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600 Flashcards

1
Q

Who adopted the Incident Management system? When?

A

a. Broward County Fire Chief’s Association

b. Spring 1996

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2
Q

What is the intent of the Incident Management Manual?

A

Serve as a reference and instructional guide

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3
Q

The incident management system was designed to meet the requirements of NFPA:

A

1561

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4
Q

The ultimate control and direction of all resources falls under:

A

Incident Commander, except for a unified command

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5
Q

How is the ICS structured?

A

a. Not rank structured

b. Filled from positions that are best suited

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6
Q

The ICS organizational structure develops in a:

A

Modular fashion based on kind and size of incident

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7
Q

What does modular escalation allow?

A

Manageable span of control for all participants throughout the incident

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8
Q

Define span of control

A

The number of subordinates one supervisor can manage effectively

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9
Q

What is the acceptable limit in emergency situations?

A

5

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10
Q

What are the four sections under command?

A

a. Finance/Administration
b. Logistics
c. Operations
d. Planning

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11
Q

Define operations:

A

All activities directed toward hazard reduction and control

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12
Q

Define planning:

A

Collection, evaluation, and dissemination of information

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13
Q

Define logistics:

A

Provides support needs to the incident

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14
Q

Define finance/administration

A

Responsible for all cost incurred at the incident

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15
Q

Who is included in the Command Staff? (5)

A

a. Safety officer
b. Liaison officer
c. PIO
d. IC aide
e. FLOP

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16
Q

Define command sequence:

A

Standardized sequential thought process

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17
Q

What are the four parts of the command sequence?

A

a. Incident priorities
b. size up
c. goals and objectives
d. tactical operations

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18
Q

What are the incident priorities?

A

a. Life safety
b. incident stabilization
c. property conservation

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19
Q

Define life safety:

A

Actions which reduce the threat of life or injury

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20
Q

Define incident stabilization:

A

activities designed to stop the escalation of the incident

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21
Q

Define property conservation:

A

efforts to reduce the long-term economic and social impact

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22
Q

What are the goals in relation to incident priorities:

A 
Rescue
Exposure
Confinement
Extinguishment
Overhaul
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23
Q

What is considered to be the solutions to the problems?

A

tactical operations

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24
Q

What is the designation of the Command post?

A

CP

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25
Q

What is also located in the Command Post?

A

a. Planning function

b. Field communication center

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26
Q

What can be co-located with the command post?

A

The incident base if communications requirements can be met

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27
Q

What is the incident base?

A

a. location where primary support personnel activities are performed
b. Houses all equipment and personnel support operations

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28
Q

What may also be located at the incident base?

A

a. logistics section

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29
Q

Can the incident base be re-located?

A

normally not

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30
Q

The staging area is established by whom?

A

Operations section officer

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31
Q

Who assigns a staging area manager?

A

Operations section officer

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32
Q

What is the staging area manager responsible for? (3)

A

a. Checking in of resources
b. Dispatching of resources
c. Requests for services from Logistics section

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33
Q

In a multi-jurisdictional incident, key officials from each jurisdiction contribute to the process of: (5)

A

a. Determining incident objectives
b. Selection of strategies
c. Joint planning
d. Integrated operations
e. Maximum use of resources

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34
Q

The implementation of the action plan will be done under the direction of:

A

Operations section officer

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35
Q

The operations section officer is normally drawn from:

A

Agency having greatest jurisdictional involvement

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36
Q

What is a landing zone?

A

Temporary locations where helicopters can land and take off

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37
Q

What is a heli-base?

A

Location where helicopters are staged for possible action

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38
Q

What does a single resource consist of?

A

a. Apparatus
b. Personnel
c. Communications

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39
Q

What is a task force?

A

combination of resources with common communication and a leader

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40
Q

What is a strike team?

A

Set number of resources of the same kind and type and a leader

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41
Q

Position: Incident Commander - Title:

A

Incident Commander

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42
Q

Position: Command Staff - Title

A

Officer

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43
Q

Position: Section - Title:

A

Section Officer

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44
Q

Position: Branch - Title:

A

Director

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45
Q

Position: Division - Title:

A

Supervisor

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46
Q

Position: Group - Title:

A

Supervisor

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47
Q

Position: Task Force - Title:

A

Leader

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48
Q

Position: Strike Team - Title:

A

Leader

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49
Q

Position: Single resource - Title:

A

Company officer

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50
Q

Who determines the initial need for Group and Divisions?

A

Incident Commander

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51
Q

Who recommends to the IC the need for additional Divisions/Groups?

A

Section officers

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52
Q

What is the primary reason for using Divisions and Groups?

A

a. Safety of personnel

b. Maintaining span of control

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53
Q

Divisions are assigned to specific:

A

Geographical locations

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54
Q

Structural situations for sides of building will be designated by:

A

Letter system

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55
Q

Structural divisions will be designed by numbers for:

A

Floors

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56
Q

Groups will be identified by:

A

The function they perform (salvage group)

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57
Q

When are branches implemented?

A

a. Span of control begins to become complex

b. The incident has two or more distinctly different operations (fire, hazmat)

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58
Q

Branches report to who?

A

a. Section officers

b. Should communicate to operations on a different channel

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59
Q

Define RIT: (3)

A

a. two fresh firefighters
b. Staged at CP
c. May stage near the various divisions

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60
Q

What should the RIT be equipped with? (4)

A

a. radios
b. lights
c. search line
d. forcible entry tools

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61
Q

The first unit to arrive at the scene of an incident must transmit:

A

An arrival and size-up report along with establishment of command

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62
Q

The initial Incident Commander shall remain in Command until:

A

a. Command is transferred or passed

b. Incident is stabilized and terminated

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63
Q

The first arriving unit activates the Command process by giving:

A

An initial radio report

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64
Q

Identification and location of Command shall be by:

A

Geographical location or well-known landmark

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65
Q

Can unit numbered command locations be used?

A

No

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66
Q

Single company incident:

A

Can be single unit or Engine and Rescue

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67
Q

If two incidents on the same street, what is command designator?

A

“hundred block”

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68
Q

The establishment of a Command post is top priority for the following units:

A

a. Chief officer

b. Member or unit without tactical capabilities

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69
Q

Four modes of Command:

A

a. Nothing showing mode
b. Fast attack mode
c. Command mode
d. Defensive mode

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70
Q

What is nothing showing mode?

A

a. Generally requires investigation

b. Utilize portable radio to command incident

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71
Q

What is Fast attack mode?

A

a. Situation that require immediate action to stabilize and requires company officer assistance
b. Fast attack should not last more than a few minutes

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72
Q

Fast attack mode ends with one of the following:

A

a. situation is stabilized
b. situation is not stabilized and company officer must withdraw
c. Command is transferred

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73
Q

What are examples of why fast attack mode would be chosen? (3)

A

a. Offensive fire attack
b. Critical life situation
c. Incident where the safety and welfare of firefighters is a major concern

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74
Q

What is defensive mode?

A

When conditions or hazards preclude direct entry into the hazard zone

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75
Q

The declaration of defensive mode signals:

A

That complex operations will be involved

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76
Q

What is command mode?

A

Incident by virtue of size, complexity, or potential for rapid escalation requires immediate, strong, direct, overall command

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77
Q

Agency representatives from responding agencies shall report to:

A

The liaison officer at the command post

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78
Q

Define unity of command:

A

Each individual being responsible to one supervisor

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79
Q

How is command transferred?

A

Can be transferred by radio, but should be done face to face

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80
Q

The transfer of command briefing should include: (4)

A

a. current situation
b. current unit placement
c. assignments
d. review of the tactical worksheet

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81
Q

Assumption of command is based on these factors: (4)

A

a. potential escalation of the incident
b. personnel considerations
c. IC capabilities
d. etc.

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82
Q

It may be advantageous to have the officer being relieved of command remain with the new IC, in the role of:

A

IC aide or Operations section officer

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83
Q

The formal process for transfer of command shall be used bot as:

A

Emergency escalates and in demobilization phase

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84
Q

When is passing of command advantageous?

A

When initial commitment of the first arriving company requires a full crew and another company is in position to assume command

85
Q

The passing of command to a unit not on scene:

A

a. Not advisable
b. Creates a gap in the command process and compromises incident management
c. It is preferable to have the initial arriving company officer continue to operate in the fast attack mode until Command can be passed to an on-scene unit

86
Q

Should a situation occur where a later arriving company or chief officer cannot locate or communicate with command:

A

They will assume command and announce this over the radio

87
Q

Level 1 staging:

A

a. Occurs automatically
b. about 1 block away to avoid blocking in
c. second due engine stages at hydrant
d. no staging officer

88
Q

Level 2 staging:

A

a. more formalized and organized
b. staging officer is assigned
c. located several blocks away

89
Q

When is an incident commander activated? (3)

A

a. situation requiring two or more units
b. the judgment of the on-scene ranking officer
c. implemented for concerns of safety and scene control

90
Q

The incident commander provides:

A

comprehensive leadership and direction

91
Q

What position is the focal point of all facets of the operation?

A

Incident Commander

92
Q

Who authorizes release of information to the media?

A

Incident Commander

93
Q

What are the roles of the Incident Commander Aide? (4)

A

a. provide administrative and operational assistance
b. Mange the command area
c. Process information that does not require the attention of the IC
d. May be assigned accountability during early stages of incident

94
Q

Who encompass the majority of incident mitigation activities?

A

Operations section officer

95
Q

Who assigns a Rehab officer?

A

Operations section officer

96
Q

The branch director reports to Operations officer when: (4)

A

a. incident action plan needs to be modified
b. additional resources are needed
c. surplus of resources are available
d. hazardous or significant event occurred

97
Q

What is the purpose of the Division/Group Supervisor?

A

To supervise the operations of up to 5 resources

98
Q

Safety Officer recommended staffing: (3)

A

a. NFPA Safety Officer 1521
b. Florida Fire Officer 1
c. ICS level

99
Q

At a hazmat scene, who is the safety officer?

A

Must be a Hazmat Tech

100
Q

Who does the initial investigation of accidents that have occurred at an incident?

A

Safety Officer

101
Q

Who insures that a RIT has been established?

A

Safety officer

102
Q

How many PIOs should be involved when a unified command post is activated?

A

Only one PIO should represent all agencies

103
Q

Who is able to act as the Rehab officer?

A

any medically trained person appointed by Command

104
Q

Why do personnel remove their protective clothing when they arrive at Rehab?

A

expedite the cooling process

105
Q

What does the initial assessment at Rehab include? (5)

A

a. Pupils
b. Skin color and temp
c. Respirations
d. Ability to communicate
e. Pulse

106
Q

Personnel who suffer _____ shall be monitored and not allowed to return from Rehab.

A

a. SOB, CP, or other medical condition

b. in the opinion of the Rehab Officer

107
Q

When are vital signs assessed in Rehab?

A

a. Expended two bottles of air or more

b. includes pulse, respirations, BP and lung sounds

108
Q

When is Rehab deactivated?

A

During demobilization when determined by command

109
Q

The planning section officer is located:

A

On scene or at EOC

110
Q

When is the planning section officer activated?

A

When the IC cannot effectively forecast the future action plan

111
Q

Who serves as the “clearing house” for information?

A

Planning Section

112
Q

Who can be assigned as a Finance/Administrative Officer?

A

Any qualified or trained individual appointed by command (may be a civilian)

113
Q

Where is the Logistics Section Officer located?

A

On scene or at EOC

114
Q

When is the logistics section officer activated?

A

Any incident requiring move ups or mutual aid coverage

115
Q

Who does the staging officer report to?

A

Operations or Command

116
Q

If a potential evacuation condition is noticed, who is notified?

A

IC immediately

117
Q

Who makes the decision to evacuate a building or area?

A

IC

118
Q

What is the Emergency Evacuation Procedure?

A

a. IC will announce “Emergency Traffic” and have dispatch sound the alert tone
b. State “all personnel evacuate the building or area immediately” then repeat twice
c. Order all units to blow air horns for 30 seconds (one second on, one second off)
d. Conduct a PAR

119
Q

If personnel are missing, how is the report given?

A

Face to face or telephone, no report will be announced over the radio

120
Q

What is air?

A

Helicopter or fixed wing

121
Q

What is ambulance?

A

BLS transport capable unit

122
Q

What is attack?

A

mini pumper

123
Q

What is brush?

A

off-road vehicle with water tank and a pump

124
Q

What is Engine?

A

NFPA compliant Class A pumper

125
Q

What is foam?

A

vehicle or trailer other than crash truck with minimum 50 gallons of foam

126
Q

That is ladder?

A

straight aerial ladder of at least 75 feet

127
Q

What is medical?

A

ALS transport capable unit with civilian staffing

128
Q

What is platform?

A

Telescopic boom with platform of at least 75 feet

129
Q

What is Quint

A

NFPA compliant Class A pumper with at least 75 straight aerial

130
Q

What is rescue?

A

ALS transport capable unit with cross trained firefighters

131
Q

What is snorkel

A

articulating platform device

132
Q

What is squad?

A

Heavy, medium, light rescue or personnel carrier

133
Q

What is squirt?

A

Class A pumper with 55-70 foot aerial/water tower

134
Q

What is support?

A

SCBA refill truck

135
Q

What is Tanker?

A

apparatus with minimum 1500 gallons of on-board water

136
Q

What is tender?

A

apparatus with minimum 1000 gallons of foam

137
Q

What is truck?

A

airport crash truck with foam

138
Q

What is utility?

A

Light/generator/ventilation vehicle

139
Q

OSHA 29 CFR 1090.134 states that during interior structural firefighting, among other things, the employer shall insure that:

A

a. 2 employees enter IDLH and remain in visual or voice contact
b. 2 employees are located outside the IDLH
c. All employees engaged in interior structural firefighting use SCBA

140
Q

When is it acceptable to not have RIT in place prior to commencement of firefighting?

A

a. The fire is in incipient stage

b. Rescue of trapped occupants

141
Q

The RIT team shall be equipped with: (6)

A

a. Bunker gear, SCBA and PASS
b. One flashlight per person
c. Search rope
d. Haligan and flat headed axe
e. Spare air pack with mask
f. Radio

142
Q

On larger buildings, how long should the search rope be?

A

300 feet or consider attaching two search ropes together

143
Q

Upon the deployment of RIT, the IC shall immediately:

A

assign a secondary (backup) RIT

144
Q

Command shall continue to staff a RIT throughout the _____ phase.

A

Mitigation

145
Q

RIT will be in position until the:

A

possibility of danger has been eliminated

146
Q

PASS activation procedure:

A

a. State “Emergency Traffic” and attempt to contact downed firefighter twice
b. Two failed attempts to contact will activate RIT

147
Q

The Mutual Aid system within Broward County uses:

A

a. Mutual Aid phone circuit (MARS system)
b. 800 MHz radio system
c. Regular telephone line

148
Q

What is the primary method of requesting mutual aid?

A

MARS circuit

149
Q

What is reaction time?

A

Amount of time to start units to an incident

150
Q

What is the specific talk group for requesting mutual aid?

A

System 12, Talk Group ‘A’ (800 MHz)

151
Q

How many levels of redundancy are there to assure that mutual aid is requested?

A

3

152
Q

The 800 MHz “system” has how many talk groups dedicated to mutual aid?

A

a. 15, A-O

b. B-O are tactical channels

153
Q

What is the mutual aid calling channel?

A

System 12, Talk group ‘A’

154
Q

Define special operations:

A

Any response to emergencies requiring specialized equipment or personnel

155
Q

Define Hazardous Materials:

A

Any incident involving the leak, fire, or spill of any radioactive, chemical, or biological

156
Q

Define rope rescue:

A

Any rescue attempt that requires rope and related equipment

157
Q

Define confined space:

A

a. Areas that are not intended for continual occupancy
b. Limited means of egress
c. Potential for physical, chemical, or atmospheric engulfment

158
Q

Define trench rescue:

A

a. rescue operation in a narrow excavation where the depth is greater than the width
b. no greater than 15 feet wide

159
Q

Define structural collapse:

A

structural collapse or failure

160
Q

Different events that can cause a structural collapse:

A

a. Natural occurrences (hurricane, tornado)
b. Fire or Explosion
c. Engineering errors
d. Human factors (malicious damage, terrorist)

161
Q

Define water rescue:

A

Rescue attempt that requires water rescue gear

162
Q

What is the final consideration for each mission?

A

Risk/Benefit factor

163
Q

Who investigates and responds to a Hazmat incident that is a category I or II?

A

a. first responder initially investigate

b. if needed, one regional team will assist

164
Q

Who investigates and responds to a Hazmat incident that is a category III or IV?

A

a. automatic response of two regional teams

165
Q

Who investigates and responds to a confined space incident?

A

Confirmed active incident, two teams respond

166
Q

Who investigates and responds to a non-technical rope rescue incident?

A

a. first responder initially investigates

b. if needed, one regional team will assist

167
Q

Who investigates and responds to a technical rope rescue incident?

A

a. automatic response of two regional teams

168
Q

What is a non-technical evacuation?

A

evacuation that are less than 40 degrees inclination

169
Q

What is a technical evacuation?

A

Evacuation that are more than 40 degrees inclination

170
Q

Who investigates and responds to a trench rescue incident?

A

automatic two team response

171
Q

Who investigates and responds to a suspected structural collapse?

A

Response of one regional team

172
Q

Who investigates and responds to an active structural collapse?

A

response of two regional teams

173
Q

Who responds for the purpose of shoring and securing the integrity of a structure after a fire has weakened the structure?

A

Response of one regional team

174
Q

Who responds to a water rescue incident that is in rescue mode?

A

one regional team if requested

175
Q

Who respond to a water rescue incident that is in recovery mode?

A

one regional team if requested

176
Q

What is rescue mode?

A

Submersion time of up to one hour

177
Q

What is recovery mode?

A

Submersion time of greater than one hour

178
Q

Define hazard zone:

A

a. any area that requires an SCBA

b. any area in which a firefighter can become lost, trapped, or injured

179
Q

What is a major element in strategy for command?

A

Accountability

180
Q

What is a minimum crew size defined as?

A

Two members and a radio will be required

181
Q

What is the minimum rank to supervise all crews entering a hazard zone?

A

Lieutenant or higher

182
Q

If a radio fails while in the hazard zone:

A

The crew will exit unless there is another working radio with the crew

183
Q

Who can be an accountability officer? (3)

A

a. Driver
b. Division/group officer
c. Designated accountability officer

184
Q

What is the size of the nametag?

A

1” x 2”

185
Q

What is engraved on the nametag?

A

member’s last name and first two initials of first name

186
Q

Where is the nametag stored?

A

a. collar of bunker coat
b. helmet
c. similar location

187
Q

What does a white passport mean?

A

Chief officer

188
Q

What does a red passport mean?

A

Company officer

189
Q

What does a yellow passport mean?

A

Driver/Paramedic/Firefighter/Other

190
Q

What is the size of the passport unit?

A

2” x 3”

191
Q

What is engraved on the passport unit?

A

apparatus or unit number

192
Q

Where is the passport unit located?

A

at or near the center of the dashboard

193
Q

Where is status boards located? (3)

A

a. Battalion Chief
b. Duty Chief
c. Other designated supervisors

194
Q

When is a PAR required? (6)

A

a. Missing or trapped firefighter (initiated by command)
b. Change Offensive to Defense (initiated by command)
c. Sudden hazardous event (initiated by command)
d. Report of “ALL Clear” after primary search
e. Every 30 minutes
f. Report of “Fire under Control”

195
Q

Passport system will be implemented at any incident that:

A

requires the use of SCBA

196
Q

What is the objective of the passport system?

A

have passports at command and kept accurate

197
Q

Where are the passports located for a single company incident?

A

a. remain on the apparatus dash

b. D/O assumes accountability responsibilities

198
Q

Where are the passports located for multi-company operations?

A

Delivered to the command post or accountability officer

199
Q

What does an upside down passport indicate?

A

Member is not in the hazard zone

200
Q

The accountability system will be implemented at any incident requiring:

A

entry into the hazard zone

201
Q

How is the initial accountability location determined?

A

The first unit on each geographical side of the incident will be the initial accountability location for that side

202
Q

When a crew has completed its assignment in the hazard zone, what is done with the passport unit?

A

Returned to company officer for entry into rehab or reassignment

203
Q

When is the passport system terminated?

A

a. Report of “fire under control” or “incident under control”
b. command will determine whether to continue passport use

204
Q

Who developed the Mayday procedural guidelines?

A

Mutual aid committee of the fire chief’s association of broward county

205
Q

The mayday procedure is intended to prevent what?

A

Fire rescue personnel from being injured or killed while performing their duties

206
Q

When is the Mayday supposed to be used?

A

encounter an immediately perilous situation

207
Q

How do units initiate the Mayday procedure?

A

verbally broadcasting the term Mayday over their radio

208
Q

What is the MAYDAY procedure? (7)

A

a. Unit announces their unit number followed by MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY
b. IC will gather all necessary information (Location, Unit, Nature, Air, Resources)
c. Advise dispatch to initiate MAYDAY protocol and sound alert tone
d. Repeat information one time
e. Activate RIT
f. Move all other units to secondary channel
g. Conduct PAR

209
Q

What is the focus once a mayday is announced?

A

Resources shall be devoted to location, protection, and extrication of the endangered personnel

BC Test (12 decks)

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