Production systems 8 - 12 Flashcards

1
Q

what does the equine industry contribute to the economy annually

A

$6.3 billion

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2
Q

what are the 5 important issues within the equine industry

A

1) infectious disease threats
2) environmental issues
3) welfare
4) medication control
5) human occupational health and safety

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3
Q

Equine industry quarantine , threats to Aus,

A

2 weeks in country of origin and another 2 weeks in Australia
○ Threats - African horse sickness, equine influenza, vesicular stomatitis
- Equine influenza - outbreak in 2007 and then eradicated

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4
Q

Hendra Virus in australia, how works, history and problem

A
  • fatal and endemic disease
  • Carried through fruit bats - spread via urine and birthing fluid gets into horse feed bins
  • Infected 100 horses to date - euthanized
  • Zoonotic from horses - 7 people infected, 4 people have died
  • Acute onset of respiratory signs and/or neurological signs - wear full protection
  • Vaccination available from 2012 - uptake is quite low about 30% - social media
  • Disease only in QLD and NSW to date but seropositive fruit bats present in VIC and SA - only matter of time before
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5
Q

what are the 3 main problems with pets within the community

A

1) Dog bites -
2) nuisance animals- noisy animals
3) impact on wildlife

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6
Q

What governments are involved with pets and the important acts

A

State and local laws (local councils mainly involved with own variations)
Domestic Animals Act (1994) and the Domestic Animals Regulations (2015) and the Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act (1986)

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7
Q

What are the 9 obligation of dog owners in Victoria

A

1) Ensure your dog is microchipped
2. Register your dog with the local council
3. Follow any relevant local laws with regard to desexing
4. Keep your dog under control when walking itand obey any council orders about having your dog on a leash or disposing of your dog’s droppings
5. Keep your dog confined to your property at other times
6. Make sure your dog doesn’t bark persistently
7. Stop your dog straying onto another person’s property
8. Prevent your dog chasing or attacking people or other animals
9. Care adequately for your dog - Code of Practice for the Private Keeping of Dogs

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8
Q

Define a menacing and dangerous dog

A

Menacing dog - due to it rushing or chasing a person, or causing a non-serious bite injury to a person or animal
Dangerous dog - caused the death of or serious injury to a person or animal by biting or attacking

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9
Q

What are the requirements of owning a menacing dog

A

· Must be microchipped and council informed of microchip number
· May be required to be muzzled whilst outside the owner’s dwelling
· May be required to be on a lead whilst outside the owner’s dwelling
· Must notify the Council within 24 hours if:
o the dog is missing
o the ownership of the dog changes

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10
Q

what are the requirements of owning a dangerous dogs

A

· Must be microchipped and council informed of microchip number
· Must be desexed
· Must wear a prescribed collar at all times
· Owner must display prescribed warning signs at all entrances to the premises where the dog is kept
· When indoors or in an outdoor enclosure, the dog must be housed in such a way that it cannot escape, and that prevents it from injuring visitors to the premises.
· Must be muzzled and on a lead whilst it is outside the owner’s dwelling and the dog’s enclosure.
· Must notify the Council within 24 hours if:
o the dog is missing
the ownership of the dog changes

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11
Q

Restricted breeds define, breed is important and what occurs

A

Restricted breed dogs are those deemed to be inherently aggressive and therefore more likely to pose a danger to the community
The only significant one in Victoria is Pit Bulls
- extra security arrangements at home, being muzzled and leashed at all times when in public, mandatory desexing and a prohibition on breeding
- A dog that is identified by a council officer as a Pit Bull that cannot be registered may be seized and ultimately euthanased, solely on the basis of its breed

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12
Q

what are the obligations for cat owners in Victoria

A
  • If you own a cat you must:
  • ensure your cat is microchipped
  • register your cat with the local council
  • follow any relevant local laws with regard to desexing
  • follow any relevant local laws which apply regarding movement restrictions on cats e.g. in the Shire of Yarra Ranges cats must be on the owner’s property at all times
  • stop your cat straying onto another person’s property
  • care adequately for your cat - Code of Practice for the Private Keeping of Cats
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13
Q

Where are the majority of dogs bought

A
· Breeder (30%)
· Friend or neighbour (20%)
· Pet shop (16%)
· Animal shelter (15%)
· Other 19% ?? Online - education is needed
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14
Q

where are the majority of cats bought

A

Animal shelter (38%)

  • Friends or neighbours (38%)
  • Adoptedstray cats(24%)
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15
Q

There are three requirements for diseases to spread in kennels and shelters

A

(1) a source of infection sufficient to cause disease (pathogen); - constant new arrivals of animals
(2) a susceptible host; - animals in shelters quite stressed
(3) a mode of transmission of the infection to another host for disease to continue-

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16
Q

What are 5 common modes of transmission in shelter environment

A

i. Direct transmission involves a body surface of one animal contacting a body surface of another.
ii. Indirect transmission (also known as fomite transmission) - a susceptible host contacts a contaminated inanimate object (often hands)
Iii. Droplet transmission occurs when small, infectious droplets that do not remain suspended in air travel a short distance through the air and land on the host’s mucosal surfaces
Iv. Airborne transmission occurs when infectious residue from dried droplets or dust remains suspended, able to travel distances through the air. Lastly,
v. vector transmission when another living animal serves as an intermediary to transmit diseases to the next animal (e.g., a mosquito or a rodent).

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17
Q

What are the 3 main aims of infectious disease control programs

A

1) Minimise host susceptibility - nutrition, pain control, avoid overcrowding, limit stress
2) Optimise every animal’s ability to resist disease - vaccinate and worm every animal on entry - unless
3) Decrease likelihood of exposure to problem pathogens

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18
Q

What are important features of shelters

A

1) facility design - quarantine of incoming animals - quarantine for 8 days, isolation of animals with infectious diseases
2) area where people come to adopt animals enter through different entrance
3) work flow and hygiene protocols, healthy resident animals who have completed quarantine should be handled before the isolation cases - separate staff is possible
4) staff training

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19
Q

what is the main problems with cats and dogs in shelters in terms of disease

A

Cats - feline respiratory ‘cat flu’

Dog - parvo and canine cough

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20
Q

What are the 7 classifications of dogs by kennel council and examples

A

1) toy breeds - smallest - pug
2) terriers - hunting - jack russel
3) gun dogs - Labrador retrievers
4) hounds - 1. whippet 2. dachshund
5) working dogs - border collie
6) utility dogs - guardian or rescue
7) non-sporting dogs - poodles

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21
Q

how to classify dogs based upon size

A

Very small - up to 4Kg
Small - 4-11Kg
Medium 11-22Kg
Large 22-45Kg

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22
Q

List the 4 diseases of certain breeds

A

1) Brachycephalic syndrome - anatomical features
2) skin fold pyoderma - shar peis have very loose skin ideal for bacterial growth
3) Cavalier King Charles Spaniels and mitral valve disease (MVD) - 50% affected by 5 years
4) Von Willibrand’s disease and Dobermans - normal platelet binding

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23
Q

diet for dogs what need and food to avoid

A
  • complete, commercial dog food
  • Raw meaty bones - good for dental health
  • Onions
  • Chocolate - GI signs, neurological signs, theobromine - related to coffee - more contained in darker chocolate
  • Coffee - theobromine substance again
  • Cooked bones - can splinter in gastrointestinal tract and can perforate intestines
  • Fatty foods - pancreatitis
  • Mouldy foods - gouge the food and make themselves sicks
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24
Q

What are the 3 core vaccines for dogs and the common non-core vaccine

A

1) Distemper - canine distemper virus
2) Hepatitis - canine adenovirus type 1
3) Parvo - parvovirus
Common non-core vaccines used in Australia - canine cough - kennel cough
Two strains:
1) Canine parainfluenza virus
2) Bordetella bronchiseptica

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25
Q

What is the annual vaccination protocol for dogs

A

6-8wks- Distemper, Hepatitis and Parvovirus (C3)
12-14wks - C3 + Parainfluenza virus and Bordetella bronchiseptica (C5)
16-18wks- C5 (core and non-core common vaccines)
12 months after 3rd puppy vaccination then annually: C5

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26
Q

what is the triennial vaccination protocol for dogs

A

6-8wks- Distemper, Hepatitis and Parvovirus ,Parainfluenza virus and Bordetella bronchiseptica (C5)
10-12 wks - C5
12 months after 3rd puppy vaccination - C5
Following 2 years - Parainfluenza virus, Bordetella bronchiseptica
3rd year C5

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27
Q

What are the 5 gastrointestinal parasites involved with dogs and which most important

A

Roundworms – (mostly Toxocara canis) greatest concern in young puppies as can be transferred in utero or in milk
Hookworms – attach to wall of SI and feed on blood - black tarry faces
Whipworms – attach to the wall of LI
Tapeworms – may see segments in faeces.

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28
Q

what is the treatment protocol for dog gastrointestinal parasites

A
  • Dogs should be treated every 2 weeks until 12 weeks, then monthly until 6 months, then 3 monthly for life
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29
Q

What do roundworms do

A
  • Ingested eggs hatch in the intestine and migrate around the body causing internal lesions.
    ○ In the worst cases, the worms can block the artery that supplies blood to the retina of the eye.
    ○ Children seem to be more prone to this as less hygienic
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30
Q

what do hookworms do

A
  • Hookworm eggs are shed in infected dog (or other animal) faeces to the ground and beach sand, where they then develop over a period of 1–2 weeks into the infectious larval form.
  • The filariform larvae can burrow through intact skin but can only penetrate the upper dermis and thus create the typical wormlike burrows visible underneath the skin.
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31
Q

what are the 2 main prevention for heartworm and what if forget

A

2 major choices
- Annual injection - expensive
- Monthly treatment (oral or tropical)
If forget to treat - need to get tested as if have active infection then problem when use preventative measures

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32
Q

fleas what are the two main types of treatments

A

Comfortis - for active infection - instant emergency action

Advocate - longer term management

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33
Q

what is involved with desexing female dogs and what are the 3 main reasons to spay

A

Surgery is an ovariohysterectomy – removal of ovaries and uterus.
Usually done around 6 months
3 main reasons to spay:
1) prevention of pregnancy
2) prevention of pyometra - bacterial infection of the uterus, can become very unwell
3) significantly reduced risk of mammary tumours if spayed early - may have already developed if spay late

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34
Q

what is involved with desexing males and reasons to castrate

A
  • Surgery is an orchectomy – removal of testes.
  • Done at about 6 months - need to ensure drop both testes
    1) prevention of unwanted offspring
    2) prevention of testicular tumours
    3) Decrease of aggression and roaming
    4) Decrease in prostate and perianal tumours
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35
Q

what generally occurs at desexing

A

1) Compulsory tattoo
2) Retained canines and/or hind dew claws (no function)
3) Microchipping
- Large needle that hurts
- Scan microchip before put in
- Scan over it to make sure readable

36
Q

reproduction in dogs

A
  • Start cycling from 6-15 months
  • 2 heat periods per year about 6 months apart lasting 2-3 weeks
  • Large breeds may only cycle once a year
  • Vulval swelling and discharge, increased frequency or urination
  • May have bloody/straw coloured vulval discharge for about 10 days
37
Q

What are the 3 main ‘breeds’ for cats

A

1) domestic short hair
2) domestic long hair
3) ginger cat

38
Q

what type of cats are predominantly female

A

calico
Male calico and tortoiseshells are usually sterile
tortoishell cats

39
Q

What are some other breed groups for cats

A

1) oriental - siamese
2) russian blue
3) semi-foreign
4) semi-cobby - British shorthair, Scottish fold
5) cobby - manx
6) large - ragdoll

40
Q

how are cats grouped by size

A

Small cats and kittens up to 4Kg

Cats over 4Kg

41
Q

list some foods to avoid in cats

A
  • Onions/garlic
    • Cooked bones
    • Chocolate
    • Grapes (fresh or dried)
    • Stone fruit (seeds are poisonous - contain cyanide)
    • Tomatoes
    • Anything with string/fishing line around it
42
Q

What are the 3 core vaccines and what is the group called

A

F3 - feline 3

1) Feline panleukopaenia virus (FPV)– vomiting and diarrhoea. Transmission is faecal-oral
2) Feline herpesvirus 1 (FHV1) – upper respiratory infection
3) Feline calicivirus (FCV) - upper respiratory infection
- Not fully protected as change in strains
- Respiratory vaccines need to be given annually

43
Q

What are the two non-core vaccines

A

1) chlamydophila felis - bacteria, combine in F3 to make F4
2) feline immunodeficiency virus - transmitted through bite wound, free-roaming aggressive males
3) feline leukaemia virus - shed via saliva, transfer via placenta or milk, immune suppression, neoplasia,

44
Q

what is the vaccination protocol for cats

A

6-8 weeks F3/F4
10-12 weeks F3/F4 +/- FIV
14-16 weeks F3/F4 +/- FIV then yearly
- Cats over 6 months of age must be tested for FIV before vaccination. If they are already infected the vaccine will not be effective

45
Q

what gastrointestinal parasites are found in cats

A

Roundworms – greatest concern in young kittens as can be transferred in utero or in milk
Hookworms – attach to wall of SI and feed on blood
Tapeworms – may see segments in faeces
Whipworms – not very common in cats

46
Q

what is the worming protocol and heartworm in cats

A
  • Cats should be treated every 2 weeks until 12 weeks, then monthly until 6 months, then 3 monthly for life.
  • Can act as hosts in same way as dogs but are more resistant to infection than dogs and far fewer develop heartworm disease
  • When infection does develop, the smaller heart means that fewer worms are needed to result in clinical signs
  • Cats are less commonly treated with heartworm preventatives
47
Q

what are the 3 reasons for desexing female cats

A

ovariohysterectomy)

1) Prevention of unwanted kittens – a BIG welfare issue
2) Reduce stray and feral cat issues
3) Prevention or reduction of hormone-mediated behavioural problems, including attracting toms

48
Q

what are the 4 reasons to castrate

A

(castration - orchesctomy)

1) Prevention of unwanted kittens
2) Reduce stray and feral cat issues
3) Prevention or reduction of hormone-mediated behavioural problems e.g. roaming, urine spraying
4) Better health outcomes

49
Q

Reproduction in cats

A
  • Start cycling from 4-10 months
  • Seasonally polyoestrous and usually cycle from spring until autumn (although can cycle any time of year)
  • Oestrus is called being on heat, in season, on call. Lasts 7-10 days and come in again after 2-3 weeks.
  • Induced ovulators - only ovulate if they mated, alpacas
  • 2 months gestation
  • 4 or more kittens - rarely have trouble giving birth
50
Q

Reproduction in cats

A
  • Start cycling from 4-10 months
  • Seasonally polyoestrous and usually cycle from spring until autumn (although can cycle any time of year)
  • Oestrus is called being on heat, in season, on call. Lasts 7-10 days and come in again after 2-3 weeks.
  • Induced ovulators - only ovulate if they mated, alpacas
  • 2 months gestation (63 DAYS)
  • 4 or more kittens - rarely have trouble giving birth
51
Q

Vaccination and worming in pregnant dogs

A

Vaccination - if hasn’t been vaccinated in a few years should vaccinate however ideally don’t vaccinate
- Don’t use modify live vaccine just the killed vaccine if need to vaccinate
Worming - need to be careful about the products you use
- 10 days prior to birth then 3 weeks afterwards
Worm puppy every 2 weeks from 2 weeks until 12 weeks

52
Q

What are the 3 main concerns in animals in research

A

Ethical concerns
- Is what they go through really justified by the potential benefits? And is the latter likely to be achieved?
• Welfare concerns
- What is really being done to them? Transparency is important
- Are animal users really doing their best for them?
• Animal Rights
- Do humans have any right to use another species for their own end?
- Should some animals have to die so that humans, or even other animals, can benefit?

53
Q

What was important about 2014 figures in terms of animals in research

A

Numbers of animals used in research in Victoria dropped below 1 million animals
about 910,000 animals
- compare to cattle 2.1 million food and chicken 137 million

54
Q

what are the main types of procedures used with animals within research

A
  • Compared to 2010, less observational studies, minor conscious interventions and physiological challenge research conducted.
  • Trend now toward surgery with or without recovery and minor physiological challenges
  • Note that ‘Death as an end point” studies are rare and require ministerial approval
    ○ Generally not considered appropriate as it involves knowing that animal will die in the situation and leaving the animal to die, without euthanasia
55
Q

How many animals are used in research in USA, Canada and EU

A

USA - 767,000 without mice, rats and fish (main) - not good transparent system
Canada - 3,750,000 - fish most common
EU - 11,481,000 - UK, Germany and France largest contributors

56
Q

What does an average person believe with animals in research

A

Widespread belief that animal welfare is important
The average person (public):
- Does not like animal research
- But tolerates it with the understanding that:
• It must be justified properly
• It must be done as humanely as possible
• Welfare is given the highest priority
• There must be a high likelihood of achieving useful benefits to humans or animals
• It is tightly regulated by law
• It continues to be closely scrutinised by the public

57
Q

What is the main law that underpins animals in research and what underpins this

A

Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986
Permits use of animals in science and teaching under strict conditions designed to ensure animal welfare
1) Society’s concerns (mixed views)
2) Recognition of potential benefits
3) Promise of right oversight by an animal ethics committee (representing he community)

58
Q

What are the two main vicotira legislation dealing with animals in research

A

1) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act 1986

2) Prevention of Cruelty to Animals Regulations 2008 - tells you exactly how you enforce the Act

59
Q

What is considered an animal in terms of needing ethics approval for use of animals in research

A

1) live member of vertebrate species
- fish, amphibian, reptile, bird, mammal
2) live adult decapod crustacean - lobster, crab, crayfish
3) live adult cepalopod - octopus, squid, cuttlefish, nautilus

60
Q

What are the 3 mandatory codes of practice for animals in research

A

1) NHMRC Australian Code of Practice for the Care and Use of Animals for Scientific Purposes 8th edition (2013)- Revised version due out mid-2017
2) Code of Practice for the Housing and Care of Lab Mice, Rats, Guinea Pigs and Rabbits (2004)- online from Agriculture Victoria.
3) Victorian Codes of Practice for Animal Welfare- made under POCTA or the Domestic Animals Act 1994 (DAA).

61
Q

what does the codes of practice outline

A
  • Defines Animal Ethical Review Process requirements
  • Institutional responsibilities
  • Animal Ethics Committee (AEC) responsibilities
  • Investigator responsibilities
  • External review process
  • Specific procedural considerations
  • Wildlife research specific issues
  • Use of animals for teaching – specific issues
  • Further references
  • Mandates the 3Rs
62
Q

what promotes best practice for welfare

A

NHMRC Guidelines to Promote the Wellbeing of Animals used for Scientific Purposes

  • Adjunct to the Australian Code
  • Evidence-based as much as possible
  • International standards
  • Best practice based on the knowledge at the time
63
Q

Describe the 3 R’s in research

A

1) Replacement (with non-animal)
- Simulation models, cell cultures etc
2) Reduction – numbers used
- However better to use more but have each animal go through less
- Statistical validity
3) Refinement – most important for vets
- Methods which alleviate or minimise potential pain, suffering or distress and which enhance animal welfare
- anaesthetic, pain relief, asepsis, good peri-operative care,better housing, enrichment
- evolving field!

64
Q

What personnel have to be present on the animal ethics committee

A
  • A – vet
  • B – scientist
  • C – animal welfare rep (eg RSPCA)
  • D – lay person
  • Animal Facility Manager
  • Animal Welfare Officer
65
Q

what are the animal ethics committee looking for with potential studies

A

1) acutal procedures
2) aims. justification, number of animals used
- wether work has been done before
- replacement with non-animal alternatives
- personnel and training/experience
- humane endpoints, euthanasia methods

66
Q

What are the 4 main personnel needed for a laboratory animal system and their roles

A

1) Animal Facility Manager (AFM) - know what each lab is doing
2) Animal Technician - do the IV bleeds, medication
3) scientists - deliver certain medication and procedures
4) veterinarians - facility vets

67
Q

What is a defined animal in terms of animals in reserach

A

1) specified genetics, background, genotypes and phenotypes
2) specified health status - diseases, vet care, behavioural/psychological normality
3) specified environmental conditions

68
Q

For most relibale results with animals in research what is needed

A
  • Healthy and unstressed animals - biosecurity important
  • Rigorous monitoring
  • Have the right containment to protect and maintain health status
  • Identify problems ASAP ! handle and manage quickly and appropriately
  • the right health status:
  • Good animal healthcare program is essential
  • Staff with the correct people (training and expertise)
  • Appropriate infrastructure (equipment and resources)
69
Q

What are the 3 main ways mouse are classified within research

A

1) genetic
2) microbial classification such as SPF (specific pathogen free)
3) immunologic classification

70
Q

what is meant by specific pathogen free, conventional, gnotobiotic and axenic microbial classifications

A

1) specific pathogen free - only as good as the bio-exclusion list, free of common pathogens
2) conventional - not known to be free of pathogens
3) gnotobiotic - have a know microbial flora
4) axenic - completely germ free

71
Q

What are the 8 main ways a pathogen can be introduced within a facility and the main one

A

1) incoming animals
2) biological material
3) people - biggest issue, have a 48 hour exclusion period from one lab to another
4) contaminated feed/water
5) contaiminated bedding substrate
6) equipment
7) instrument
8) air

72
Q

What are the 5 different areas an animal facility needs

A

1) animal rooms - separation of species
2) procedure rooms
3) areas for quarantine
4) cage wash area - sterilixing equipment
5) storage of food, bedding, caging, biologicals

73
Q

how to ensure containment of airborne contaminants with air pressure

A

– “Dirty” areas eg. Quarantine, dirty cage wash, hazmat areas -> negative pressure - want air leaving
– “Clean” areas eg. Clean Cage wash, breeding, clean equipment storage -> positive pressure - want air to go in

74
Q

What are important environmental conditions for animals in research

A

1) heating, venitlation and air conditioning - humidity from 30-70%, 10-15 air changes/hour in animal rooms, minimise draughts and temperature gradients
2) power - enough outllets, emergency power source
3) lighting - photoperiod very important, nocturnal, photointensity - albino animals, spectral quality

75
Q

What are the 4 main cage types used with animals in research, which most commonly used

A

1) solid-bottomed showbox cages - airborne disease easy spread
2) open-top vs filter-top
3) static vs individually-ventilation caging (IVC) MOST COMMON - improve microenvironments, harder to detect health
4) germ-free isolators

76
Q

Germ-free isolators characteristics

A
  • Positive-pressure completely enclosed chambers
  • Animals in open top cages within chamber
  • Work through sleeved gloves sealed to ports
  • Used to be rigid -> Today more commonly clear, flexible, plastic vinyl “bubbles”
  • Expensive and labour intensive - not really used here
77
Q

What are the 6 important things for increased welfare of animal within research

A

1) bedding
2) nesting material
3) environmental enrichment
4) nutrition - prevent malooclusions
5) food - lab diets
6) water

78
Q

in terms of water supply in animals in reserach what are the types

A
  1. Source: Potable water that is treated or purified and filtered
    - Microfiltration- removes everything but viruses
    - Ultrafiltration
    - Reverse osmosis
  2. Treated water:
    - Autoclaved??
    - Chlorine -> eventually gases off
    - Acidified -> prevents bacterial growth - common, pH or 2 or 3
  3. Water bottles vs automated water
    - Can be prone to blocking (rats especially)
79
Q

What are the 3 main viruses with mouse

A
  1. Mouse parvovirus (MPV)
  2. Mouse hepatitis virus (MHV)
  3. Sendai virus
80
Q

What are the 3 main ways of surveillance of disease within facilities

A

1) Ongoing health data capture
- Identify any health trends, need to know what is normal to know what is abnormal
2) Quality assurance of equipment etc
- Testing autoclaves, cage wash equipment to check that they are reaching temperature etc
3) Sentinel testing - a couple of mice per 100 cages, designed not to be a part of the experiment but be exposed to the same conditions then the mice and be checked for parasites and diseases

81
Q

what are the best animals to use in sentinel programs

A
  • Best to use outbred mice (for robust immune response! evidence of seroconversion)
  • Best to use females (less aggressive/less likely to fight with cagemates)
  • Best to select number of sentinel cages based on presumed prevalence of pathogens although many institutions select numbers more arbitrarily
82
Q

What are the two main sentinels programs and what most common

A

1) Dirty-bedding (most common)
– Most effective at detecting pathogens transmitted via faeco-oral route
– Given bedding samples from several cages during cage change
– Test sentinels -> serology, parasitology, faecal PCR
– Only 1 or a few mice needed to monitor multiple cages at once
2) Contact
– Best for detecting pathogens that transmit via varying routes
– Use castrated males (avoid both pregnancy and fighting) placed directly in cages for 4-6 weeks
– Disadvantage: require more animals

83
Q

Rats and mice, houseing, diet and common diseases as pets

A

Housing - social animals, open sided cages for ventilation
Diet commercial pellets, fresh greens, sunflower seeds - treats
Common diseases -
Rats - respiratory disease, benging mammary adenocarcinoma
Mice - malignant mammary neoplasia - 50% don’t make it through surgery

84
Q

Rabbits, housing, diet, preventive health and common diseases

A

Housing - variable but room t run, social best in pairs, Femal/male or male/male
Diet - 70-80% grass hay (Oaten) + 20-30% fresh, leafy greens + 0-5% pellets and treats (Oxbow)
Preventative health:
• Desexing (females >2yo= uterine adenocarcinoma - 80-90% at this age if not desexed)
• Vaccination- Calicivirus (RHDV), currently recc 6 monthly boosters
• Parasites- Selamectin (NBFIPRONIL KILLS RABBITS)
Common diseases:
• Gut stasis, GI blockages
• Dental disease (congenital vs acquired)
• E. Cuniculi (protozoan parasite)
• Renal disease

85
Q

Guinea Pigs housing, diet, preventative health and common diseases

A

Housing - secure, well ventilation, hides essential, highly social, best in paris (FS/MN) or harems (MN + FS/FS/FS)
Diet - 70-80% grass hay (Oaten) + 20-30% fresh, leafy greens + 0-5% pellets and treats (Oxbow)
Preventative health:
• Desexing (females= ovarian cysts)
• Vitamin C supplementation
• Parasites- Selamectin, ivermectin
Common diseases:
• Dental disease (acquired)
• Mange mites
• Gut stasis
• Cardiomyopathy - dyspnoea animals, may have murmur

86
Q

If there is a potential outbreak what is the short and long terms plan

A

Short term plan
- Ban all animal movements until further notice
- Testing imported mice with PCR - determine which has disease which doesn’t
- Euthanise all the imported mice and autoclave (steam sterilisation) everything they have come into contact with
- Purchase new sentinels
Long term plan
- Check if IVC ventilation
- Dirty-litter sentinel mice - expose to soiled bedding for 6 weeks, collect faeces and do bleed for serology
- Rederivation from pregnant mice if need be to repopulate mice for the study (save genetic stock)

87
Q

define biosecurity

A

Sum of all measures intended to prevent, detect, contain and eradicate adventitious infective agents