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BC Test > Protocol (sec. 1) > Flashcards

Protocol (sec. 1) Flashcards

1
Q

Who can choose to modify certain treatment recommendations?

A

Medical director

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2
Q

When is it recommended that a paramedic make contact with the physician for consultation?

A

On complicated patients

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3
Q

If the paramedic is unable to make contact with a physician for medical direction, the paramedic may administer:

A

a. BLS treatment according to his judgment or

b. ALS treatment only as authorized in protocols

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4
Q

Transport decisions should be made using what form?

A

Hospital Capability form

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5
Q

What is considered a new born?

A

just delivered

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6
Q

What is considered a neonate?

A

Younger than 6 weeks

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7
Q

What is considered an infant?

A

Under 1

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8
Q

What is considered a child?

A

1 to puberty

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9
Q

What is considered puberty?

A

pubic hair, facial hair, breast development

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10
Q

What is considered an adolescent?

A

a. reached puberty

b. treated as adult

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11
Q

Transport decisions definitions for Pediatric (2)

a. Trauma
b. Medical

A

a. Trauma = 15 yrs

b. Medical = 17 yrs

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12
Q

The treatment protocols are divided into ___ and ___ sections.

A

Adult and pediatric

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13
Q

How many parts does each section have?

A

Three

a. Supportive care
b. ALS Level 1
c. ALS Level 2

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14
Q

Define supportive care:

A

Actions authorized for EMT (BLS) or Paramedic (BLS & ALS) that are supportive in nature

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15
Q

Define ALS level 1:

A

Actions authorized prior to physician contact

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16
Q

Define ALS level 2:

A

Actions authorized only for the paramedic that require a physician consult

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17
Q

What is relied upon to determine which of the authorized treatment procedures are appropriate for a given situation?

A

Paramedic’s judgment

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18
Q

The treatment guidelines are given in:

A

Bulleted list form as a general order of steps

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19
Q

What is the intension of listing ALS 2 orders?

A

To allow for appropriate preparation and guide the paramedic

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20
Q

What must be documented in the PCR when a physician gives an ALS level 2 order?

A

Physicians name

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21
Q

Physicians authorized to approve ALS Level 2 orders include the following: (7)

A

a. EMS providers medical director
b. Hospital ER physician
c. Physician in his own office
d. Online medical control physician
e. Bystander physician personally known to medic
f. Bystander physician who presents MD or DO
g. Poison Information Center

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22
Q

If medical director, ER physician or online medical control physician give Level 2 orders, they should be requested in the following order:

A

a. Medcom
b. Telephone
c. Relay via dispatch

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23
Q

If a physician in his own office gives Level 2 orders to the paramedic, the order must: (3)

A

a. Be verbal or written
b. Signed by physician
c. Given directly to the paramedic

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24
Q

If the bystander physician that is personally known to the medic gives Level 2 orders to the paramedic, the physician must:

A

a. Accept full responsibility for patient

b. Accompany patient in the ambulance to the hospital

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25
Q

The poison information center is authorized to direct all medical care for what type of patient?

A

Toxicology and hazardous materials exposures

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26
Q

What is the telephone number for poison control?

A

800-222-1222

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27
Q

What does PCR stand for?

A

Patient care report

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28
Q

When is direct contact with the physician in the ER required?

A

Only when seeking consultation or authorization for ALS 2 orders

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29
Q

The treatment protocols have been designed to what?

A

Clinical guides, not educational documents

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30
Q

What are some organic causes of behavioral disturbances?

A

a. hypoglycemia
b. hypoxia
c. poisoning

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31
Q

If the patient is a threat to himself or others what type of force should be used?

A

reasonable physical force via law enforcement

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32
Q

If physical or chemical restraints are used, what should be placed on the patient?

A

ECG monitor and pulse ox

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33
Q

What is the state statute for a Baker act?

A

394.463

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34
Q

Is a baker act an absolute condition for transport?

A

No

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35
Q

What is the transportation procedure on transporting a baker act? (3)

A

a. Transported with an accompanying police officer
b. Paramedic-in-charge determines if officer follows or rides in the back
c. Document mileage via dispatch

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36
Q

Who is authorized to dictate certain medical care for persons who pose a threat to themselves or others (Baker Act)?

A

Police
Courts
Physicians

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37
Q

Which state statute allows for examination and treatment of incapacitated persons?

A

401.445

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38
Q

What does ICISF stand for?

A

International Critical Incident Stress Foundation

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39
Q

What is CISM?

A

Comprehensive, integrated, multicomponent, systematic program of crisis intervention

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40
Q

What is the purpose of CISM?

A

a. Education
b. Support
c. Assessment
d. Intervention

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41
Q

Who formulated and standardized CISM?

A

ICISF

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42
Q

What is the goal when applying any of the CISM components?

A

a. Assess
b. Education
c. Intervene

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43
Q

The Broward County CISM team is also known as:

A

Broward Region X CISM

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44
Q

The Broward CISM team is made up of: (5)

A

a. Law enforcement
b. Fire/rescue
c. Corrections
d. Communications
e. Licensed mental health professionals

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45
Q

To join the Broward CISM team, what needs to be completed?

A

At least 3 core ICISF courses

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46
Q

How long does the Broward CISM team have to respond to a critical incident?

A

Maximum of 2 hours

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47
Q

How often does the CISM team meet?

A

a. On a periodic basis

b. for training and information

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48
Q

Define defusing:

A

a. within first 12 hours

b. Homogeneous groups

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49
Q

Define debriefing:

A

a. 12-72 hours
b. prior to demobilization
c. significant personal loss

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50
Q

When is the expanded-phase defusing started?

A

within first 12 hours

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51
Q

Define crisis management briefing: (3)

A

a. Large incident with high media coverage
b. Large or mixed groups
c. Focus on assessment and information

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52
Q

What is considered a critical incident?

A

Any situation that is out of the norm or challenges a person’s normal coping

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53
Q

What is the benefit to group intervention?

A

Stronger group cohesion

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54
Q

Who is contacted when requesting a CISM team?

A

Communications Captain at Broward Regional Communications Center

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55
Q

What is the communications centers number?

A

954-765-5100

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56
Q

The agency requesting CISM team should provide the following information: (4)

A

a. agency name
b. type of incident
c. number of members involved
d. call back information

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57
Q

How are the CISM members contacted?

A

a. Communication Captain pages out the on-call CISM team leader
b. At the same time, sends out text messages to all CISM members

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58
Q

Who contacts the site contact person?

A

CISM Clinical director

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59
Q

All personnel are assembled according to:

A

Type

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60
Q

In a defusing or debriefing, personnel are assembled according to: (3)

A

a. Rank
b. Involvement to the incident
c. Proximity to the incident

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61
Q

Who determines the assembly of personnel during the defusing or debriefing?

A

Responding team leader

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62
Q

How is the CISM recorded?

A

It is not

No written, audio, or video

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63
Q

All patients found in cardiac arrest will receive CPR unless an exception is met: (4)

A

a. Advanced directive/DNRO
b. Determination of death
c. Discontinuance of CPR
d. Documentation

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64
Q

Which DNRO form is approved in the State of Florida?

A

Florida DNRO

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65
Q

If a DNRO from another state is presented what is the procedure?

A

Contact medical control

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66
Q

What is considered a valid DNRO?

A

a. Original yellow DNRO (DOH form 1896)
b. A copy on yellow paper
c. Patient identification device

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67
Q

What is a patient identification device?

A

Miniature version of the DOH Form 1896

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68
Q

What must be present to honor a DNRO? (3)

A

a. States its a DNRO
b. Signed by physician
c. Signed by patient or guardian

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69
Q

How is the identity of a DNRO confirmed? (3)

A

a. Driver’s license
b. Photo ID or
c. Witness known by patient

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70
Q

If a witness is used to identify the patient of a DNRO, what information must be documented? (3)

A

a. name of witness
b. address and phone of witness
c. relationship to patient

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71
Q

During transport of a live patient with a DNRO, EMS can provide:

A

a. pain relief or medically indicated care

b. no respiratory or cardiac resuscitation

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72
Q

Who can revoke the DNRO?

A

a. Patient

b. Guardian or surrogate

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73
Q

How do you have to express the revoking of the DNRO? (4)

A

a. Writing
b. Physical destruction
c. Failure to present
d. Orally

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74
Q

What is POLST?

A

Physician Orders for Life Sustaining Treatment Paradigm

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75
Q

What does POLST emphasize?

A

End of life planning:

a. Advanced care
b. Shared decision making
c. Ensuring patient’s wishes are honored

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76
Q

Which type of patients should have a POLST form?

A

Serious illness or frailty

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77
Q

For serious illness or frailty patients, what is the current form to have?

A

Standing medical orders

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78
Q

For healthy patients, what is a tool for making future end-of-life decisions?

A

Advanced directives

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79
Q

What are the other programs besides POLST?

A

a. MOLST
b. MOST
c. POST

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80
Q

What does MOLST stand for?

A

Medical Orders for Life Sustaining Treatment

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81
Q

What does MOST stand for?

A

Medical Orders for Scope of Treatment

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82
Q

What does POST stand for?

A

Physician Orders for Scope of Treatment

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83
Q

How many presumptive and conclusive signs must be present to determine someone dead?

A

4 presumptive

1 conclusive

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84
Q

What are the presumptive signs?

A

Unresponsive
Apnea
Pulseless
Fixed dilated pupils

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85
Q

What are the conclusive signs?

A

Injuries incompatible with life
Tissue decomposition
Rigor mortis
Lividity

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86
Q

What patients require full ALS resuscitation?

A

a. Hypothermia
b. Barbiturate overdose
c. Electrocution

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87
Q

A trauma victim who does not meet the “determination of death” criteria listed above may be determined to be dead based on the following criteria:

A

Pulseless and apnea associated with asystole and:

a. Blunt trauma arrest
b. Prolonged extrication
c. Arrest from brain injury

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88
Q

Who is responsible for the body once death has occurred?

A

Local law enforcement

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89
Q

If CPR is started in the field by EMS personnel, who can stop the resuscitation efforts?

A

Order from medical direction

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90
Q

What needs to be in place prior to terminating resuscitation efforts? (4)

A

a. All ALS and BLS
b. Advanced airway successfully accomplished
c. IV with shocks
d. Asystole

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91
Q

How many paramedics should verify ET tube placement?

A

two paramedics

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92
Q

What do you do with the body if the scene is a suspected homicide?

A

Do not cover the body with a sheet

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93
Q

A rehab area will be set up at the discretion of:

A

The incident commander

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94
Q

Who is responsible for the management and coordination of the rehab area?

A

The first available EMS unit

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95
Q

Who selects the Rehab area?

A

IC

If the IC does not determine the Rehab Officer decides

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96
Q

What does the Rehab Officer gather for the rehab area? (4)

A

a. Fluids
b. Food
c. Medical equipment
d. Other (fans, awning, chairs, etc.)

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97
Q

When is food provided in a rehab area?

A

operations 3 hours or longer

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98
Q

What is the minimum manning for rehab?

A

2 rescue personnel

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99
Q

Firefighters will be evaluated following: (4)

A

a. 2 scba bottles or 30 minutes
b. SCBA failure
c. CP, SOB, N&V, W&D, AMS, Cramps
d. At discretion of IC, Rehab officer, Safety officer, CISM coordinator, company officer

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100
Q

When is a medical evaluation form completed?

A

all personnel entering rehab and before they exit rehab

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101
Q

All personnel receiving ALS treatment and transport will have what completed?

A

PCR

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102
Q

How often does an examination take place in rehab?

A

10 minute intervals

103
Q

If a firefighter is not routinely returned to emergency operations, what is written?

A

EMS run report and casualty report

104
Q

If normal presentations are present in rehab, what is the procedure?

A

Rehydrate and rest for not less than 15 minutes

105
Q

What are abnormal presentations? BP:

A

Higher or lower than normal

106
Q

What are abnormal presentations? SaO2:

A

Less than 94%

107
Q

What are abnormal presentations? Pulse:

A

a. at rest: should be less than 100 bpm
b. at work: should be less than 120 bpm (>120 for >15 min = transport)
c. never to exceed 180 bpm

108
Q

What are abnormal presentations? Body Temp:

A

Greater than 100.6F

longer than 15 mins and after O2 = transport

109
Q

CO values:

A

5% = normal for non-smoker
8% = normal for smoker
More than 12% = moderate
More than 25% = severe

110
Q

Normal presentations should return within:

A

15 minutes

111
Q

If a team member’s heart rate exceeds 110 bpm, what is performed next?

A

An oral temperature is taken

112
Q

If the team member’s heart rate exceeds 110 bpm and the oral temperature is over 100.6F, what is the next step?

A

Member not permitted to wear PPE and should be treated for heat stress

113
Q

When will a responder receive ALS treatment and transport?

A

If presentations are abnormal for more than 15 mins

114
Q

If an emergency worker has a CO of more than 8% but less than 15% what is done?

A

Given the opportunity to breath ambient air for 5 mins

115
Q

If the CO reading is still higher than 8% after breathing ambient air, what is done?

A

Given oxygen until it drops below 5%

116
Q

Any member with a CO reading of _____ must be transported to the hospital.

A

25%

117
Q

Which hospital should the CO patient be transported to?

A

One with a hyperbaric chamber

118
Q

No worker will leave the rehab area until the CO reading is below what?

A

8%

119
Q

Any emergency responder with ___, ___, and ___, will receive immediate ALS and transport.

A

CP, SOB, and AMS

120
Q

What is done prior to taking anything orally?

A

Clean hands and face

121
Q

What is the standard for oral hydration?

A

a. 1 to 2 quarts of fluid over 15 mins
b. At least 1 quart per hour
c. At least 8 ounces while scba fills

122
Q

Who authorizes members to leave rehab?

A

rehab officer

123
Q

Members can return to manpower or incident commander when the following criteria have been met: (4)

A

a. Vital signs are WNL
b. Absence of abnormal signs and symptoms
c. Minimum of 15 mins of rest
d. Released by rehab officer

124
Q

Where is the Rehab Medical Evaluation Form forwarded to?

A

Rescue (EMS) Division

125
Q

What is the standard dispatch for an Air Rescue assignment?

A

1 engine and 1 rescue

126
Q

Who can modify the air rescue assignment?

A

uniformed fire department officer

127
Q

What are fire department personnel used for at a heli-spot?

A

Safety
Security
Patient Loading

128
Q

Who is legally and operationally responsible for the helicopter?

A

PIC

129
Q

Takeoffs and landings should be in what wind direction?

A

Into the wind

130
Q

The heli-spot should be cleared of any obstacles which is considered:

A

objects more than 40 feet tall that is within 100 feet of the heli-spot

131
Q

What is the minimum number of rotor guards?

A

Minimum of one, two if available

132
Q

Can the marshaller become a rotor guard?

A

No

133
Q

Who has the general responsibility & definite responsibility to keep unauthorized personnel away from the helicopter?

A

a. General = Fire department personnel

b. Most definite responsibility = of the PIC and heli-spot group officer in charge

134
Q

Is it necessary to have a hose line pulled and/or charged?

A

No, up to the incident commander

135
Q

Where will the marshaller stand?

A

outer edge on the windward side (wind to back)

136
Q

Who has the primary marshaling duties?

A

Apparatus Lieutenant or Captain

137
Q

Who maintains contact with the helicopter?

A

an additional firefighter assigned to the marshaller

138
Q

Who has primary responsibility of patient care?

A

Rescue unit OIC

139
Q

Air rescue is dispatched by who?

A

IC

140
Q

Who contacts the receiving hospital, helicopter or rescue?

A

Rescue

141
Q

The only patient information that the IC needs from the rescue unit when requesting air rescue is:

A

a. number of patients

b. designated receiving facility

142
Q

Does Air rescue need/require a completed run sheet?

A

no, whatever information you have should be provided to flight medic

143
Q

When moving the patient to the helicopter, the patient will be secured to:

A

a backboard with minimum of 3 straps

144
Q

If the patient becomes unruly, where is the 4th strap placed?

A

above the knees

145
Q

How many members will carry the stretcher to the helicopter?

A

minimum of 4, one being air rescue crew member

146
Q

What is the size of the heli-spot?

A

100’ x 100’

147
Q

What is Medcom priority I?

A

a. Critical

b. Immediately life-threatening

148
Q

What is Medcom priority II?

A

a. Serious

b. Immediate intervention, potential to become life threatening

149
Q

What is Medcom priority III?

A

a. Stable

b. Not requiring immediate medical intervention

150
Q

What is Medcom priority IV?

A

Administrative traffic

151
Q

What are the Medcom classifications?

A

a. Adult and pediatric

b. Cardiac, Medical, OB, Trauma

152
Q

How are pre-alerts communicated?

A

a. Via the dispatcher

b. Second contact via medcom enroute to hospital

153
Q

When is the refusal of care policy utilized?

A

Patient refuses evaluation, treatment, and/or transport

154
Q

Who can refused care?

A

Competent

Adult (emancipated or legal representative)

155
Q

Who is classified as an emancipated minor? (3)

A

a. self-sufficient minor
b. married minor
c. minor in military

156
Q

An individual may not refuse medical care based on the following: (6)

A

a. Altered LOC
b. Suicide (attempt or verbal)
c. Severely altered vital signs
d. Mental retardation
e. Not acting as a “reasonable person would”
f. Younger than 18

157
Q

What information must be provided when a patient signs a refusal of care? (3)

A

a. release is against medical advice
b. release applies to this instance only
c. EMS should be requested if necessary

158
Q

After the refusal of care is signed, it must be witnessed. Which includes: (3)

A

a. Name
b. Contact information
c. Signature (if signature is refused, document in report)

159
Q

For refusal of care, medical direction should be contact for consultation under the following circumstances: (4)

A

a. low severity patient who is 18 yrs old
b. refusal presents significant risk to the patient or EMS
c. Patient who is not their own legal guardian
d. Patient who refuses after any IV medication (consider PD)

160
Q

If a patient refuses transport to the nearest location, it is considered what?

A

refusal of transport

161
Q

Who should be contacted when a patient refuses transport to nearest location?

A

Local department’s supervisor

162
Q

If a patient refuses to be transported to any facility, who should be contacted?

A

Medical direction

163
Q

What is a rescue task force?

A

team of law enforcement providing forced protection of rescue personnel

164
Q

What does the rescue task force do?

A

triage and immediate life saving treatment

165
Q

What is the procedure for the first arriving officer of an MCI? (5)

A

a. Size up, estimate number of victims
b. Request a Level # MCI
c. Identify a staging area
d. Direct crews to triage
e. Move walking wounded and assign someone to watch

166
Q

What should the IC be on the look out for at Active shooter incidents? (4)

A

a. suspicious individuals
b. suspicious packages
c. suspicious vehicles
d. potential IED

167
Q

What is the acronym for an active shooter incident?

A

THREAT

168
Q

What does THREAT stand for?

A 
Threat suppression
Hemorrhage control
Rapid Extrication to safety
Assessment by medical
Transport
169
Q

What does a red ribbon mean?

A

immediate care

170
Q

What does a yellow ribbon mean?

A

delayed care

171
Q

What does a green ribbon mean?

A

Ambulatory (minor)

172
Q

What does a black ribbon mean?

A

Deceased (non-salvageable)

173
Q

What are the first four functions on a MCI?

A

Triage
Treatment
Transport
Staging

174
Q

What are other sections/officers of an MCI? (8)

A

a. Medical
b. Landing zone/Heli-spot
c. Extrication
d. Hazmat
e. Rehab
f. Safety
g. PIO
h. Medical intelligence

175
Q

What is medical intelligence for?

A

a. assist with suspected or known WMD events

b. decon, antidotes, and treatment

176
Q

Are the responding units included in the MCI response?

A

a. On-scene units are not included

b. Responding units are included in assignment

177
Q

When is trauma transport criteria determined?

A

During secondary triage

178
Q

Upon notification of an MCI, medical control will: (2)

A

a. gather information from each hospital

b. relays to transport officer or medical communications officer

179
Q

On large-scale incidents, IC should consider:

A

sending a hospital coordinator to each hospital

180
Q

Define active shooter:

A

a. Individual engaged in killing or attempting to kill in confined, populated area
b. most cases use firearms

181
Q

Define active shooter incident:

A

unpredictable and evolve quickly, over within 10-15 mins

182
Q

Define casualty collection point:

A

a. safe location to receive victims

b. inside or outside

183
Q

Define concealment:

A

provided protection from observation

184
Q

Define cover:

A

Provides protection from direct fire

185
Q

Define contact team:

A

Officers only going to neutralize the perpetrator

186
Q

What is strike team?

A

a. same kind and type of resources with common communication

b. ALS transport strike team would consist of 5 ALS transports

187
Q

What is a task force?

A

a. group of resources with common communication

b. MCI task force would be 2 ALS, 2 BLS transport and 1 Suppression

188
Q

Active shooter Zone - Hot:

A

a. Direct threat care/Care under fire

b. Not been cleared by law enforcement

189
Q

Active shooter zone - Warm:

A

a. Indirect threat care/Tactical field care

b. Entry of Fire/EMS with armed law enforcement

190
Q

Active shooter zone - Cold:

A

a. Evacuation care/Tactical evacuation care

b. Not reachable by the perpetrator

191
Q

Number of victims for MCI level 1:

A

5-10

192
Q

Number of victims for MCI level 2:

A

11-20

193
Q

Number of victims for MCI level 3:

A

21-100

194
Q

Number of victims for MCI level 4:

A

101-1000

195
Q

Number of victims for MCI level 5:

A

1001+

196
Q

How many units responding during a MCI level 1?

A

a. 4 ALS transports
b. 2 Suppression units
c. 1 shift commander
d. 1 EMS supervisor

197
Q

How many units responding during a MCI level 2?

A

a. 6 ALS transports
b. 3 Suppression units
c. 2 shift commanders
d. 2 EMS supervisors

198
Q

How many units responding during a MCI level 3?

A

a. 8 ALS transports
b. 4 Suppression units
c. 3 shift commanders
d. 3 EMS supervisors
e. 1 Command vehicle
f. 1 MCI trailer
g. 1 Operations Chief

199
Q

What size task force is responding for MCI level 4?

A

5 MCI Task Forces:

a. 2 ALS transport strike teams (10)
b. 2 BLS transport strike teams (10)
c. 1 Suppression strike team (5)

200
Q

What size task force is responding for MCI level 5?

A

10 MCI Task Forces:

a. 4 ALS transport strike teams (20)
b. 4 BLS transport strike teams (20)
c. 2 Suppression strike teams (10)

201
Q

Who is notified on a MCI level 1?

A

a. 2 hospitals

b. 1 trauma center

202
Q

Who is notified on a MCI level 2?

A

a. 3 hospitals

b. 2 trauma centers

203
Q

Who is notified on a MCI level 3?

A

a. 4 hospitals
b. 3 trauma centers
c. Warning Point

204
Q

Who is notified on a MCI level 4?

A

a. 10 hospitals
b. 5 trauma centers
c. Warning Point
d. MMRS
e. SMRT
f. FAST
g. DMAT
h. MRC

205
Q

Who is notified on a MCI level 5?

A

a. 20 hospitals
b. 10 trauma centers
c. Warning Point
d. MMRS
e. SMRT
f. FAST
g. DMAT
h. MRC
I. IMSURT

206
Q

What are some considerations for a treatment area? (4)

A

a. Capable of accommodating the number of victims
b. Consider weather, safety, hazmat
c. Designate entry and exit
d. Divide into Red, Yellow, Green

207
Q

Who is responsible for re-triaging of victims?

A

Red, Yellow, Green treatment managers

208
Q

All MCI victims that are air-transported should be assigned to which hospitals?

A

Distant unless victim’s needs dictate

209
Q

The Medical Communications Coordinator will advise medical control with the following information when a unit transports: (4)

A

a. Unit
b. Number of victims
c. Priority (R,Y,G)
d. Special needs (cardiac, burn)

210
Q

Ground transported victims should be assigned to hospitals on a:

A

Rotating basis

211
Q

What is MRCC?

A

Medical Resource Coordination Center

212
Q

What is the MRCC’s prime function?

A

Maintain status information

213
Q

How many MCI supply trailers are there in Broward County?

A

4

214
Q

How many MCI trailers are there in Region 7?

A

3 large MCI supply trailers

215
Q

The staging officer should maintain a reserve of _____ transport vehicles.

A

two

216
Q

What is packaged in the MCI bags? (5)

A

a. 2 triage packs
b. 50 triage DMS tags
c. Grease pencils/pens/pencils
d. MCI FOG 1 - 8
e. Additional tourniquets, dressings, seals, and decompression needles (10)

217
Q

What color vest for command?

A

White

218
Q

What color vest for medical supply officer?

A

Blue

219
Q

What color vest for triage officer?

A

Yellow

220
Q

What color vest for treatment officer?

A

Red

221
Q

What color vest for transport officer?

A

Green

222
Q

What color vest for medical supply officer?

A

Blue

223
Q

What color vest for Medical Communications Coordinator?

A

Green

224
Q

What color vest for staging officer?

A

Orange

225
Q

What does START stand for?

A

Simple triage and rapid treatment

226
Q

Where are the triage ribbons tied on a patient?

A

upper extremity in a visible location

227
Q

Where is secondary triage performed?

A

Treatment phase

228
Q

What are the only corrections of lift-threatening problems in triage?

A

a. Airway obstruction

b. Severe hemorrhage

229
Q

Adult - Move the walking wounded:

A

Green

230
Q

Adult - No respirations after head tilt:

A

Black

231
Q

Adult - Respirations over 30/min:

A

Red

232
Q

Adult - Perfusion (no radial pulse/cap refill over 2 sec):

A

Red

233
Q

Adult - Mental Status (unable to follow commands):

A

Red

234
Q

Adult - Stable RPM/Walking:

A

Green

235
Q

Adult - Stable RPM/Non ambulatory:

A

Yellow

236
Q

What age is JumpSTART performed?

A

8 or less

237
Q

Ped - Move the walking wounded:

A

Green

238
Q

Ped - No respirations after head tilt and no peripheral pulse:

A

Black

239
Q

Ped - Respirations over 45/under 15:

A

Red

240
Q

Ped - No respirations with a pulse:

A

Give 5 ventilations

241
Q

Ped - If respirations resume after giving 5 ventilations:

A

Red

242
Q

Ped - Perfusion (no radial pulse/cap refill over 2 secs):

A

Red

243
Q

Ped - Mental Status (Alert/Verbal)

A

Yellow

244
Q

Ped - Mental Status (Pain/Unresponsive)

A

Red

245
Q

Ped - Stable RPM/walking:

A

Green

246
Q

Ped - Stable RPM/Non ambulatory:

A

Yellow

247
Q

The START triage system was developed by:

A

New Port Beach FR

Hoag Hospital

248
Q

The JumpSTART triage system was developed by:

A

Dr. Lou Romig

249
Q

If law enforcement refuses access into the scene:

A

Notify EMS supervisor and complete incident report

250
Q

At a crime scene, do not attempt resuscitation if the patient:

A

Has no pulse, no spontaneous respirations, and meets “death in the field”

251
Q

What is the website for the protocols?

A

GBEMDA.org

252
Q

What is the Broward EMS council’s web site?

A

Broward.org/BrowardEMS

253
Q

How often do medical directors meet?

A

Yearly (or sooner if more emergent)

BC Test (12 decks)

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