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BC Test > 400 > Flashcards

400 Flashcards

1
Q

Biohazard waste is disposed at the station for the following reasons: (3)

A

a. ALS engine calls
b. Non transport calls
c. Incidents occurring at the station

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2
Q

Where is potentially infectious waste disposed at?

A

At receiving facility unless they refuse the waste

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3
Q

How often is biohazard waste disposed of?

A

After each incident and not allowed to accumulate

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4
Q

Who schedules the collection of biohazard waste?

A

EMS Division

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5
Q

All sharps must be disposed of in a specially designed container that must be: (4)

A

a. Closable
b. Puncture resistant
c. Leak proof sides and bottom
d. Labeled or color coded

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6
Q

Biohazard waste fines can be as high as:

A

10,000 per violation

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7
Q

The SFD maintains a comprehensive occupational safety and health program based upon: (3)

A

a. Sound engineering
b. Education
c. Training

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8
Q

When will firefighters wearing SCBA conduct a seal check?

A

Prior to each use

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9
Q

The airline located on the Hazmat 92, TRT92, and aerial apparatus shall only be used for: (4)

A

a. Exterior firefighting operations
b. Confined space rescue
c. Trench rescue
d. Certain hazmat incidents

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10
Q

What will be worn when using an airline respirator?

A

Escape type cylinder

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11
Q

Structural firefighting clothing meets what NFPA?

A

1971

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12
Q

What is considered protective clothing? (7)

A

a. Coat
b. Pants
c. Gloves
d. Boots
e. Helmet
f. Hood
g. or appropriate level of protection per spec ops commander

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13
Q

What additional role can one of the RIT members perform?

A

a. Incident commander
b. safety officer
c. operator of fire apparatus

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14
Q

Are both RIT members involved in another task while waiting outside?

A

No, one must monitor the status and not be assigned additional duties

The second person may be involved in a wide variety of activities

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15
Q

Proper assignment of firefighting activities at an interior structural fire must be determined by who and depend on what?

A

a. Determined by the Incident commander

b. Dependent on the existing fire conditions

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16
Q

Firefighters entering an IDLH to perform interior firefighting must remain in what type of communication at all times?

A

a. Visual or voice

b. the use of radios shall not be substituted for direct visual contact

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17
Q

Firefighters wearing respiratory protection shall be trained in:

A

Proper use, cleaning, maintenance

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18
Q

When should operations personnel demonstrate SCBA proficiency?

A

On an annual basis

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19
Q

New recruit SCBA training NFPA?

A

1404

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20
Q

When is SCBA training performed?

A

Initial and annual basis

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21
Q

When will firefighters need to pass a face piece fit test? (5)

A

a. Initial and annual training
b. Significant weight gain
c. Facial trauma
d. Reconstructive surgery
e. Major dental work

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22
Q

Where does fill station training take place?

A

Station 59 and TRT 92

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23
Q

SCBA and spare cylinders should be inspected:

A

After each use and during the daily checkout

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24
Q

SCBA units determined to be unfit for use shall be tagged and forwarded to:

A

Station 59

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25
Q

Who repairs SCBAs? (3)

A

a. Performed according to manufacture’s instructions
b. Persons trained and certified
c. Or returned to manufacturer’s service facility

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26
Q

When are SCBAs cleaned?

A

a. after each use

b. only use cleaning/sanitizing solutions

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27
Q

Scott Carbon Fiber Cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every _____ years.

A

5 years

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28
Q

Fiberglass escape cylinders must be hydrostatically tested every _____ years.

A

3 years

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29
Q

What is the maximum life for both types of SCBA cylinders?

A

15 years

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30
Q

Breathing air in the SCBA shall meet the requirements of who?

A

Compressed Gas Association

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31
Q

The minimum air quality should be that of:

A

Grade D

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32
Q

The purity of the air compressors shall be checked by _____ at least _____.

A

a. A competent laboratory

b. annually

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33
Q

Can compressed oxygen be used in open-circuit SCBA?

A

No

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34
Q

A medical evaluation to determine the firefighter’s ability to wear an SCBA will be provided:

A

at the time of initial hiring

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35
Q

When is the fit test evaluation done?

A

annual

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36
Q

How long is the mask worn prior to the start of the fit test?

A

At least 5 minutes

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37
Q

If the firefighter is not familiar with using respiratory mask, the firefighter shall:

A

Don the mask several times and adjust straps each time

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38
Q

Assessment of comfort shall include the following: (4)

A

a. positioning of mask on nose
b. room for eye protection
c. room to talk
d. positioning mask on face and cheeks

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39
Q

How many ends of the ventilation tube are broken when performing fit test?

A

Both ends of the tube

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40
Q

What is the product/chemical that is used for fit testing?

A

Stannic Oxychloride delivered at 200 millimeters per minute

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41
Q

During the smoke test, the subject should:

A

keep eyes closed while the test is in progress since smoke can irritate eyes

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42
Q

The tester starts the tube at _____ and brings it to within _____.

A

12” and brings it to within 1”

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43
Q

What are the reasons to have another fit test performed? (5)

A

a. Significant weight change
b. Facial scarring
c. Dental changes
d. Reconstructive or cosmetic surgery
e. Any other condition that would interfere with the seal

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44
Q

A summary of the test results for the SCBA test shall be maintained for a period of not less than:

A

3 years

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45
Q

The fit test summary includes: (5)

A

a. Name of test subject
b. Date of testing
c. Name of test conductor
d. Respirator selected
e. Testing agent

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46
Q

Members are required to exit the IDLH prior to the activation of:

A

The low air alarm

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47
Q

What is an indicator that the individual is using reserve air supply?

A

Low air alarm

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48
Q

In the event of the low air alarm activation, the member is required to notify who?

A

Their officer, then command

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49
Q

Individuals shall check their SCBA (daily check):

A

Upon arrival for duty

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50
Q

Air pressure prior to entry shall be at _____ or above.

A

90% or 4050psi

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51
Q

Continually monitor air consumption by: (6)

A

a. regular time intervals (every 5 min)
b. 10 min CAD notification from dispatch
c. change of work area
d. passing of major landmark within the structure
e. completion of assignment or prior to accepting another assignment
f. as situation dictates

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52
Q

What air pressure and who is notified?

A

a. 50% (amber light flashing slowly)

b. ICS function (command, division, etc.)

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53
Q

If a low air alarm activates in the IDLH, it calls for an immediate radio transmission to Command specifying:

A

a. WHO you are
b. WHERE you are
c. WHAT your status is

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54
Q

Command shall confirm that the RIT leader has received the message of:

A

a. Air status
b. Possible location
c. Egress path

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55
Q

RIT will notify command if the low air crew has not exited the structure within:

A

1 minute of low air notification

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56
Q

The member with low air should be in which position?

A

Second position from the front

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57
Q

Which day is known as “Air Fill Day”?

A

Wednesday

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58
Q

Station 39 fills their air bottle at:

A

Station 59

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59
Q

Station 72 fills their air bottle at:

A

Station 59

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60
Q

Station 83 fills their air bottle at:

A

Station 92

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61
Q

Where are SCUBA bottles filled?

A

Station 92

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62
Q

Is it ever applicable to have the TRT truck drive to stations to fill SCBA?

A

if personnel levels permit, yes

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63
Q

Unit # for TRT?

A

376

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64
Q

To prevent “hot filling” all SCBA bottles should be filled at a rate:

A

Of 300 to 500 psi per minute, not to exceed 600 psi minute

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65
Q

Can SCBA bottles be stored in compartments or shelving?

A

No bottle should be stored loose on shelving or within compartments.

Should be located in their various designated and secured locations on the apparatus

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66
Q

Who determines the level of PPE during overhaul?

A

Incident Commander

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67
Q

Full protective clothing will be worn when operating: (4)

A

a. Forcible entry equipment
b. Saws
c. Extrication equipment
d. Gas powered tools

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68
Q

Instead of safety vests, an individual may wear:

A

Full bunker gear or raingear

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69
Q

Where is bunker gear placed when riding on a rescue unit?

A

a. Rescue (no extra cab) placed in left side double and rear

b. No gear is allowed in patient compartment or oxygen compartment

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70
Q

How is gear ventilated during non-use?

A

Hanging the gear on the racks

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71
Q

Safety vests are placed on which units? How many?

A

a. All rescue units

b. 3 on each unit

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72
Q

What is the primary function of the EAP?

A

To assist people who need help with their personal problems

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73
Q

How many free sessions of EAP are afforded to each employee?

A

6

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74
Q

Who is the current provider of EAP?

A

Clinical Provider Organization (CPO)

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75
Q

What is the contact number for EAP?

A

954-979-1611

800-329-5EAP (5327)

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76
Q

Monthly inspections of all personnel are performed by who?

A

Station commanders during shift change

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77
Q

What items are checked during the monthly inspection? (5)

A

a. Grooming and uniform
b. PPE
c. Driver license
d. EMT/Medic
e. CPR/ACLS

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78
Q

Captains will be inspected by who?

A

B/C

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79
Q

Any problems noted during inspections will be documented and forwarded to who?

A

Fire Chief

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80
Q

Quarterly inspections are performed by who?

A

Fire Chief or designee

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81
Q

What is the emphasis of the quarterly inspections?

A

Environmental and safety conditions/cleanliness

82
Q

Quarterly inspections will include: (5)

A

a. Station facilities
b. Vehicles
c. Administrative bulletins
d. Work orders and station supplies
e. No inappropriate materials in stations

83
Q

Hazard Communication Standard?

A

29 CFR 1910.1200

84
Q

When is “right to know” training provided?

A

annually for those personnel who use or come into contact with chemicals

85
Q

Phase one of the traffic pre-emption program includes:

A

a. Vehicle mounted low power radio transmitters which communicate with the signal boxes at intersections
b. GPS Locators
c. Satellites will “see”

86
Q

Phase two of the traffic pre-emption program included:

A

a. Station re-radiators (placed on roof of station)

b. “sees” each apparatus in the bay

87
Q

How is the pre-emption system disabled?

A

Vehicle driver opens driver door

88
Q

How do you “reactivate” the traffic pre-emption system?

A

pressing the on/off button twice

89
Q

What is the traffic pre-emption program designed to assist?

A

Reach a goal of safe Code 3 while improving response times

90
Q

When will units stage at a scene?

A

Incident where violence has occurred or likely to occur

91
Q

What is a red flag for more violence?

A

Shooting, stabbing, or fighting

92
Q

What type of call will receive automatic PD dispatch?

A

Gang violence

93
Q

How far will units stage when waiting for PD?

A

out of sight of the incident

94
Q

What should units do while staging?

A

Turn off emergency lights and sirens

Stay in vehicle

95
Q

What is a good divider between firefighters and the crowd?

A

fire line tape

96
Q

What is the primary responsibility of police at the scene of a FD incident?

A

Secure traffic and crowds

97
Q

What are the two types of weapons?

A

a. Common (knives, guns)

b. Makeshift (anything that wasn’t designed as a weapon)

98
Q

How far out should the sirens be shut off when responding to a possible violent scene?

A

several blocks away

99
Q

How far away should the apparatus be spotted when parking in front of a residence?

A

100ft past or 100 ft before

100
Q

What side of the door should EMS stand?

A

Door knob side

101
Q

The fire rescue department recognizes the need for an incident safety officer position on: (2)

A

a. Multi-unit incidents

b. Special operations incidents

102
Q

SFPA for Safety Officer:

A

NFPA 1521

103
Q

Who has final authority on all recommendations and decisions made by the Safety Officer?

A

Incident commander

104
Q

Can an entire Engine Company be assigned as a Safety Company?

A

yes

105
Q

Who can perform as an incident safety officer?

A

a. Company officer or above

b. Documented training from training division

106
Q

Who determines the training criteria for Incident Safety Officer?

A

Fire Chief

107
Q

Define limited access roadway:

A

a. Interstate highway
b. US highway
c. State route
d. County road with limited access

108
Q

What agencies may be notified on a limited access roadway? (5)

A

a. FDOT
b. FDEP - Dept. of Environmental Protection
c. DERM - Dept. of Environmental Resources Mngment
d. Private contractors
e. towing companies

109
Q

When incidents involve injured persons and/or hazardous materials, where does the incident commander come from?

A

Fire Department

110
Q

If there are no victims or hazardous materials, or no longer a threat, command is subsequently turned over to whom?

A

Law Enforcement

111
Q

What is the responsibility of law enforcement on a limited access highway? (3)

A

a. Traffic flow
b. Scene control/security
c. Investigation

112
Q

what is the responsibility of the Fire department on a limited access highway? (3)

A

a. scene safety
b. medical treatment
c. hazardous materials

113
Q

Who should a request be directed towards to provide an escort or traffic assistance?

A

Shift commander

114
Q

Response zone for county roads:

A

The appropriate agency will be contacted to respond

115
Q

Response zone for state roads and turnpike?

A

FHP will contact their dispatcher and request FDOT

116
Q

The second engine responding to a highway call is used for:

A

a. Provide traffic control and used as a shield from oncoming traffic
b. Personnel should remain uncommitted to the scene

117
Q

As soon as law enforcement starts to control traffic flow, fire department and rescue vehicles should:

A

reposition or remove themselves from travel lanes to assist with law enforcement

118
Q

Later arriving emergency assistance personnel should park their vehicles:

A

in front of the incident, as close as can be done safely

119
Q

Once emergency activities are ceased, the incident commander shall begin to scale down the incident with what as the highest priority?

A

Restoring normal traffic flow

120
Q

Who is responsible to maintain safe working area for any other agency still on scene?

A

Incident Commander

121
Q

ISSOG?

A

Incident Scene Safety Operating Guidelines

122
Q

Freeway management team?

A

Meetings on all large scale scenes or incidents that present unusual challenges

123
Q

Does the ISSOG supersede the OSHA 29 CPR 1910.120?

A

No, that’s a mandated document for hazmat response

124
Q

What units have a carbon monoxide (CO) monitor?

A

a. In-service pumpers
b. The platform
c. Battalion Chief
d. EMS captain

125
Q

The CO monitor is used during:

A

a. all interior salvage and overhaul

b. any environment where CO could be possible produced

126
Q

Where is the CO monitor worn?

A

a. On SCBA strap when SCBA is worn

b. Flap of top pocket

127
Q

The CO monitor has three types of alarms:

A

Visual, vibrating, audible

128
Q

The CO monitor alarm will sound when CO content reaches a low of _____ and high of _____.

A

low of 35 ppm

high of 70 ppm

129
Q

When will personnel exit the hazardous area?

A

As soon as the low level alarm activates

130
Q

Personnel can enter a high CO environment with what in place?

A

Accountability and RIT

131
Q

How often is the monitor turned on?

A

Daily and allowed to go into gas reading mode

132
Q

Type of battery the CO monitor uses?

A

Single “AA” alkaline battery

133
Q

The CO monitor’s battery is low when indicated by:

A

by the icon and a single beat every 30 seconds

134
Q

CO monitors that have been dropped or submerged will be forwarded to:

A

Logistics division

135
Q

Who shall oversee a period function test of the CO monitor?

A

Operations Division Chief

136
Q

How often is the function test of the CO monitor?

A

every 6 months, battery is changed during this time too

137
Q

What is the portable radio emergency alert feature used for?

A

Perilous situation that are not covered by the “mayday” policy

138
Q

How many digits does each portable ID number have?

A

6

139
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring each radio is in the correct position?

A

station commander

140
Q

How do you activate the EAB?

A

depress the EAB and hold it for approx. 2 seconds

141
Q

When the EAB is activated, an audible alert is transmitted to:

A

Dispatch console

142
Q

What is displayed in the LCD screen on the portable radio?

A

Emergency

143
Q

How are EAB signals sent?

A

Maximum power, maximum volume

144
Q

How is the EAB reset?

A

a. Depress the EAB and hold for approx. 2 seconds

b. Turn the radio off and then back on

145
Q

What is the dispatcher supposed to announce if an EAB is depressed?

A

Is everything 10-24

146
Q

If there is an emergency what is the proper response from the crew?

A

10-24

147
Q

If there is no emergency what is proper response from the crew?

A

Advise in plain English that no emergency exists

148
Q

If a unit does advise 10-24, the following should occur: (4)

A

a. Code 3 PD response to location
b. Shift commander is notified on separate channel
c. Code 3 FD full station assignment on separate channel
d. Shift commander shall monitor both channels
e. Staff All Call

149
Q

Who decides if the FD full station assignment responds Code 3?

A

Shift commander

150
Q

Where are radios in need of service brought to?

A

On duty B/C

151
Q

What is the 6 digit radio ID for a spare radio?

A

SPARE

152
Q

What is one of the keys to implementing a successful Exposure Control Plan?

A

Identify exposure situations employees may encounter

153
Q

When were the exposure lists compiled?

A

May 5, 1992

154
Q

List of job classifications that have potential exposures?

A

Firefighter to Fire Chief

155
Q

What are the four non-emergency conditions that can cause exposures?

A

a. Decontamination
b. Engineering control
c. General housekeeping
d. Transporting biohazard waste

156
Q

Florida State Statute 395.1025 requires what?

A

ER to notify EMS agency within 48 hours of airborne communicable disease

157
Q

Are HIV test results confidential?

A

Yes, no person shall have access except as authorized by Dept. of Health

158
Q

Florida State Statute 381.004

A

HIV legal need to know

159
Q

Informed consent for HIV testing:

A

Preceded by an explanation of the test, including:

a. purpose
b. potential use
c. limitations and meanings of results

160
Q

Viruses cannot act without _____.

A

being attached to another cell

161
Q

Infectious substances are transmitted via _____.

A

a. an infected persons body fluid

b. enters the blood stream

162
Q

What 5 things must be in place for an illness to occur?

A

a. must be blood or body fluid containing the virus
b. an opening into the body
c. means of getting the virus inside the opening
d. large enough amount of the virus
e. defense system that does not have immunity

163
Q

What is the most efficient route of transmission?

A

Directly from the infected person, not through an intermediary

164
Q

Are hands and clothing an efficient means of transfer?

A

No

165
Q

What is the primary deterrent from transmitting infectious diseases?

A

hand washing

166
Q

What is the objective of prevention?

A

Establish protective measures to prevent direct exposure

167
Q

What are the two levels of exposure?

A

Non-significant

Significant

168
Q

What may cause the severity of exposure to be upgraded?

A

unable to wash or clean the affected area in a timely manner

169
Q

Are tears considered body fluids that can transmit disease?

A

Yes

170
Q

What is a significant blood-borne exposure?

A

A combination of one or more type of body fluid and one or more injuries

171
Q

What form is filled out for non-significant exposure?

A

Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form

172
Q

What forms are filled out for a significant exposure? (7)

A

a. Infectious Disease Exposure Report Form
b. First Report of Injury/Illness
c. Supervisor Accident/Injury
d. FD 30
e. EMS report
f. Workers’ comp report
1. employer section (completed by employee)
2. physician section (completed by physician)
g. First to Receive treatment

173
Q

Who does the city work with for workers’ comp issues?

A

City’s insurance carriers and Risk Management Dept

174
Q

What forms are filled out if an incident involves an injury or it is likely that an injury may result from the incident? (7)

A

a. First Report of Injury/Illness
b. Supervisors Accident/Injury
c. Report from Employee
d. EMS report
e. NFIRS-1
f. NFIRS-5
g. FD 30

175
Q

Phone number for Risk management?

A

954-572-2497

176
Q

Fax number for Risk management?

A

954-572-2278

177
Q

What is faxed to Risk management?

A

a. First report of injury/illness

b. Supervisors report of accident/injury

178
Q

What is left on Risk Management’s voicemail? (5)

A

a. Details of injury
b. name of injured
c. where injured employee was treated
d. phone number of employee
e. supervisor’s name

179
Q

If there is no injury or illness, what forms are filled out?

A

a. First report of injury or illness
b. supervisors report of accident/injury
c. FD 30

180
Q

If the employee is incapacitated, what is appropriate to write on the signature line?

A

Unavailable

181
Q

Who can sign the supervisor’s report of accident/injury?

A

Captain

182
Q

What is the FD30 used for?

A

Staff follow up

183
Q

Who must be notified in order to arrange medical treatment?

A

Battalion or greater

184
Q

What color envelope is used for worker’s comp?

A

Red “special attention”

185
Q

What are the hours for Risk Management?

A

9am to 5pm, Monday - Friday

186
Q

If damage is noted on a vehicle what is to be done?

A

Report damage to Station Officer and on duty B/C

187
Q

A vehicle incident report must be completed when a vehicle is found with damage and contain the following information: (5)

A

a. Vehicle number
b. Extent of damage
c. Personnel involved
d. Brief description of the incident
e. Time found

188
Q

If a vehicle is in an accident without injury, who is notified?

A

a. Notify station officer and on duty B/C

b. PD will be notified

189
Q

For an accident without injuries, who will have a workers comp form filled out on them?

A

Driver of the vehicle

190
Q

Who must be notified of the vehicle in the garage after an accident?

A

Logistics Division

191
Q

If the garage is not open, who determines if the unit stays in-service?

A

Company officer

192
Q

Who will notify risk management of the accident?

A

B/C immediately by phone

193
Q

What paperwork is included for an accident?

A

Cover letter describing the facts

194
Q

All vehicle incident paperwork is immediately turned into who?

A

Administrative officer

195
Q

For an accident with injuries, who will have workers’ comp form filled out on them?

A

All personnel that are suspected of being injured

196
Q

If a vehicle accident causes an injury who is notified?

A

a. B/C shall have dispatch notify the Duty Chief and Operations Chief

197
Q

It is a mandatory policy of SFRD that all firefighters wear and use an SCBA under the following conditions.

A

a. All phases of firefighting
b. Toxic or oxygen deficient atmospheres
c. Hazardous atmospheres

198
Q

Firefighters donning an SCBA shall ensure _____ has activated prior to entering an area where respiratory protection is required.

A

PASS

199
Q

What types of sessions are involved with EAP?

A

Counseling

200
Q

When is it appropriate for unite to drive on the opposite direction of traffic?

A

a. At request of law enforcement

b. And only when it is confirmed that all traffic has been stopped

201
Q

A vehicle incident report must be completed on all vehicle accidents and include the following:

A

a. Vehicle number
b. Extent of damage
c. Personnel involved
d. Additional actions taken
e. Brief description of the incident

BC Test (12 decks)

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