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700 Flashcards

0
Q

Who is responsible for assuring that crews are assembled into working engine, ladder, or rescue companies?

A

Incident Commander

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1
Q

How will SFRD achieve higher staffing levels for company operations?

A

A. Assure adequate personnel are dispatched

B. Assemble engine, ladder, and rescue crews together to form working companies

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2
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing for an engine?

A

3 personnel

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3
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing for a ladder?

A

2 personnel

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4
Q

What is the minimum crew staffing for a rescue?

A

2 personnel

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5
Q

What are 5 basic engine company responsibilities?

A

a. fire ground operations
b. medical rescue
c. hazards abatement
d. non-emergency incident abatement
e. equipment and station maintenance

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6
Q

Where can you find the methodology for specific tasks performed by engines?

A

Competency Based Driver Operator Performance Objectives

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7
Q

What size hose stream should be used on a Defensive Plan?

A

2 1/2” or larger

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8
Q

Responses of an ALS engine, for medical purposes, will be dictated by:

A

OPM 705.00 “Response Assignment Strategy”

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9
Q

Who initiates ALS treatment on an ALS call?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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10
Q

Who will advise dispatch as for the need of transport?

A

ALS engine paramedic

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11
Q

When an engine requests a transport unit, the rescue will respond:

A

“Emergency” unless otherwise requested

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12
Q

Who is the first choice in shutting down a unit to assist in transport?

A

EMS captain

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13
Q

Does the loss of the jump seat firefighter mandate that an engine is out of service?

A

No, the engine will advise dispatch of their reduced staffing and remain in service on a limited call basis

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14
Q

Can the engine follow the rescue to the hospital?

A

Requires permission from the shift commander

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15
Q

Failure to willingly obey a supervisor represents:

A

insubordination

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16
Q

Who is contacted when a member comes in contact with a contagious disease or toxic substance?

A

Their officer

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17
Q

While dealing with the public, the greatest degree of:

A

silence compatible with an efficient discharge of duty

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18
Q

What are two specific task assigned to aerial companies?

A

a. elevated fire streams

b. laddering a building beyond ground ladders

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19
Q

What are some primary aerial company responsibilities? (7)

A

a. victim rescue
b. ventilation
c. laddering
d. forcible entry
e. elevated water streams
f. salvage and overhaul
g. secondary means of egress

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20
Q

What are some secondary functions of an aerial device? (3)

A

a. utility control
b. RIT
c. Engine company ops

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21
Q

Initial concerns on the fire ground for an aerial company pertain to:

A

a. positioning to perform aerial functions

b. staging out of vehicular travel lanes

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22
Q

What are basic rescue company responsibilities? (5)

A

a. BLS and ALS
b. Communicate with hospital
c. Transport to hospital
d. Vehicle extrication
e. Fire ground operations

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23
Q

Can a rescue unit establish command?

A

it is not recommended

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24
Q

As part of a multi-unit response to a structure fire, a rescue should:

A

a. prepare to perform engine company functions

b. report to command for orders

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25
Q

Engine companies will deal primarily with what on a HazMat call?

A

scene safety and product identification

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26
Q

When an Engine is responding to a HazMat call, they should check with dispatch for additional information, particularly:

A

a. material involved
b. size of leak/spill
c. immediate life endangerment

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27
Q

An engine should perform immediate rescue at a hazmat scene when the rescuers are:

A

a. fully aware of risks
b. full PPE and SCBA
c. utilize minimum number of personnel
d. if hazard is unknown, wait for hazmat team

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28
Q

What are different ways to identify a hazardous material? (5)

A

a. consult witnesses or facility personnel
b. DOT ERG
c. type and size of container
d. lettering or markings
e. shipping papers

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29
Q

An engine company can mitigate which type of Haz Mat scene?

A

Minor Category 1

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30
Q

What is used to report all hazardous materials incidents to dispatch?

A

Uniform Classification System for Categorizing Haz Mat Incidents

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31
Q

The clean up and recovery of a spill is the responsibility of who?

A

a. Property/Vehicle owner

b. SFRD will not take possession

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32
Q

To be an assigned diver, one must have:

A

a. Public safety diver
b. Dive Rescue 1
c. Assigned by the Fire Chief

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33
Q

How many members must be on duty for the dive team to be “in service”?

A

a. at least 2

b. preferably stationed with the apparatus

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34
Q

If a dive member is unable to perform physically, who do they notify?

A

Station commander who will notify Shift commander

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35
Q

What is check out daily on the Dive Truck?

A

a. mechanical
b. inventory
c. auxiliary equipment

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36
Q

Who are the dive checkout sheets forwarded to?

A

Shift commander

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37
Q

What is the recommended number of personnel to have on scene of a dive incident?

A

a. minimum of 2 divers

b. minimum of 2 support

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38
Q

Where are the dive team guidelines located?

A

SFRD Special Operation Manual

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39
Q

What is the appropriate documentation for a dive recovery?

A

a. vehicle and owner information

b. for billing department to recover fees

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40
Q

Does the dive team perform dive recovery in other cities?

A

no, unless extraordinary circumstances

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41
Q

Where has the Rapid Entry Dive Gear been assigned?

A

39, 59, 72, and 83

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42
Q

What gear makes up the Rapid Entry Dive Gear? (6)

A

a. Dive tank (min. 63 cu. ft.)
b. BC with built in weight and knife
c. Divator MKII mask
d. 2nd stage regulator
e. Light
f. Throw bag

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43
Q

What gear makes up the throw bags? (4)

A

a. 3 PFDs
b. Dive rope
c. Center punch
d. Secondary cutting device

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44
Q

Where is the Rapid Entry Dive Gear located in the stations?

A

a. on the suppression unit

b. gear moved to rescue if personnel is assigned to rescue

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45
Q

Which members are allowed to check out the dive gear?

A

Department divers only

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46
Q

What is the minimum pressure for the dive tank?

A

no less than 2800 psi

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47
Q

What is done if a piece of dive equipment is found defective or damage?

A

a. red tagged

b. inform station captain along with the shift BC and Logistics division

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48
Q

What dive gear is issued to all divers? (5)

A

a. wet suit
b. fins
c. gloves
d. booties
e. snorkel and mask

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49
Q

What is critical during dive incidents?

A

a. initial size up

b. information gathering

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50
Q

The first arriving officer of a dive incident is responsible for: (4)

A

a. scene management
b. last seen point
c. witness interview
d. overall safety

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51
Q

Where does the search pattern begin?

A

last seen point

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52
Q

How do you prepare a site for dive entry?

A

roof ladder placed into water

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53
Q

What is the bottom time for divers?

A

5 minutes

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54
Q

The Rapid Entry Diver is responsible for: (4)

A

a. dive decisions
b. dive safety
c. last seen point
d. point of entry

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55
Q

What is the diver responsible for during the dive? (4)

A

a. monitor air pressure and depth
b. underwater survey and victim removal
c. communicate
d. calling off the dive

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56
Q

How many divers are standing by when a diver is in the water?

A

Two

One fully dressed, one 90% ready

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57
Q

A USAR/DMAT activation means:

A

a. formal request by FEMA to mobilize

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58
Q

How long do the USAR/DMAT members have to arrive at the point of departure?

A

within 6 hours

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59
Q

A USAR/DMAT alert means:

A

a. formal notification by FEMA that an event has occurred and activation is pending

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60
Q

Who has the sole discretion of joining the South Florida USAR task force?

A

sponsoring jurisdiction, which is City of Miami FD

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61
Q

In the event of a possible FEMA alert, who is notified?

A

Shift commander, without delay

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62
Q

In the event of FEMA activation, who is notified?

A

shift commander immediately

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63
Q

If a member is on duty and activated by FEMA, what happens?

A

remain on duty until relieved by the shift commander

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64
Q

Who is notified of the hours and overtime hours incurred by FEMA?

A

Administrative officer

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65
Q

What types of incidents are involved in Technical Rescue?

A

a. Confined space
b. Trench rescue
c. Structural collapse
d. Rope rescue

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66
Q

What are the engine and rescue limited to at a Technical Rescue scene?

A

recognition and support roles

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67
Q

How many phases are there in Rope Rescue incidents?

A

5

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68
Q

What is phase 1 in rope rescue incidents?

A

Scene preparation and reconnaissance

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69
Q

What is phase 2 in rope rescue incidents?

A

Pre-rescue operations

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70
Q

What is phase 3 in rope rescue incidents?

A

Rescue operations

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71
Q

What is phase 4 in rope rescue incidents?

A

Safety considerations

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72
Q

What is phase 5 in rope rescue incidents?

A

Termination

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73
Q

How many members go in on a Recon Team?

A

minimum of two personnel

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74
Q

The recon team should have medical equipment with them to begin:

A

first aid

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75
Q

What information will be helpful in determining the need for additional resources? (5)

A

a. number of victims
b. location and condition of victims
c. angle of terrain
d. distance to victims
e. estimated time of evacuation

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76
Q

Rescue operation should be conducted from ____ risk to _____ risk.

A

Low to high

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77
Q

A stokes evolution should be performed with a minimum of _____ personnel

A

4, facing the direction of travel

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78
Q

What are excavations greater than 60 degrees considered?

A

high angle operations

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79
Q

What is the safety factor when dealing with ropes?

A

a. 15 : 1

b. double rope technique shall be used when possible

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80
Q

What is considered a high risk operation during rope rescue?

A

helicopter operations

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81
Q

Prior to using a helicopter for rope rescue, what should be considered? (4)

A

a. time of day
b. conditions of victims
c. difficult access to victims
d. qualification of pilot

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82
Q

When is CISM considered when dealing with rope rescue incidents?

A

Phase 4

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83
Q

Where is the psychological “debriefing” performed?

A

On scene or at the station

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84
Q

How many phases are there for Structural Collapse incidents?

A

6

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85
Q

What is phase 1 of structural collapse?

A

scene preparation and reconnaissance

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86
Q

What is phase 2 of structural collapse?

A

exploration and search

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87
Q

What is phase 3 of structural collapse?

A

patient removal

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88
Q

What is phase 4 of structural collapse?

A

general debris removal

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89
Q

What is phase 5 of structural collapse?

A

safety considerations

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90
Q

What is phase 6 of structural collapse?

A

Termination

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91
Q

How big is the safety zone at a structural collapse?

A

two times the height of the building

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92
Q

If unable to obtain blueprints, what is appropriate?

A

have on-site personnel draw a sketch of the site

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93
Q

Are hose lines stretched at a collapse?

A

yes, protect in case of fire or explosion

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94
Q

Who is task force 1?

A

Metro

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95
Q

Who is task force 2?

A

Miami

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96
Q

Besides the specialty teams, who else is assigned to the collapse incident?

A

full structural assignment

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97
Q

What type of ventilation is provided at a structural collapse?

A

a. positive pressure

b. may be times when PPV will not work

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98
Q

Who assigns an access control person?

A

Battalion Chief, preferably not a team member

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99
Q

How do you assess the effectiveness of proper ventilation?

A

a. atmospheric monitoring

b. assessment of types of space, voids, and crevices

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100
Q

How big is the square box when performing a search of a collapsed building>

A

2’ x 2’

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101
Q

What are the marking called in the structural collapse?

A

Structural/hazard evaluation marking

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102
Q

What color spray paint is used for the marking system?

A

Orange only

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103
Q

What does a blank box indicate?

A

a. structure is accessible and safe for search

b. damage is minor or completely pancaked with little danger of further collapse

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104
Q

What does a box with a single slash indicate?

A

a. significant damage

b. areas are relatively safe but others need shoring or bracing

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105
Q

What does a box with crossing slash indicate?

A

a. not safe for search and rescue operations

b. search may proceed with significant risk

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106
Q

What does an arrow located next to a marking box indicate?

A

the safe entrance if the marking is away from the entrance

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107
Q

What is equipped with the entry team?

A

a. portable radio (one member)
b. explosion-proof lighting or cylume
c. atmospheric monitor (personal unit preferred)
d. PPE

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108
Q

What is the size of the X that is drawn for a search?

A

2’ x 2’

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109
Q

The X is constructed in two operations:

A

a. single slash upon entry into structure, indicates search is underway
b. crossing slash upon exit of structure, indicates search is complete

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110
Q

Inside the X, what is written in the left quadrant?

A

Team completing search

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111
Q

Inside the X, what is written on the top quadrant?

A

Time and date team left the structure

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112
Q

Inside the X, what is written on the right quadrant?

A

Personal hazards (rats, etc.)

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113
Q

Inside the X, what is written on the bottom quadrant?

A

Number of live and dead victims removed

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114
Q

Entry points shall be made based on: (4)

A

a. known location of victim
b. safety of the opening
c. atmospheric readings
d. ease of recovery

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115
Q

If the victims location is known or suspected, what should be done with the entry point?

A

attempt two separate points of entry

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116
Q

Before deciding which victim should be rescued first, what should be considered?

A

Victims condition, position, and difficulty extricating

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117
Q

What is done when a buried victim is found alive in a collapse after hours of work?

A

Do not remove unless secondary collapse, fire, electrocution, or drowning

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118
Q

What percentage of people are found on top of debris or lightly buried?

A

50%

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119
Q

How does the “hailing system” work at a collapse?

A

a. rescuers placed in listening positions

b. “round the clock” call outs to get a “fix” on any sound

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120
Q

Air horn signal for All Quiet/ Cease operations at a collapse?

A

1 long blast (3 seconds)

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121
Q

Air horn signal for evacuation at a collapse?

A

3 short blasts (1 second)

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122
Q

Air horn signal for resume operations?

A

1 long and 1 short

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123
Q

What should be utilized when forcing blindly through walls and roof/floors?

A

inspection holes

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124
Q

Where are reinforced concrete columns or filled cells found?

A

at corners or adjacent to window and door openings

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125
Q

The size of shores and type of shoring system will be dependent on what?

A

weight to be supported and condition of the element

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126
Q

What is the weight of concrete/masonry?

A

125-150 lbs per cubic ft

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127
Q

What is the weight of normal concrete floor?

A

100-150 lbs square ft

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128
Q

What should shoring systems act like?

A

double funnel

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129
Q

What are shores installed to do?

A

Support the structure

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130
Q

What is the maximum length of a shore?

A

50 times its width

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131
Q

You can build your crib box _____ times as high as the box is wide.

A

3 times

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132
Q

4x4 crib capacity (2 layer):

A

24,000 lbs

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133
Q

4x4 crib capacity (3 layer)

A

48,000 lbs

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134
Q

6x6 crib capacity (2 layer)

A

60,000 lbs

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135
Q

6x6 crib capacity (3 layer)

A

135,000 lbs

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136
Q

What is the safety factor for cribbing?

A

2 to 1

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137
Q

What are the two types of wood used for cribbing?

A

Douglas fir and southern pine

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138
Q

If there is only one opening while pulling a patient out of the hole, what is considered?

A

a. be on the egress side, avoid being blocked in by the patient
b. move moves quickly and smoothly

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139
Q

When is a CISM performed during a structural collapse?

A

Phase 5

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140
Q

To become a team member of the specialty team, all personnel must: (4)

A

a. complete a recognized course
b. request in writing for admittance to team
c. appointment by chief
d. remain in good standing

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141
Q

Who has the overall responsibility on Technical Rescue Operations?

A

Battalion Chief

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142
Q

Define High-rise:

A

a. attack lines cannot reach the fire via normal pre-connected lines or hoisting
b. where standpipes are used
c. all buildings with internal hallways over two stories

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143
Q

What is secondary in urgency when dealing with high rise fires?

A

establishing command outside the structure

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144
Q

What might be the most prudent command option when dealing with a high rise fire?

A

passing of command by first arriving officer

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145
Q

How big is the hazard zone on a high rise fire?

A

200 feet

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146
Q

How many feet should personnel stay away from hose lines supplying the Siamese?

A

50 feet

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147
Q

Who should be assigned to the firefighting level on a confirmed fire in a high rise?

A

a. Chief Officer
b. Equipped with bunker gear and SCBA
c. Known as Division XX

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148
Q

What is command concerned with on confirmed high rise fires? (7)

A

a. additional resources
b. life safety
c. lobby control
d. water supply
e. conditions in stairwells, floor above the fire and top floor
f. RIT
g. support systems (staging, rehab)

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149
Q

Who establishes lobby control?

A

Driver of first arriving engine

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150
Q

What does the lobby control bring with him?

A

a. full PPE and SCBA
b. portable radio
c. knox box key

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151
Q

Who do personnel check in with prior to reporting to any other division or group on a high rise fire?

A

lobby control

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152
Q

The national elevator code calls for elevators to:

A

automatically return to the building lobby

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153
Q

What floor should the elevator be stopped when using an elevator to access the upper floors of a high rise fire?

A

2 floors below

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154
Q

Who performs the initial fire attack at a high rise fire?

A

at least two companies (engine and rescue)

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155
Q

Where do the initial companies set up for operations on a high rise fire?

A

floor below the incident

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156
Q

Where are hose lines connected to standpipes when operating at a high rise?

A

a. not on the same floor or above

b. exception: where a true smoke tower, can connect on same floor

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157
Q

How many GPM should pump operators deliver to the attack line at a high rise fire?

A

150 gpm

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158
Q

When fighting fire in a high rise, if the fire has already extended into the hallway:

A

The officer should seriously consider deploying a backup line

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159
Q

In a high rise, fire attack must wait for verification that:

A

a sustained water supply is available

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160
Q

Which hose shall not be used to supply standpipe/sprinkler systems?

A

Large diameter hose (4 and 5)

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161
Q

How many GPM is delivered to all 1 3/4” fog nozzles?

A

150 GPM

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162
Q

D/O conducting pumping operations within ____ feet of a building must wear _____ at all times.

A

a. 100 feet

b. bunker coat and helmet

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163
Q

What should the ladder company do at a high rise fire?

A

ascend to the top of the stairwell looking for and opening roof hatches

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164
Q

What is the spacing of the stairwell support group?

A

every other floor

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165
Q

A base staging area may be required on operations:

A

above a third floor

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166
Q

Where is base staging established?

A

two floors below the fire floor

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167
Q

Where is the RIT staging at?

A

The stairwell of the floor immediately below the fire

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168
Q

Who normally assumes the role of RIT on a high rise fire?

A

Third arriving engine

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169
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving engine and rescue at a high rise fire?

A

Assess conditions on fire floor and prepare for attack

170
Q

Equipment for high rise fires: First arriving engine and rescue:

A 
Off: hand light, elevator key, utility line
D/O: lobby control
FF: high rise kit
FF (res): extend-a-bag, hand light
FF (res): rabbit tool and irons
171
Q

Equipment for high rise fires: First arriving ladder

A

Off: hand light, elevator keys, irons
D/O: pike pole, utility line
FF: rabbit tool, 2 spare scba bottles

172
Q

What is the mission of the second arriving engine and rescue on a high rise fire?

A

Report to floor below fire and prepare to support attack crew

173
Q

Equipment for high rise fires: second arriving engine and rescue:

A 
Off: hand light, elevator key, spare scba bottle
D/O: support standpipe 
FF: high rise kit
FF (res): extend-a-bag, hand light
FF (res): 2 spare scba bottles
174
Q

What is the mission of the third arriving engine on a high rise fire?

A

Report to command, obtain the TIC, prepare to serve as RIT, floor below fire

175
Q

Equipment for high rise fires: Third arriving engine?

A

Off: hand light, elevator key, TIC, search rope
D/O: spare scba pack, spare scba bottle
FF: irons and space scba bottle

176
Q

Where is the high rise kit repacked?

A

Return to station and utilize dry hose

177
Q

What size hose and length is our high rise kit?

A

a. 100ft of 1 3/4” with gated wye attached

b. 1 TFT breakaway nozzle

178
Q

What size hose and length is our extend-a-bag?

A

50ft of 2 1/2”

179
Q

On a heightened state of alert, what is done with doors and trucks?

A

a. trucks not to be left outside
b. doors to be closed at all times unless actively operating in the bay
c. perimeter doors shall be regularly checked

180
Q

Rescue has ____ WMD kits, Engine has ____ WMD kits

A

a. Rescue 2 WMD

b. Engine 3 WMD

181
Q

Each WMD kit contains the following:

A

a. 1 Scott cartridge adapter
b. 1 NBC air purifying cartridge
c. 1 pair of silvershield gloves
d. 1 hooded Saranex splash coverall

182
Q

What boots are used with the WMD kits?

A

structural firefighting boots

183
Q

What level of protection does the WMD suit provide?

A

Level C

184
Q

What level of protection does the WMD suit and SCBA provide?

A

Level B

185
Q

The WMD kits are designed to protect workers who operate in:

A

The warm zone

186
Q

The WMD kits were not designed for the Hot Zone without stringent:

A

Monitoring and identification of substance

187
Q

The WMD kits are designed to protect the rescuer against:

A

residual contamination from decon, triage, or treating

188
Q

Are these suits used outdoors or indoors?

A

open air environments unless cleared by HazMat techs

189
Q

The NBC cartridge is very effective against:

A

Nuclear and Biological

190
Q

The NBC cartridge has a particulate matter efficiency of:

A

99.997%

191
Q

The NBC cartridge can filter out particles greater than:

A

0.3 microns

192
Q

What is the micron range for Anthrax?

A

3 to 10 microns

193
Q

The NBC cartridge is effective against a variety of:

A

Organic and inorganic chemical compounds

194
Q

The NBC cartridge for Ammonia:

A

500 ppm

195
Q

The NBC cartridge for Nerve gas (sarin, tabun, vx):

A

1000 ppm

196
Q

The NBC cartridge for Hydrogen Cyanide:

A

4000 ppm

197
Q

The NBC cartridge for Benzene:

A

50 ppm

198
Q

The NBC cartridge for Chlorine:

A

5000 ppm

199
Q

The NBC cartridge for Hydrogen Chloride:

A

1000 ppm

200
Q

The NBC cartridge for Sulfur Dioxide:

A

300 ppm

201
Q

The NBC cartridge for Phosgene:

A

2000 mg/m3

202
Q

The NBC cartridge for Hydrogen Sulfide:

A

5000 ppm

203
Q

The NBC cartridge for Chloropicrin:

A

5000 ppm

204
Q

Are the NBC cartridges effective against tear gas?

A

Yes

205
Q

What is the duration of effectiveness for the NBC cartridge?

A

a. Several days for particulates

b. Varies for chemicals, expect minimum of 6-8 hours

206
Q

What effects the useful life of the cartridge?

A

a. Temperature
b. Humidity
c. Concentration of the chemical

207
Q

What type of gloves are used during decon?

A

Butyl

208
Q

If agent is an oily liquid, how is decon performed?

A

must wipe skin

209
Q

What bleach solution is used on skin?

A

a. 1 part bleach to 9 parts water = 0.5%

210
Q

What bleach solution is used for cloths and equipment?

A

Full strength household bleach = 5%

211
Q

What is the “dry chlorine” granule mixtures?

A

a. 1 oz. of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 0.5%

b. 10 oz. of chlorine granules to 1 gallon of water = 5%

212
Q

What is the chemical name for “dry chlorine”?

A

Calcium Hypochlorite

213
Q

What is the water temperature for decon?

A

60 - 70 F

214
Q

What are the 5 types of decon?

A

a. passive (remove cloths)
b. dry
c. wet
d. cross ventilation
e. combination of the above

215
Q

During decon, which unit will perform which function?

A

a. engine = water supply
b. truck = cross ventilation
c. police = security and control

216
Q

What are the rotation intervals for decon crews?

A

no more than 1 hour

217
Q

What is critical to the success of the decontamination operation?

A

speed and thoroughness

218
Q

During a heightened state of alert, all units will have which book on board?

A

Jane’s Bio/Chem Handbook

219
Q

What is the number to the County Warning Point?

A

954-765-5100

220
Q

What is the aerial platform known as?

A

a. “Platform”

b. Unit 387

221
Q

Who is allowed to operate the platform?

A

Only those who have been trained in “advanced platform operations”

222
Q

When are firefighters allowed to operate the bucket?

A

When supervised by trained operator at the pedestal

223
Q

Who is allowed to operate the turntable controls?

A

Only trained driver’s and officers

224
Q

Who is allowed to operate the basket controls?

A

Firefighters under the supervision of a trained driver/officer

225
Q

Can the basket controls be operated on a call or training when no one is at the turn table controls?

A

No

226
Q

When operating or climbing the aerial, what must be worn?

A

Minimum helmet and gloves

227
Q

Anyone climbing or operating in the bucket must wear?

A

Safety belt

228
Q

What is activated when personnel are climbing the aerial or transferring in or out of the bucket?

A

Emergency stop button

229
Q

Under normal conditions, how close can the aerial be operated to power lines?

A

No closer than 25 feet

230
Q

In exigent circumstances, the aerial may operate within _____ feet but no closer than _____ feet to power lines.

A

25 but no closer than 10

231
Q

Whenever an aerial is operated within 25 feet of power lines:

A

A safety officer shall be near the apparatus

232
Q

Where are the wheels chocked when the aerial is in-service?

A

Front wheels (front and rear of wheel)

233
Q

When is the “50 hour inspection” done on the platform?

A

First Sunday of the month

234
Q

Where is the “50 hour inspection” found?

A

Pierce Platform Operator’s Manual

235
Q

The basket may not be operated within _____ feet of a structure without an operator/spotter in the basket.

A

4 feet

236
Q

The ladder can extend, rotate, and elevate. How many of those functions can be performed at the same time?

A

only one function should be performed at a time, except in emergency situations

237
Q

When is the platform intercom system checked?

A

a. during daily check out

b. initial stages of placing the platform into operation

238
Q

If the intercom system fails:

A

The use of portable radios is acceptable

239
Q

The use of forced entry into a structure or vehicle should only occur if:

A

Exigent circumstances exist

240
Q

What is an exigent circumstance?

A

Emergency situation requiring swift action to prevent imminent danger to life or serious damage to propery

241
Q

Is PD notified to assist with forcible entry?

A

Not unless a potential scene safety hazard is present

242
Q

What causes a poor public perception?

A

Excessive damage

243
Q

For situations where a patient cannot be seen, reasonable suspicion does not exist, and neighbors aren’t available, who makes the decision to force entry?

A

Company Officer

244
Q

If forced entry occurs and no patients or dangerous situation is found, who is called?

A

Police for assessment and a report

245
Q

If forced entry occurs and no hazardous situation is present, who is called?

A

Dispatch center is notified

246
Q

Who responds to a confirmed false alarm?

A

the responding engine or ladder may be canceled should dispatch receive confirmation that the alarm is false and no assistance is needed

247
Q

Who has the responsibility of maintenance for fire alarm/suppression systems?

A

The owner

248
Q

Who has the responsibility of resetting the fire alarm/suppression system?

A

The owner

249
Q

Who is responsible for the proper function of the alarm/suppression system?

A

Building management

250
Q

Who is permitted to make repairs to a fire alarm system? (4)

A

a. specialty electrical contractor
b. electrical contractor
c. fire sprinkler contractor
d. individual properly certified

251
Q

Failure to achieve a reset of a trouble mode:

A

a. does not require immediate repair

b. unless in a multi-family dwelling, then a fire watch is needed

252
Q

Failure to achieve a reset of a multi-family dwelling, prior to going off duty, the incident commander shall contact whom?

A

Fire Life Safety and advised the Fire Marshal

253
Q

Who is contacted if a building party is unable to be contacted and the system is not able to be reset?

A

Fire Marshal who may use overtime personnel for a fire watch

254
Q

If a system is malfunctioning in a building that is not normally occupied, what is done? (office building)

A

a. no fire watch is needed
b. IC will place a note on the main entrance
c. advise FLS of the situation

255
Q

What has proven imperative in gaining early control of structure fires and reducing property damage?

A

Supplement private protection systems with FD engine operations

256
Q

Who has the responsibility to supplement the standpipe/sprinkler system?

A

Second-arriving engine

257
Q

Hydrant to engine connections should be made with what size hose?

A

LDH

258
Q

Connections to the FDC should be made with what size hose?

A

dual 2 1/2”

259
Q

What is the intent of pre-fire planning?

A

to gather information and formulate tactical considerations

260
Q

What is the pre-fire plan meant to do?

A

a. reduce the loss of life and property

b. increase firefighter safety

261
Q

Who assigns pre-fire plans?

A

Fire Marshal’s office

262
Q

The structures and/or properties for pre-fire planning shall be those which, in the event of a fire: (5)

A

a. present large loss of life
b. present large dollar loss
c. present unusual hazards
d. contain complex layouts
e. require special tactical approaches

263
Q

Fire operations are influenced by factors such as:

A

a. Occupancy
b. Building construction
c. Location and size of the fire

264
Q

What is consistent with almost every fire?

A

Benchmarks and tasks

265
Q

All functions of basic fire attack are directed toward:

A

Saving lives and property conservation

266
Q

If the initial arriving unit has determined that all occupants have safely exited the structure, the second arriving unit (eng, lad, res) will:

A

assume RIT

267
Q

If a structure is fully involved and primary search would not be practical, what is said?

A

Command will advise dispatch that search will be delayed

268
Q

What should be a part of the initial entry crews equipment? (3)

A

a. forcible entry tools
b. hand lights
c. rope

269
Q

When is a secondary means of egress required?

A

fires involving multi-story structures

270
Q

When is an aerial device used for secondary means of egress?

A

When ground ladders are unable to reach due to height or obstacles

271
Q

What are considered secondary action opposed to basic fire attack? (5)

A

a. utilities
b. water supply
c. ventilation
d. secondary search
e. salvage/overhaul

272
Q

Who empowered individuals to properly handle controlled substances?

A

The Fire Chief, through the office of the Medical Director

273
Q

The framework for the controlled substance policy was developed by:

A

Ft. Lauderdale FR

274
Q

Who maintains accurate records of controlled substances?

A

Administrative Deputy Chief or designee

275
Q

What are the controlled substances carried in SFRD?

A

a. Morphine Sulfate (MS)
b. Diazepam (Valium)
c. Midazolam (Versed)
Nitrous Oxide 50% (Nitronox)

276
Q

What is a vial?

A

glass bottle

277
Q

What is a pre-filled syringe?

A

glass/plastic container

278
Q

What is a container?

A

hard plastic tube with a plug cap

279
Q

What is a seal?

A

numbered plastic fastener

280
Q

What is a controlled substance log?

A

Form for tracking and replacing controlled substances

281
Q

What is a controlled substance box?

A

Plastic box for storage

282
Q

Who does the department obtain controlled substances through?

A

Medical Director

283
Q

Controlled substance records shall be maintained for:

A

a. at least 2 years

b. located at the main location where department maintains controlled substances

284
Q

What are schedule II?

A

Morphine Sulfate

285
Q

What are schedule III and IV?

A

Valium, Versed, Nitrous

286
Q

Which controlled substance records must be kept separate from the others?

A

Schedule II must be kept separate from schedule III and IV

287
Q

Who will maintain complete, accurate, and up-to-date records for each controlled substance that is received, delivered, or disposed?

A

Support Services Division

288
Q

Who is the medical director registered with?

A

US Dept of Justice (DEA)

289
Q

Where are controlled substances stored?

A

a. PSC
b. ALS units
c. Medical supply kits

290
Q

Controlled substances are stored with the appropriate:

A

Sanitation, Temperature, and Ventilation

291
Q

Who is approved to handle controlled substances?

A

a. On-duty paramedics

b. Approved by the Fire Chief or Medical Director

292
Q

In the event a controlled substance is administered to a patient, become damaged, or has expired, what is the procedure?

A

Controlled substance log completed

293
Q

For damaged or expired controlled substances:

A

a. Vial removed and placed in clear bio-hazard bag with seal and security container
b. Return to EMS Shift Supervisor

294
Q

What seal is different color than other controlled substances?

A

Nitrous Oxide units

295
Q

Who has access to the written drug log on the unit?

A

Captains or Rescue Lieutenants

296
Q

Can inventory of controlled substances be delegated to an EMT?

A

No

297
Q

If any confirmed problems are found with the controlled substance log, what is the procedure?

A

a. immediately notify EMS Shift Supervisor via chain of command
b. EMS Shift Supervisor notifies BC and Administrative Deputy Chief

298
Q

Controlled substance custody change/inspection takes place at:

A

Shift change

299
Q

When is controlled substance inventory done each day?

A

0805, face to face

300
Q

The controlled substance logs shall be reviewed for:

A

a. Accuracy
b. Completion
c. Legibility

301
Q

When is the weekly controlled substance log review?

A

Reviewed every Sunday

302
Q

Who reviews the log during the weekly controlled substance log review?

A

a. Rescue lieutenant then,
b. Station captain then,
c. EMS Shift Supervisor

303
Q

Completed controlled substance logs are forwarded to whom?

A

Administrative Deputy Chief or designee

304
Q

Any unused/not administered medication must be disposed of in the presence of:

A

a. at least two personnel

b. one of which is the officer in charge of the rescue truck

305
Q

Who authorizes the changes in amounts of controlled substances?

A

a. EMS Medical Director

b. Fire Chief

306
Q

If a controlled substance is sued, what is the procedure?

A

a. the vial, seal, and container in a clear bio-hazard bag

b. return to EMS Shift Supervisor

307
Q

If any unexplained discrepancy in count of controlled substance or a condition unacceptable to the paramedic is found, what is the procedure?

A

a. Notify the BC and EMS Shift Supervisor immediately

b. EMS Shift Supervisor shall respond to the location and notify Battalion and Administrative Deputy Chief immediately

308
Q

Whenever a missing or tampered controlled substance is found, what is the procedure?

A

a. Station captain or Rescue Lieutenant shall:
1. do not touch anything in vehicle
2. Notify BC and EMS Shift Supervisor
3. If tampering is suspected, chief officer calls PD

309
Q

A copy of the Investigation Chief Officer’s or EMS Shift Supervisor report shall be forwarded to:

A

a. Administrative Deputy Chief

b. Fire Chief

310
Q

Who orders controlled substances?

A

Administrative Deputy Chief or designee

311
Q

Where are the quantities of controlled substances found for each unit?

A

a. On the vehicle check out sheets

b. Sheets are approved by the medical director

312
Q

What responses require the BC to respond and why?

A

a. Mutual Aid, except medical calls

b. Monitor the safety of SFRD personnel

313
Q

Who is notified when the BC is out of the city on mutual aid?

A

Duty chief and will take over the BC duties

314
Q

In the event of a recall to report back to shift, the Shift Battalions are expected to:

A

Telephone dispatch and report their availability and receive information

315
Q

What are the EMS Captain’s responsibilities on Medical responses? (3)

A

a. Oversee BLS/ALS care
b. Assume command until BC relieves
c. Assume Medical Branch on MCI

316
Q

What are primary duties of the EMS Captain on Fire responses? (6)

A

a. IC aide
b. Accountability officer
c. RIT member
d. Liaison to other agency
e. Division or Group leader
f. Join up with other personnel to form additional fire company

317
Q

What calls may warrant a staff back up? (7)

A

a. Major structure fire
b. Significant rescue responses
c. MCI
d. Special operations
e. Situation that warrants administrative duties (PIO)
f. While shift commander is committed
g. Discretion of the shift commander

318
Q

Where does the Duty Chief report to when called in?

A

The Communications Center to assist dispatch

319
Q

If the duty chief needs to leave the communication center, what happens?

A

The next duty chief will be contacted to report for duty

320
Q

Staff Officer recall:

A

a. if availability is impractical, contact with dispatch in not anticipated
b. if a natural disaster occurs, staff officers must contact headquarters and return to duty if recalled

321
Q

What is the response to the mall for a confirmed false alarm?

A

1E - Single engine response

322
Q

What is the response to the mall for a fire alarm?

A

1A - first alarm assignment

323
Q

What is the response to the mall for a small of smoke?

A

1A - first alarm assignment

324
Q

What is the response to the mall for smoke or fire showing?

A

1A - first alarm assignment, plus notification of Duty Chief

325
Q

What is the response to the mall for working fire?

A

1A - first alarm assignment, plus 2A - Two alarm fire

326
Q

What are the Fire Scenario Objectives at the mall? (3)

A

a. Minimize life endangerment
b. Locate, confine, extinguish
c. Keep property damage to a minimum

327
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving engine to the mall?

A

Determine the extent of emergency and initiate actions

328
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving rescue to the mall?

A

Joins first arriving engine and assist

329
Q

What equipment will the engine use at the mall? (4)

A

a. PPE and SCBA
b. Forcible entry tools
c. High-rise kit
d. Hand light

330
Q

What is done with command at the mall?

A

Transfer command as early as possible

331
Q

What is command transferred as soon as possible at the mall?

A

limitations of radio communications in the mall and limitations of the command mode

332
Q

What equipment will the rescue use at the mall? (4)

A

a. PPE and SCBA
b. 100’ of 2 1/2”
c. Hand light
d. rope

333
Q

What is the function of the second arriving engine crew at the mall?

A

RIT

334
Q

What is the mission of the first arriving ladder to the mall?

A

a. Forcible entry

b. Search and rescue

335
Q

Fire stream operations from the ladder during the initial stages of the fire are most directed at:

A

retarding flame spread

336
Q

Who on the ladder will become the RIT team?

A

Officer and driver

337
Q

What is the mission for the Rescue Lieutenant at the mall?

A

Incident commander aide

338
Q

What are the primary responsibilities as IC aide?

A

a. passport accountability
b. mall liaison
c. tactical worksheet monitor

339
Q

What is a function that the BC should perform at the mall?

A

Request dispatch to contact water department and increase water pressure on the mall distribution system

340
Q

Who can be used to assist with mall evacuation?

A

mall security

341
Q

Primary searches outside the immediate fire area for victims:

A

secondary to fire control

342
Q

All tactics at the mall are based on:

A

Preventing loss of life

343
Q

The first-arriving engine and rescue companies should direct their efforts to:

A

locating and confining the fire

344
Q

What radio channel may be needed when operating in the mall?

A

Non-repeated radio channel 4

345
Q

Why should mall security be contacted at the mall? (4)

A

a. Control HVAC
b. Use cameras to evaluate interior conditions
c. Obtain keys for doors and gates
d. Obtain dollies and carts

346
Q

In all cases, the patient _____ by SFRD.

A

shall be transported

347
Q

Who can grant medical clearance?

A

Florida licensed physician

348
Q

If a police officer request medical clearance, what is the procedure?

A

Results in the patient being transported to closest appropriate hospital

349
Q

Who can baker act?

A

Law enforcement and physicians

350
Q

What does OC spray stand for?

A

Oleoriesin Capsicum

351
Q

What is OC spray?

A

a. Lachrymatory agent

b. a chemical compound that stimulates the corneal nerves in the eyes to cause tears, pain and temporary blindness

352
Q

What does pepper spray cause? (4)

A

a. Inflammation of mucous membranes
b. Closing of the eyes
c. Difficulty breathing
d. Runny nose and coughing

353
Q

How long does pepper spray last?

A

a. 30-45 minutes

b. Diminished effects lasting hours

354
Q

What does CN gas stand for?

A

Chloracetophenone

355
Q

What is CN gas?

A

Non-lethal irritant agent containing purified tear gas

356
Q

How does CN gas work? (3)

A

a. Eye and skin irritations
b. Burning sensation to area affected
c. Suffocation if inhaled

357
Q

How long does CN gas last?

A

30 minutes up to 2 hours

358
Q

What can diminish the effects of CN gas?

A

Alcohol or drug use

359
Q

Define tear gas:

A

A chemical that is used to cause temporary incapacitation through irritation of the eyes and/or respiratory system

360
Q

What are popular tear gas names? (4)

A

CS
CN
CR
OC pepper spray

361
Q

What does ECD stand for?

A

a. Electronic Control Devices

b. Loss of neuromuscular control

362
Q

What is excited delirium?

A

State in which a person is in a psychotic and extremely agitated state

363
Q

What are some causes of excited delirium? (5)

A

a. Overdose on stimulant or hallucinogenic
b. Drug withdrawal
c. Non-medicated psychiatric
d. Head trauma
e. Diabetic emergency

364
Q

What are some symptoms of excited delirium? (6)

A

a. Bizarre/aggressive behavior
b. Dilated pupils
c. High body temp, shivering, sweating
d. Incoherent speech
e. Inconsistent breathing
f. Fear and panic

365
Q

What will help with the effects of pepper spray?

A

Copious amounts of water

366
Q

All companies will turnout within _____ after dispatched.

A

a. 60 seconds

b. “Roll-called” if not en-route

367
Q

After the primary company goes responding, what does dispatch do?

A

a. Repeat the address and zone number

b. Add additional information

368
Q

Who is responsible for securing the station and ensuring all doors are closed?

A

Station commander or designee

369
Q

If the company officer fails to acknowledge the call, what does dispatch do? (4)

A

a. Immediately repeat the dispatch assignment
b. If still no response, request next closest company
c. Try to make phone contact at the station
d. Notify Shift Commander of the situation

370
Q

How many engines respond to a residential structure fire?

A

a. 2 engines

b. an additional engine if a confirmed fire

371
Q

How many engines respond to a vehicle fire?

A

a. 1 engine and 1 rescue

b. an additional engine if a confirmed fire

372
Q

How many engines respond to a commercial structure fire?

A

a. 3 engines

b. an additional engine if a confirmed fire

373
Q

How many engines on a boat fire?

A

a. 1 engine

b. an additional engine if confirmed fire

374
Q

A fire alarm at a Healthcare Facility will be treated as what?

A

Commercial structure fire response

375
Q

What does GPSN1 stand for?

A

a. Global Page for Sunrise Fire Rescue Staff Members

b. Dispatch automatically alerts Duty Chief

376
Q

What does the Incident Commander on a GPSN1 incident do?

A

a. Just confirm that the duty chief was called

b. May need to request a page to staff if incident didn’t originate as a GPSN1

377
Q

What incidents should the BC consider responding to?

A

a. multiple companies

b. Implementation of IMS

378
Q

What incidents should the EMS Captain consider responding to?

A

a. multiple companies
b. implementation of IMS
c. medical supervision incidents
d. expedite pre-hospital care

379
Q

If an aerial device is not available to respond to an incident what happens?

A

an additional engine shall be added

380
Q

If the initial arriving company sizes up a scene as “nothing showing” what does the response do?

A

slow to code 1

381
Q

When should a code 1 response upgrade to a code 3 response?

A

a. smoke/fire showing

b. RIT, rehab, or other IMS

382
Q

What additional incident should alert the Duty Chief?

A

a. Large loss of life
b. Resident/occupant displacement
c. Media concern

383
Q

Who are the details coordinated through?

A

Assigned Detail Officer

384
Q

What are some of the types of details? (5)

A

a. Fire watch
b. Medical stand-by
c. Fire prevention
d. Public relations and demonstrations
e. Other special details

385
Q

What can special details consist of?

A

Fire and/or EMS

386
Q

What personnel are eligible for Special Details?

A

a. All personnel except
1. exempt staff
2. probationary employees
3. restricted by Fire Chief
4. medical leave
5. light duty
6. on administrative suspension

387
Q

What time does detail sign up start and end?

A

0930 - 1130 at PSC

388
Q

Details that occur after detail sign up will be filled through:

A

a. Station Call
b. If greater than 72 hours, calls will be made station by station, shift by shift, starting with the shift that was on duty during sign up

389
Q

What is the process if you find a replacement for your detail spot?

A

a. Equally qualified

b. Finalized by notifying Detail Officer and receiving approval

390
Q

If an employee signed up for a detail and now is sick, what is the procedure?

A

a. Notify Detail Officer, Rescue Lt., or BC

b. Via direct person to person a minimum of 4 hours prior to start time

391
Q

What is the first offense for missing a detail?

A

6 month suspension

392
Q

What is the second offense for missing a detail?

A

1 year suspension

393
Q

If notice was received by the Rescue Lt. or BC of the inability of a person to fulfill their detail obligation, they will secure a replacement by:

A

Calling from the call list provided by the detail officer

394
Q

What type of system is used for payment on details?

A

a. Voucher system

b. Handled by Detail Officer and coordinated with City Finance/Payroll

395
Q

Can food be purchased from the caterer?

A

For Panthers Home Games only

396
Q

Who is responsible for insuring that all personnel arrive on time to details?

A

Rescue Lt. or BC if Rescue Lt. is unavailable

397
Q

What is the uniform for a detail?

A

Class B uniform

398
Q

If a personal vehicle is used to go to a detail if a reserve vehicle is unavailable, what is the compensation?

A

No monetary compensation

399
Q

Who is notified of any broken or defective detail equipment?

A

Rescue Lieutenant or Battalion Chief

400
Q

When is a patient transported in the detail rescue?

A

extreme circumstances

401
Q

Who is notified of the completion of the detail?

A

a. Rescue Lt. or BC

b. Along with any paperwork

402
Q

Where is the detail unit parked?

A

Returned to a fire station or inside the PSC rear compound

403
Q

Who can request a medical standby?

A

Outside organizations or Fire Chief

404
Q

What is the staffing for an EMS standby?

A

Minimum of two personnel, discretion of the Fire Chief

405
Q

Who determines the need for a fire watch detail?

A

Fire Chief or designee

406
Q

If any member of the FD receives a complaint about a fire or life hazard, after the normal hours of the Fire Marshal’s office, what is done?

A

a. Obtain all possible information

b. Immediately notify the Shift Commander

407
Q

What will the Shift Commander do when notified by an employee that there is a fire or life hazard violation?

A

Investigate and try to gain compliance

408
Q

If the shift commander believes the appropriate party will not resolve the violation nor cause compliance to remain in effect:

A

The on-call inspector will be requested to respond

409
Q

If the on-call inspector feels the need for a fire watch, who is notified?

A

Fire Chief or designee

410
Q

If the Fire Chief and on-call inspector agree for the need for a fire watch detail, who performs the fire watch?

A

The on-call inspector while the shift commander arranges for relief

411
Q

Can the procedure for the occupancy in question be handwritten during a fire watch?

A

yes and should be individualized

412
Q

When relief arrives, what does the on-call inspector do with the fire watch detail employee?

A

Orally and physically review the written procedure

413
Q

Should an incident occur during a fire watch, what is the procedure? (3)

A

a. activate the building alarm
b. simultaneously notify dispatch with a brief description
c. offensive fire attack to aid occupants if necessary

414
Q

How many fire inspectors are assigned to a fire watch?

A

Not more than one unless unusual circumstance

415
Q

Who determines which inspector is in charge if multiple inspectors are needed on the fire watch detail?

A

Fire Marshal, regardless of rank

416
Q

When a fire inspector is needed on a multi-person detail, he shall act as supervisor for what?

A

Code related matters, regardless of other ranks involved

417
Q

Who performs a one-person fire watch?

A

Line personnel unless special circumstance

418
Q

When will a supervisor be assigned to a fire watch?

A

Fire watch details requiring more than three personnel

419
Q

In all cases where the detail is required by code, the detail shall be under the direct control of:

A

Fire Marshal

420
Q

What kit will be onsite for all fire watches?

A

BLS kit

421
Q

How is a fire watch detail terminated?

A

All paperwork completed and reviewed by Shift Commander if the FLS is not on site

422
Q

What is the MERC?

A

a. Mobile Emergency Response Cart

b. Staffed with minimum 2 personnel

423
Q

What is the BERT?

A

a. Bicycle Emergency Response Team
b. Staffed with minimum of 2 personnel
c. Trained through the training division

BC Test (12 decks)

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