PROJECT COST MANAGEMENT Flashcards
Which of the following choices are considered components of the schedule performance index?
a. Leads and lags
b. Critical Path Method
c. Earned Value and Planned value
d. Earned Value and Actual Cost
C
The best answer choice is C. Schedule performance index is the ratio of Earned Value to Planned value. The formula is SPI = EV / PV.
You’ve been asked to produce an estimate for a newly approved project. Because the estimate is for a
customer, it needs to be as accurate as possible. Although it will some take time, the best estimate you can provide will be through the use of which of the following estimating techniques?
a. Parametric
b. Analogous
c. Three-point
d. Bottom-up
D
A bottom-up estimate is the most accurate estimate. It also takes the most time to prepare.
You’ve been asked to calculate the expected total costs of completing all work expressed as the sum of the Actual Cost to date and the Estimate to Complete. What, specifically, are you calculating?
a. The Estimate to Complete (ETC)
b. Earned Value (EV)
c. Planned Value (PV)
d. The Estimate at Completion (EAC)
D
Per the PMBOK® Guide definition, EAC is the expected total cost of completing all work expressed as the sum of the Actual Cost to date and the Estimate to Complete.
The advantages of analogous estimating include how easy it is to perform and the fact that you can create the estimate without a lot of detailed information. A disadvantage would include what?
a. It can be used only when projects are similar in fact, not just in appearance.
b. A computer program is needed.
c. Interaction costs may be overlooked.
d. It is time consuming.
A
Analogous estimating uses expert judgment and historical information to develop cost estimates. However, to be accurate, comparative projects must be similar in fact, not just in appearance.
Which of the following is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as the ratio of Earned Value to Actual Cost?
a. CV
b. SV
c. CPI
d. SPI
C
The best answer choice is C. CPI (Cost Performance Index) compares Earned Value to Actual Cost
to determine the cost efficiency of the project.
Many projects require the project manager to manage both direct and indirect costs. Which of the following is an example of an indirect cost?
a. Expenses incurred for travel to the project location
b. Costs for purchasing materials and supplies necessary to complete a project
c. Overhead for the portion of the office you occupy
d. Payments to contractors hired to perform work on your project
C
Indirect costs are those costs not directly attributable to a project, such as overhead, management salaries, and so on.
Project costs are determined to a great degree by the effectiveness of the execution of the project work. Actual progress can be compared to planned progress by utilizing work performance information to generate activity metrics for evaluation. This type of performance reporting comparison is used in which of the following?
a. COQ
b. EVM
c. WBS
d. BAC
B
The best answer choice is B because EVM (Earned Value Management) is used to evaluate project progress.
While work is being performed on a project, additional work is sometimes identified that was not previously
planned. This can cause budget overruns due to which of the following?
a. Inaccurate estimating
b. Quality issues
c. Inappropriate estimating methods
d. Unplanned, in-scope work
D
If a project or product scope is not fully defined, additional work not identified during the planning process may be discovered as part of project execution. The work is in scope, but not planned for in the budget or schedule, causing overruns in both.
Your current Earned Value on your project is $360,000 and you have calculated the SPI at 0.8. What is your Planned value at this point?
a. $360,000
b. $480,000
c. $450,000
d. $288,000
C
The best answer choice is C. SPI = EV / PV. In this scenario, we would need to divide the Earned Value by the SPI in order to calculate the Planned value.
Project Cost Management is primarily concerned with the cost of the resources needed to complete project
activities. The processes of Project Cost Management include:
a. Project execution, budget planning, force field analysis, visioning
b. Estimating costs, root-cause analysis, brainstorming, problem solving
c. Visioning, fishbone diagramming, gap analysis, controlling costs
d. Plan cost management, estimate costs, determine budget, control costs
D
Project Cost Management includes the following four processes: Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs, Determine Budget, and Control Costs.
You’ve been asked to calculate the EAC (Estimate at Completion) with a cost variance that is considered to be a one-time event. Which of the following would be the appropriate formula for you to use?
a. EAC = [(BAC – EV) / CPI] + AC
b. EAC = BAC – EV + AC
c. EAC = [(BAC – EV) / (CPI × SPI)] + AC
d. TCPI = (BAC – EV) / (BAC – AC)
B
EAC = BAC – EV + AC is used if the current Cost Variance is not expected to continue. It assumes that any existing variance is a one-time event. Most project managers don’t consider this a valid way of calculating EAC.
A component of a project or program management plan that describes how costs will be planned, structured, and controlled is called:
a. Activity cost estimates
b. Basis of estimates
c. Cost management plan
d. Spend plan
C
The cost management plan describes the structure and criteria that will be used for cost planning, estimating, budgeting, and reporting.
Which of the following is the primary output to the Determine Budget process?
a. Risk register
b. Reserve analysis
c. Project funding contingencies
d. Cost baseline
D
The best answer choice is D because it is the primary output to the Determine Budget process. The other outputs including Project funding requirements, and updates to cost estimates, the project schedule, and the risk register.
Estimate Costs is the process of developing an approximation of the cost of resources necessary to complete project work. Which of the following tools and techniques is NOT used to estimate costs?
a. Analogous estimating
b. Parametric estimating
c. Bottom-up estimating
d. Cost aggregation
D
Cost aggregation is a technique used to develop the cost baseline.
A measure of the cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to
meet a specified management goal, expressed as the ratio of the cost to finish the outstanding work to the
remaining budget is called:
a. BAC (Budget at Completion)
b. TCPI (To-Complete Performance Index)
c. Variance analysis
d. ETC (Estimate at Completion)
B
The TCPI tells you how efficiently you need to perform to hit a budget target.
You’ve just provided a 1,000-hour rough order of magnitude estimate at the beginning of a project. Based on studies that have been done, what would be the expected accuracy of this estimate?
a. –5% to + 10%
b. 10% to + 25%
c. –25% to + 75%
d. It is not possible to provide an estimate at this time.
C
A rough order of magnitude estimate done in the beginning of a project will have an accuracy range of –25% to + 75%.
Marsha is a new project manager and is working on determining her project budget. Because this is her first project, she wants to make certain that she doesn’t go over budget. In order to keep everything well organized, she has decided to begin by establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, managing, expending, and controlling project costs. In which of the following processes is Marsha involved?
a. Determine Budget
b. Control Costs
c. Estimate Costs
d. Plan Cost Management
D
The best answer choice is D because the question defines Plan Cost Management.