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Aviation 2100 > Procedures and Airport Operations > Flashcards

Procedures and Airport Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Which is the correct traffic pattern departure procedure to use at a noncontrolled airport?

A

Comply with any FAA traffic pattern established for the airport.

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2
Q

The recommended entry position to an airport is:

A

To enter 45 degrees at the midpoint of the downwind leg at traffic pattern altitude.

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3
Q

VFR approaches to land at night should be accomplished:

A

The same as during daytime.

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4
Q

Which is appropriate for a helicopter approaching an airport for landing?

A

Avoid the flow of fixed wing traffic.

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5
Q

The numbers 9 and 27 on a runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:

A

090 and 270 degrees magnetic.

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6
Q

The numbers 8 and 26 on the approach ends of the runway indicate that the runway is oriented approximately:

A

080 and 260 degrees magnetic.

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7
Q

When turning onto a taxiway from another taxiway, what is the purpose of the taxiway directional sign?

A

Indicates designation and direction of taxiway leading out of an intersection.

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8
Q

Who should not participate in the land and hold short operations (LAHSO) program?

A

Student pilots.

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9
Q

Who has final authority to accept or decline any land and hold short clearance:

A

Pilot in command.

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10
Q

When should pilots decline a land and hold short clearance?

A

When it will compromise safety.

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11
Q

Where is the “Available Landing Distances” (ALD) data published for an airport that utilizes Land and Hold Short Operations (LAHSO):

A

Special Notices Section of the Airport/Facility Directory (AFD).

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12
Q

What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short clearance?

A

3 sm.

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13
Q

When approaching taxiway holding lines from the side with continuous lines, the pilot:

A

Should not cross the lines without ATC clearance.

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14
Q

What is the purpose of the runway/runway hold position sign?

A

Denotes intersecting runways.

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15
Q

What does the outbound destination sign identify:

A

Identifies direction to take-off runways.

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16
Q

What is the purpose of the No Entry Sign:

A

Identifies a paved area where aircraft are prohibited from entering.

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17
Q

An airport’s rotating beacon operated during daylight hours indicates:

A

That weather at the airport located in Class D airspace is below basic VFR weather minimums.

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18
Q

Airport taxiway edge lights are identified at night by:

A

Blue omnidirectional lights.

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19
Q

To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, and then click it:

A

Five times within five seconds.

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20
Q

A lighted heliport may be identified by a:

A

Green, yellow, and white rotating beacon.

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21
Q

A military air station can be identified by a rotating beacon that emits:

A

Two quick, white flashes between green flashes.

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22
Q

How can military airports be identified at night?

A

Dual peaked (two quick) white flashes between green flashes.

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23
Q

An above glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is:

A

An amber light signal.

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24
Q

An on glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is:

A

A green light signal.

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25
Q

A below glide slope indication from a pulsating approach slope indicator is:

A

Pulsating red light.

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26
Q

While operating in Class D Airspace, each pilot of an aircraft approaching to land on a runway served by a visual aproach slope indicator (VASI) shall:

A

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

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27
Q

When approaching to land on a runway served by a visual approach slope indicator (VASI), the pilot shall:

A

Maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope.

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28
Q

A slightly high glide slope indication from a precision approach path indicator is:

A

Three white lights and one red light.

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29
Q

A below glide slope indication from a tri-color VASI is:

A

Red light signal.

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30
Q

When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which aileron positions should be used?

A

Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing.

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31
Q

Which aileron positions should a pilot generally use when taxiing in strong quartering headwinds?

A

Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing.

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32
Q

Which wind condition would be the most critical when taxiing a nosewheel equipped high wing airplane?

A

Quartering tailwind.

33
Q

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle gear equipped airplane into a left quartering tailwind.

A

Left aileron up, elevator neutral.

34
Q

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane into a right quartering headwind?

A

Right aileron up, elevator up.

35
Q

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tailwheel airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

A

Left aileron down, elevator down.

36
Q

How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle equipped airplane with a left quartering tailwind?

A

Left airleron down, elevator down.

37
Q

To minimize the side loads placed on the landing gear during touchdown, the pilot should keep the:

A

Longitudinal axis of the aircraft parallel to the direction of its motion.

38
Q

For information about the parachute jumping and glider operations at Silverwood (any) airport, refer to:

A

The Airport/Facility directory.

39
Q

Information concerning parachute jumping sites may be found in the:

A

Airport/Facility Directory.

40
Q

When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during:

A

That flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.

41
Q

Unless each occupant is provided with supplemental oxygen, no person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry above a maximum cabin pressure altitude of:

A

15,000 feet MSL.

42
Q

Large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the human body result in:

A

Loss of muscular power.

43
Q

Which statement best defines hypoxia?

A

A state of oxygen deficiency in the body.

44
Q

When a stressful situation is encountered in flight, an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out can cause a condition known as:

A

Hyperventilation.

45
Q

Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?

A

Emotional tension, anxiety, or fear.

46
Q

A pilot should be able to overcome the symptoms or avoid future occurrences of hyperventilation by:

A

Slowing the breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.

47
Q

Susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increases as:

A

Altitude increases.

48
Q

The danger of spatial disorientation during flight in poor visual conditions may be reduced by:

A

Having faith in the instruments rather than taking a chance on the sensory organs.

49
Q

A state of temporary confusion resulting from misleading information being sent to the brain by various sensory organs is defined as:

A

Spatial disorientation.

50
Q

Pilots are more subject to spatial disorientation if:

A

Visual cues are taken away, as they are in instrument meteorological conditions (IMC).

51
Q

If a pilot experiences spatial disorientation during flight in a restricted visibility condition, the best way to overcome the effect is to:

A

Rely on the aircraft instrument indications.

52
Q

What is it often called when a pilot pushes his or her capabilities and the aircraft’s limits by trying to maintain visual contact with terrain in low visibility and ceiling?

A

Scud running.

53
Q

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Antiauthority:”

A

Follow the rules.

54
Q

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Impulsivity:”

A

Not so fast, think first.

55
Q

Hazardous attitudes occur to every pilot to some degree at some time. What are some of these hazardous attitudes?

A

Antiauthority, impulsivity, macho, resignation, and unvulnerability.

56
Q

In the aeronautical decision making process (ADM), what is the first step in neutralizing a hazardous attitude?

A

Recognizing hazardous thoughts.

57
Q

Risk management, as part of the aeronautical decision making (ADM) process, relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?

A

Situational awareness, problem recognition, and good judgement.

58
Q

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Invulnerability:”

A

It could happen to me.

59
Q

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Macho:”

A

Taking chances is foolish.

60
Q

What is the antidote when a pilot has a hazardous attitude, such as “Resignation:”

A

I am not helpless.

61
Q

Who is responsible for determining whether a pilot is fit to fly for a particular flight, even though he or she holds a current medical certificate?

A

The pilot.

62
Q

What is one common factor that affects most preventable accidents?

A

Human error.

63
Q

What often leads to spatial disorientaion or collision with ground/obstacles when flying under Visual Flight Rules (VFR)?

A

Continual flight into instrument conditions.

64
Q

What is one of the neglected items when a pilot relies on short and long term memory for repetitive tasks?

A

Checklists.

65
Q

Most midair collision accidents occur during:

A

Clear days.

66
Q

Prior to starting each maneuver, pilots should:

A

Visually scan the entire area for collision avoidance.

67
Q

What effect does haze have on the ability to see traffic or terrain features during flight?

A

All traffic or terrain features appear to be farther away than their actual distance.

68
Q

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours is to use:

A

A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10-degree sector.

69
Q

Which technique should a pilot use to scan for traffic to the right and left during straight and level flight?

A

Systematically focus on different segments of the sky for short intervals.

70
Q

How can you determine if another aircraft is on a collision course with you aircraft:

A

There will be no apparent relative motiion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

71
Q

What preperation should a pilot make to adapt the eyes for night flying?

A

Avoid bright white lights at least 30 minutes before the flight.

72
Q

What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?

A

Scan slowly to permit off center viewing.

73
Q

The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to:

A

Look to the side of the object and scan slowly.

74
Q

The most effective method of scanning for other aircraft for collision avoidance during nighttime hours is to use:

A

Peripheral vision by scanning small sectors and utilizing offcenter viewing.

75
Q

Except in Alaska, during what time period should lighted position lights be displayed on an aircraft?

A

Sunset to sunrise.

76
Q

Pilots are encouraged to turn on their landing lights when operating below 10,000 feet, day or night, and when operating within:

A

10 miles of any airport.

77
Q

During a night flight, you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft:

A

The airplane is crossing to the left.

78
Q

During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is flying away from you.

79
Q

During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

A

The other aircraft is approaching head on.

Aviation 2100 (15 decks)

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