brain structure wraps around the limbic system and basal ganglia?

A

The cerebral cortex

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26
Q

Which brain structure does the limbic system wrap around?

A

The basal ganglia

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27
Q

The limbic system is most commonly known for regulating which function?

A

Regulating motivated behaviours

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28
Q

Which brain system is primarily responsible for the fight, flight, freeze response?

A

The limbic system

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29
Q

Which brain structure wraps around the diencephalon and thalamic nuclei?

A

The basal ganglia

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30
Q

The basal ganglia is primarily known for regulating which function?

A

Regulating movement

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31
Q

T or F: Some categorize the amygdala as part of the limbic system and others categorize it as part of the basal ganglia

A

True

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32
Q

What are the five structures included in the limbic system (not including the amygdala)?

A
  • Hippocampus
  • Cingulate cortex
  • Fornix
  • Septum
  • Mammillary bodies
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33
Q

Which brain structure is primarily said to play a role in fear memory?

A

The amygdala

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34
Q

Which brain structure is primarily said to play a role in spatial memory consolidation?

A

The hippocampus

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35
Q

Which brain structure is primarily said to play a role in quick decision-making and attention?

A

The cingulate cortex

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36
Q

Which brain structure receives output from the hippocampus and connects nuclei?

A

The fornix

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37
Q

The basal ganglia includes which two striata?

A
  • The dorsal striatum
  • The ventral striatum
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38
Q

Are the caudate, putamen, and globus pallidus included in the dorsal or ventral striatum?

A

Dorsal striatum

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39
Q

Are the nucleus accumbens and olfactory tubercle included in the dorsal or ventral striatum?

A

Ventral striatum

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40
Q

What are the three primary thalamic nuclei?

A
  • Lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN)
  • Medial geniculate nucleus (MGL)
  • Ventral posterior nucleus (VPN)
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41
Q

What type of sensory information is processed in the LGN?

A

Visual

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42
Q

What type of sensory information is processed in the MGN?

A

Auditory

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43
Q

What type of sensory information is processed in the VPN?

A

Somatosensory

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44
Q

T or F: The thalamus does not have reciprocal connections.

A

False

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45
Q

T or F: The hypothalamus is located below the pituitary gland.

A

False. Located below.

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46
Q

What is the endocrine function of the hypothalamus?

A

To send hormones long distances

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47
Q

What is the primary function of the hypothalamus?

A

To maintain homeostasis

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48
Q

What are the two major divisions of the mesencephalon?

A
  • Tectum
  • Tegmentum
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49
Q

The tectum includes what two colliculi?

A
  • Superior colliculus
  • Inferior colliculus
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50
Q

What is the primary function of the superior and inferior colliculi?

A

To direct attention

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51
Q

Which structure in the tegmentum is said to play a role in arousal?

A

The reticular formation

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52
Q

Which structure in the tegmentum is said to play a role in mediating pain reduction?

A

The periaquiductal grey

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53
Q

Which two structures are included in the myelencephalon?

A
  • Medulla
  • Reticular formation
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54
Q

Which two structures are included in the metencephalon?

A
  • Cerebellum
  • Pons
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55
Q

What are the two divisions of the nervous system?

A
  • Central
  • Peripheral
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56
Q

What are the two divisions of the PNS?

A
  • Somatic
  • Autonomic
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57
Q

Which division of the PNS facilitates connections between sensory/motor signals and the musculoskeletal system?

A

Somatic

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58
Q

Which division of the PNS facilitates connections between sensory/motor signals and the internal organs?

59
Q

Are afferent nerves sensory or motor?

60
Q

Are efferent nerves sensory or motor?

61
Q

What are the two divisions of the ANS?

A
  • Sympathetic
  • Parasympathetic
62
Q

Which division of the ANS regulates the fight, flight, freeze response?

A

Sympathetic

63
Q

Which division of the ANS regulates “rest and digest” and “breed and feed”?

A

Parasympathetic

64
Q

What are neurons?

A

Basic units that analyze and transmit information

65
Q

In what direction do anterograde action potentials move?

A

From presynaptic to postsynaptic regions

66
Q

In what direction do retrograde action potentials move?

A

From postsynaptic to presynaptic

67
Q

T or F: Stimulation of receptors by natural ligands or psychoactive drugs can activate, but not inhibit a neuron, thereby affecting ABCs.

A

False. Can activate or inhibit.

68
Q

Which type of neural cell is commonly referred to as support cells?

A

Glial cells

69
Q

Which type of neural cell primarily composes the blood-brain barrier?

A

Glial cells

70
Q

Providing firmness/structure to the brain, getting nutrients into the system, and eliminating waste are functions of what type of neural cell?

A

Glial cells

71
Q

What forms myelin in the CNS?

A

Glial cells

72
Q

What type of molecules are able to passively cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

Small and lipophilic

73
Q

A neuron with a resting membrane potential has greater concentration of what ion inside the cell?

A

Potassium (K+)

74
Q

A neuron with a resting membrane potential has greater concentration of what ion outside the cell?

A

Sodium (Na+)

75
Q

The resting membrane potential is primarily determined by what?

A

Uneven distribution of ions

76
Q

What is diffusion pressure?

A

The pressure needed to diffuse ions across the neuronal membrane down the concentration gradient

77
Q

What is electrostatic pressure?

A

The pressure needed to diffuse ions across the neuronal membrane down the electrostatic gradient

78
Q

What are the 10 steps of an action potential?

A
  • Threshold is reached
  • Na+ channels open
  • Membrane begins depolarizing
  • K+ channels open
  • Membrane is fully depolarized
  • Na+ channels close
  • Membrane is repolarized
  • K+ channels close gradually
  • Membrane becomes hyperpolarized by K+
  • Extra K+ diffuses away (refractory period)
79
Q

How are mechanically gated ion channels opened?

A

Physical force

80
Q

How are chemically gated ion channels opened?

81
Q

How are voltage-gated ion channels opened?

A

Membrane potentials

82
Q

How are heat-gated ion channels opened?

A

Changes in temperature

83
Q

How are light-gated ion channels opened?

84
Q

Are action potentials short or long?

85
Q

Are graded potentials fixed or variable?

86
Q

Where do action potentials occur?

A

The axon hillock

87
Q

T or F: Action potentials are nonspecific, meaning they don’t communicate the strength of the stimulus that initiated it.

88
Q

How do action potentials communicate the intensity of a stimulus?

A

The rate of firing

89
Q

What do high rates of action potential firing indicate about the initiating stimulus?

A

It was an intense/strong stimulus

90
Q

Where do graded potentials occur?

A

The soma and dendrites

91
Q

What happens when the graded potentials that reach the axon hillock are not sufficient to cause an action potential?

A

The Na+ diffuses and no action potential is propagated

92
Q

What are the two ways graded potentials can accumulate to initiate an action potential?

A
  • Spatial: Graded potentials at multiple dendrites
  • Temporal: Graded potentials rapidly stimulate one dendrite
93
Q

What are the two types of action potentials?

A
  • Absolute refractory period
  • Relative refractory period
94
Q

What occurs during the absolute refractory period?

A

No stimulus can trigger another action potential

95
Q

What occurs during the relative refractory period?

A

Only a larger-than-normal stimulus can initiate another action potential

96
Q

T or F: Nodes of Ranvier don’t contain voltage-gated Na+ channels.

A

False. Only the Nodes of Ranvier have voltage-gated Na+ channels.

97
Q

What are the two primary functions of myelin?

A
  • Increase the speed at which an action potential propagates
  • Prevent Na+ from leaking into the extracellular space
98
Q

What are the six steps of neurotransmitter action?

A
  • Synthesis
  • Storage
  • Recycling
  • Fusion (exocytosis)
  • Ligand-receptor binding
  • Termination of signal
99
Q

What are the three ways neurotransmitter activity can terminate?

A
  • Diffusion
  • Enzymatic breakdown
  • Uptake by presynaptic axon terminal
100
Q

What property of an action potential determines how much NT is released?

A

The frequency of action potentials

101
Q

What are the two temporal patterns of action potentials?

A
  • Tonic
  • Phasic
102
Q

What is the firing pattern of tonic action potentials?

A

Chronic and low-level firing pattern

103
Q

What is the firing pattern of phasic action potentials?

A

A pattern of pulsing bursts

104
Q

How do agonistic drugs effect NT synthesis?

A

Increase synthesis

105
Q

How do agonistic drugs affect the degrading enzymes in terminal buttons?

A

They destroy degrading enzymes to increase the number of NTs

106
Q

Do agonistic or antagonistic drugs increase the release of NTs from terminal buttons?

107
Q

Do agonistic or antagonistic drugs bind to autoreceptors and block their inhibitory effect?

108
Q

How do agonistic drugs affect postsynaptic receptors?

A

Bind to them and either activate them or increase their effect on NTs

109
Q

How do agonistic drugs prevent the deactivation of NTs?

A

By blocking their degradation or reuptake

110
Q

How do antagonistic drugs effect NT synthesis?

A

Prevents synthesis

111
Q

Do agonistic or antagonistic drugs cause NTs to leak from vesicles and be destroyed by degrading enzymes?

A

Antagonistic

112
Q

Do agonistic or antagonistic drugs block the release of NTs from terminal buttons?

A

Antagonistic

113
Q

Do agonistic or antagonistic drugs activate autoreceptors and inhibit NT release?

A

Antagonistic

114
Q

Do agonistic or antagonistic drugs bind to postsynaptic receptors and block NT effects?

A

Antagonistic

115
Q

Are ionotropic receptors ligand-gated or voltage-gated channels?

A

ligand-gated ion channels

116
Q

What causes ionotropic receptors to open?

A

When NTs bind to them

117
Q

Do ionotropic receptors mediate rapid or slow responses?

118
Q

What are metabotropic receptors?

A

Membrane proteins that are coupled to G proteins

119
Q

What are two types of metabotropic receptors?

A
  • Metabotropic receptors coupled to an ion channel
  • Metabotropic receptors coupled to an enzyme
120
Q

T or F: Metabotropic receptors only allow things to enter, not exit, the cell.

A

False. Allow nothing to enter cell.

121
Q

What is the most common type of metabotropic receptor?

A

G-protein-mediated receptors

122
Q

What are the three steps involved in opening an ion channel coupled to a metabotropic receptor?

A
  • NT binds to receptor
  • Binding of NT triggers the activation of a G-protein
  • The alpha subunit of the G-protein breaks off and binds to an ion channel, causing it to open
123
Q

What are the five steps involved in opening an ion channel with a metabotropic receptor coupled to an enzyme?

A
  • NT binds to receptor
  • Binding of NT triggers the activation of a G-protein
  • The alpha subunit of the G-protein breaks off and binds to an enzyme
  • The enzyme activates DNA
  • A new ion channel is formed
124
Q

What are activating systems?

A

Systems of neurons that coordinate wide areas of the brain to act in concert

125
Q

Which NT activating system is active in maintaining the waking electroencephalographic pattern of the cortex AND is thought to play a role in memory by maintaining neuron excitability?

A

The cholinergic system (ACh)

126
Q

Death of cholinergic neurons and a decrease of ACh in the neocortex are thought to be related to which neurodegenerative disease?

A

Alzheimer’s

127
Q

What type of drug is typically given to patents with Alzheimer’s to prevent ACh break down?

A

Acetylcholine esterase inhibitor (inhibits the enzyme that typically breaks down ACh)

128
Q

The frontal cortex, corpus callosum, basal forebrain nuclei, and midbrain nuclei are part of which NT activating system?

A

The cholinergic system (ACh)

129
Q

What are the two pathways of the dopaminergic activating system (DA)?

A
  • Nigrostriatial pathway
  • Mesolimbic pathway
130
Q

Is the nigrostriatial pathway or mesolimbic pathway of the dopaminergic system active in maintaining normal motor behaviour?

A

The nigrostriatial pathway

131
Q

Is an increase or decrease in DA related to the muscle rigidity and dyskinesia in Parkinson’s disease?

132
Q

Does the release of DA in the nigrostriatial pathway or mesolimbic pathway of the dopaminergic activating system cause feelings of reward and pleasure?

A

The mesolimbic pathway

133
Q

Which neurotransmitter system is thought to be most affected by addictive drugs and behavioural addiction?

A

The mesolimbic pathway of the dopaminergic activating system

134
Q

Is an increase or decrease in DA thought to be related to schizophrenia?

135
Q

The substantia nigra and caudate nucleus are part of which pathway in the dopaminergic activating system?

A

The nigrostriatial pathway

136
Q

The nucleus accumbens, ventral tegmentum, and cerebellum are part of which pathway in the dopaminergic activating system?

A

The mesolimbic pathway

137
Q

Which NT activating system is active in maintaining emotional tone and learning?

A

The noradrenergic system (NE)

138
Q

Decreased activity in the noradrenergic system is thought to be related to what?

A

Depression

139
Q

Increased activity in the noradrenergic system is thought to be related to what?

140
Q

The thalamus and locus coeruleus are part of which NT activating system?

A

The noradrenergic system (NE)

141
Q

Which NT activating system is active in maintaining the waking electroencephalographic pattern?

A

The serotonergic system (5-HT)

142
Q

Changes in which NT activating system are related to OCD, tics, and schizophrenia?

A

The serotonergic system (5-HT)

143
Q

T or F: Abnormalities in brain stem 5-HT are linked to disorders like sleep apnea and SIDS.

144
Q

The Raphe nuclei are part of which NT activating system?

A

The serotonergic system (5-HT)

PSYC*3270 (12 decks)

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