Procurement Flashcards

1
Q

What is the process of procurement management?

A
  • Plan Procurement management
  • Conduct procurements
  • Control procurements
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2
Q

What are the inputs to the Plan Procurement Management process?

A
• Project Charter
• Business documents
• Project management plan
• Project documents:
     ○ Project team assignment
     ○ Requirement documentation
     ○ Resource requirements
     ○ Risk register
Stakeholder register
• EEFs
• OPAs
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3
Q

What are the key outputs of the Plan Procurement Management process?

A
  • Procurement management plan
  • Procurement strategy
  • Procurement statement of work
  • Source selection criteria
  • Make-or-buy decisions
  • Bid documents
  • Independent cost estimates
  • Change requests
  • Project document updates
  • OPAs updates
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4
Q

What are the key outputs of the Conduct Procurements process?

A
  • Selected sellers
  • Agreements (signed contracts)
  • Change requests
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates
  • OPAs updates
  • Resource calendars
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5
Q

What are the key outputs of the Control Procurements process?

A
  • Closed procurements
  • Procurement documentation updates
  • Work performance information
  • Change requests
  • Project management plan updates
  • Project documents updates
  • OPAs updates
  • Formal acceptance of deliverables
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6
Q

What is an agreement?

A

A document or communication that outlines internal or external relationships and their intentions.

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7
Q

What is a contract?

A

A type of written or verbal agreement, typically created with an external entity, where there is some exchange of goods or services for some type of compensation (usually monetary); a contract forms the legal relationships between the entities.

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8
Q

What is the difference between centralised and decentralised contracting?

A
  • Centralised: there is one procurement department, and the procurement manager handles procurements for many projects.
  • Decentralised: there is no procurement department or procurement manager assigned, and the project manager may be responsible for the plan, as well as conducting and monitoring work on all procurements.
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9
Q

What are the advantages and disadvantages of centralised contracting?

A

• Advantages:
○ Higher level of procurement expertise
○ Standardised practices provide efficiency
○ Continuous improvement, training and shared lessons learned
• Disadvantages
○ Procurement manager’s attention is divided among many projects
○ More difficult for the project manager to obtain contracting help when needed.

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10
Q

Describe the project manager’s role in procurement.

A
  • Make sure the contract contains all the scope of work and project management requirements
  • Incorporate mitigation and allocation of risks into the contract
  • Be involved during contract negotiations to protect the relationship with the seller
  • Work with the procurement department to manage changes to the contract
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11
Q

What is a qualified seller list?

A

A list of sellers that have been preapproved. List might be in OPAs.

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12
Q

What is a seller proposal or price quote?

A

A seller’s response to the bid documents that represents an official offer from the seller; a proposal is usually the response to a request for proposal (RFP); a quote is usually the response to a request for quote (RFQ).

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13
Q

What is source selection analysis?

A

Determines the criteria that will be used to select sellers.

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14
Q

What are the 3 broad categories of contracts?

A
  • Fixed-price: FP
  • Cost reimbursable: CR
  • Time and Material: T&M
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15
Q

What is a fixed-price contract? Advantages and disadvantages?

A

There is one set fee for accomplishing the work.
• Advandages
○ Less work for the buyer to manage;
○ Seller had a strong incentive to control costs;
○ Companies have experience with this type of contract;
○ The buyer knows the total price before the work begins
• Disadvantages
○ Seller may try to make up profits by charging more
○ Seller may try to not complete some of the procurement statement of work
○ Requires more work for the buyer to write the procurement statement of work
○ Can be more expensive than other types if the procurement statement of work is incomplete.

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16
Q

Who has the cost risks in a cost-reimbursable contract?

Who has the cost risks in fixed-price contract?

A
  • Cost-reimbursable: the risk is borne by the buyer.

* Fixed-price: the risk is borne by the seller.

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17
Q

What is a fixed-price incentive fee (FPIF) contract?

A

The buyer pays a fixed price plus an additional fee if the seller exceeds performance criteria stated in the contract.

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18
Q

What is a fixed-price award fee (FPAF) contract?

A

The buyer pays a fixed price plus and award (paid in full or in part) based on the seller’s performance.

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19
Q

What is a fixed price economic price adjustment (FPEPA) contract?

A

A fixed price contract with a built-in economic price adjustment to cover cost increases due to future economic conditions.
Ex: price increase planned based on Consumer Price Index evolution.

20
Q

What is time and material contract? Advantages and disadvantages?

A

The buyer pays on a per-hour or per-item basis.
• Advantages
○ Can be created quickly
○ Contract duration is brief
○ Good choice when you are hiring “bodies”
• Disadvantages
○ Every hour or unit billed is profit for the seller
○ The seller has no incentive to control costs
○ Appropriate only for small levels of effort on projects
○ Requires a great deal of day-to-day oversight

21
Q

What is a purchase order?

A

A unilateral contract typically used for buying commodities.

Purchase orders become contracts when the buyer accepts the terms.

22
Q

What is a Cost-reimbursable contract? Advantages and disadvantages?

A

All the seller’s costs are reimbursed by the buyer.
• Advantages
○ Allows for a simpler procurement statement of work
○ Usually requires less work to define scope
○ Generally less costly
• Disadvantages
○ Requires auditing seller’s invoices
○ Requires more work for the buyer
○ Seller has only a moderate incentive to control costs
○ The total price is unknown

23
Q

What is a Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF) contract?

A

CPFF: all the seller’s costs are reimbursed by the buyer, and a fixed fee is negotiated for the seller’s profit.
Fixed Fee ratio = % estimated cost

24
Q

What is a Cost Plus Percentage of Cost (CPPC) contract?

A

CPPC: all the seller’s costs are reimbursed by the buyer, and the buyer also pays a specified percentage of those costs as a fee or profit.
Fixed Fee ratio = % actual cost

25
Q

What is a Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF) contract?

A

CPIF: the seller will be paid for actual costs plus a fee; the seller gets a percentage of the savings if the actual costs are less than target costs or shares the cost overrun with the buyer.
Incentive fee = % savings or below target cost amount.

26
Q

What is a Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF) contract?

A

CPAF: all the seller’s costs are reimbursed by the buyer, and the buyer pays a base fee plus an award amount (a bonus) based on performance.

27
Q

What does a sharing ratio describe?

A

How the cost savings or cost overrun will be shared as apportioned by percentage (e.g., 80% buyer / 20% seller)

28
Q

What is target price compared to in order to measure success?

A

Final price (the cost, or end result)

29
Q

What is the ceiling price?

A

The highest price the buyer will pay; it’s a condition of the contract that must be agreed to by both parties before signing.

30
Q

What is the point of total assumption?

A

For fixed price incentive fee contracts, the amount above which the seller bears all the loss or cost overrun.
PTA = ((Ceiling price - Target price) / Buyer’s share ratio) + Target cost

31
Q

Describe the four different types of procurement statements of work.

A
  • Performance: conveys what the final product should accomplish.
  • Functional: conveys the end purpose of result (the minimum essential characteristics of the product)
  • Design: conveys exactly what work is to be done and how it should be completed
  • Terms of Reference: it the procurement is for services rather than products
32
Q

What is an independent cost estimate?

A

The buyer may prepare an internal estimate, or use the input of experts, to come up with a benchmark against which to validate the bids provided by outside sellers.

33
Q

What are source selection criteria?

When are these criteria created and when are they used?

A

Source selection criteria are the factors the buyer will use to evaluate (weight or score) responses from the sellers.
They are created during the Plan Procurement Management processd, and are used during the Control Procurements process to pick a seller.

34
Q

What are the bid documents?

A
  • Request For Proposal RFP
  • Request For Quotation RFQ
  • Request For Information RFI. Used before bid documents are created. The purpose of a bid document si to buy something.
  • Invitation For Bid IFB: RFP with SOW described so the sellers can determine a total price.
35
Q

What is a standard contract?

What are some examples of special provisions?

A
  • Standard contract: a contract most commonly used by the buyer, who put their terms and conditions into a standard format that is used over and over.
  • Special provisions: may include additions, changes, or deletions to a standard contract.
36
Q

What are waivers?

What does privity mean?

A
  • Waivers: statements saying that the rights under the contract may not be waived or modified other than by express agreement of the parties.
  • Privity: a contractual relationship between two or more parties.
37
Q

What does noncompetitive procurement mean?

A

The work is awarded to a single source or a sole source without competition.

38
Q

What is a letter of intent?

A

A letter from the buyer, without legal binding, saying the buyer intends to hire the seller.

39
Q

What a weighting system do?

What a screening system do?

A
  • Weighting system: enables the buyer’s evaluation committee to analyse seller responses using the weighted source selection criteria.
  • Screening system: eliminates potential sellers who do not meet the minimum requirements of the source selection criteria.
40
Q

What are some negotiation tactics?

A
  • Attacks
  • Personal insults
  • Good guy/bad guy
  • Deadline
  • Lying
  • Limited authority
  • Missing person
  • Fair and reasonable
  • Delay
  • Extreme demands
  • Withdrawal
  • Fait accompli
41
Q

What is the purpose of a procurement performance review?

A
  • Verify that the seller is performing as they should.
  • Identify what the buyer can do to help the seller do the work
  • Determine if any changes are needed to improve the buyer-seller relationship and the processes they are using
42
Q

Why might there be conflict between the procurement manager and the project manager?

A

The procurement manager is the only one with the power to change the contract.

43
Q

Define claim administration.

A

Managing claims: requests by the seller for compensation from the buyer.

44
Q

When are procurement considered closed?

A
  • When a contract is completed

* When a contract is terminated before the work is completed.

45
Q

What needs to be done for procurement closure?

A
  • Product validation
  • Procurement negotiation
  • Financial closure
  • Procurement audit
  • Updates to records
  • Final contract performance reporting
  • Documentation of lessons learned
  • Creation of procurement file
46
Q

What is a procurement audit?

A

A structured review of the procurement process and identification of lessons learned to help future procurements.

47
Q

What is a cost contract?

A

Contract where the seller makes no profit, only costs reimbursed. Typically used by nonprofit organisations.