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Aviation 2100 > AVN 2100 Flight Instruments > Flashcards

AVN 2100 Flight Instruments Flashcards

1
Q

What are the six basic flight instruments?

A

Attitude Indicator, Turn Coordinator, Heading Indicator, Air Speed Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator, Altimeter

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2
Q

What three categories are basic instruments grouped into?

A

Gyroscopic, pressure, and magnetic

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3
Q

What are the pressure instruments?

A

Altimeter, air speed indicator, and vertical speed indicator

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4
Q

What is static pressure?

A

The result of the weight of air molecules in the atmosphere

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5
Q

Static pressure ______ approximately ___ in of mercury every 1000 ft rise in altitude

A

Decreases, 1 inch

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6
Q

What measure static pressure?

A

The static ports

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7
Q

What is dynamic pressure?

A

Pressure resulting from air molecules relatively moving and crashing into what ever is moving through it.

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8
Q

What is the equation to calculate dynamic pressure?

A

1/2 (air density) * V^2

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9
Q

The faster the air flow the ______ the dynamic pressure.

A

Greater

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10
Q

The greater the air density to ______ the dynamic pressure.

A

Greater

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11
Q

Total pressure =

A

Static pressure + dynamic pressure

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12
Q

The pitot tube measures ________

A

Total pressure

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13
Q

On light aircraft the pitot tube is usually located _______

A

Under the left wing

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14
Q

The air speed indicator displays _______

A

Dynamic pressure converted to units of nautical miles per hour

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15
Q

The ASI cannot compensate for changes in _______

A

Temperature

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16
Q

The ______ system powers the ASI, Altimeter, and VSI

A

Pitot static system

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17
Q

The operation of the pressure instruments is based upon _______

A

Changes in pressure

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18
Q

Only the _____ uses pressure from the pitot tube.

A

Air speed indicator

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19
Q

Total pressure taken into the pitot tube is also referred to as _________

A

Ram air pressure

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20
Q

The green arc on the ASI is marked by the ____ and ____ speeds.

A

Vs1 and Vno

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21
Q

The white arc on the ASI is marked by the ___ and ___ speeds.

A

Vs0 and Vfe

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22
Q

The white arc on the ASI refers to the _____

A

Flap operating range

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23
Q

Vs0 is ______

A

The stalling speed in landing configuration

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24
Q

Vfe is ______

A

The maximum speed you can fly with flaps extended

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25
Q

The green arc on the ASI begins with ____

A

Vs1

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26
Q

Vs1 is ____

A

The stalling speed in clean configuration

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27
Q

The top of the green arc is ___

A

Vn0

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28
Q

Vn0 is _____

A

The maximum structural cruising speed

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29
Q

You should not exceed Vn0 except in ______

A

Smooth air

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30
Q

The green arc represents ________

A

Normal operating range of speeds

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31
Q

The yellow arc of the ASI begins with ____

A

Vn0

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32
Q

The top of the yellow arc is _____

A

Vne

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33
Q

Vne is ____

A

The never exceed speed

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34
Q

The yellow arc indicates the _________

A

Caution range

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35
Q

You should only fly at speeds in the yellow arc in _______

A

Smooth air

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36
Q

The red line is marked by the ______

A

Vne speed

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37
Q

Operating above the Vne _______

A

Should never be done and may result in structural damage

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38
Q

The six main V speeds on the ASI are:

A

Vs0 (dirty) Vs1 (clean) Vfe (max flaps extended) Vn0 (max structural cruising speed) Vne (never exceed)

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39
Q

What is Va?

A

Maneuvering speed

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40
Q

What is maneuvering speed?

A

The speed at which abrupt/full control movements will result in a stall before structural damage

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41
Q

Why is the Va not marked on the ASI?

A

It changes with weight, depends on the load factor.

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42
Q

The ASI displays ____

A

Indicated Air Speed (IAS)

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43
Q

IAS is referred to when discussing performance speeds such as:

A

Takeoff, landing, and stall speeds

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44
Q

True Airspeed takes into account

A

The density of the air

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45
Q

Is IAS or TAS more accurate?

A

TAS

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46
Q

What speed is important for navigational purposes?

A

True Air Speed

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47
Q

IAS will equal TAS only at_____

A

Sea level under standard conditions?

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48
Q

What does standard conditions refers to?

A

29.92 in in Hg and 15 deg. C

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49
Q

At higher altitude and aircraft must be flown at a higher ____ to maintain the same ____.

A

TAS, IAS

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50
Q

The difference between IAS and TAS is most noticeable when?

A

During takeoffs and landings at high altitude on warm days.

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51
Q

What is Calibrated Air Speed?

A

IAS corrected for installation and instrumentation errors

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52
Q

CAS can be determined from the _____

A

POH

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53
Q

Equivalent Air Speed is _____

A

Calibrated Air Speed corrected for compressibility errors.

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54
Q

When does EAS become a factor?

A

Above 200 kts

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55
Q

What is groundspeed?

A

TAS corrected for wind

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56
Q

TAS is the actual

A

speed through the air

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57
Q

With a tailwind, GS is _____ than TAS

A

Greater

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58
Q

With a headwind, GS is _____ than TAS

A

Less

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59
Q

When climbing with a blocked static port, the ASI will display a _____ than actual IAS

A

Lower

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60
Q

When descending with a blocked static port, the ASI will display a _____ than actual IAS

A

Greater

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61
Q

When climbing with a fully blocked pitot tube, the ASI will display a _____ than actual IAS.

A

Greater

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62
Q

When descending with a fully blocked pitot tube, the ASI will display a ______ than actual IAS.

A

Lower

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63
Q

With a partially blocked pitot tube, the ASI will eventually read _____

A

Zero

64
Q

The altimeter displays altitude above the _____

A

Average height of the ocean, mean sea level, MSL

65
Q

The altimeter must be set to a specific place and time, known as the ________

A

Kollsman window

66
Q

The value displayed by the altimeter is known as the ______

A

Indicated altitude

67
Q

The altimeter setting is the airport _______ corrected for _________

A

Barometric pressure, MSL pressure

68
Q

If the pressure at an airport 500 feet above MSL is 28.3, what is the altimeter setting?

A

28.8

69
Q

With the altimeter set to current conditions it should read within _____ feet of published field elevation.

A

75

70
Q

If MSL pressure is 30 in, what is the altimeter setting?

A

30

71
Q

In flight, to ensure accurate altimeter readings, the altimeter should be set to an appropriate setting for a current location within ____ miles.

A

100

72
Q

At altitudes greater than 18000 MSL, altimeters are set to ____

A

29.92

73
Q

Altitudes above 18000 MSL are referred to as _________

A

Flight levels

74
Q

21000 MSL =

A

FL210

75
Q

Pressure altitude is what the altimeter reads with what setting?

A

29.92

76
Q

What is one equation for calculating pressure altitude?

A

Field Elevation - (((Altimeter setting) - 29.92)*1000)

77
Q

Pressure altitude can also be referred to as the difference between indicated altitude and the _______

A

Standard datum plane

78
Q

The ASI and altimeter are unable to adjust for changes in ________

A

Air density

79
Q

Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for ________

A

Non standard temperature

80
Q

Temperature decreases ___ degrees C for every 1000 gain in elevation

A

2

81
Q

True Altitude is the ______

A

Actual height above MSL

82
Q

What altitude is displayed on navigational charts?

A

True altitude

83
Q

The only two condition when IA will equal TA are:

A

When standard atmospheric conditions exist in flight or when on the ground with the correct altimeter setting.

84
Q

Absolute altitude is _______

A

The actual height of an object above ground level (AGL).

85
Q

Four causes of error in the altimeter are:

A

Instrument error, Instrument lag, position error, and temperature error

86
Q

Position error refers to _______

A

Error from the position of the static port

87
Q

As the saying goes, high to low, ______, low to high, ________

A

Look out below, in the sky

88
Q

If the static port becomes blocked, the altimeter will read a ________

A

Constant altitude

89
Q

The Vertical Speed Indicator displays what?

A

Rate of climb or decent once stabilized

90
Q

Why does the VSI have 3-9 seconds of lag to display a stable rate of climb?

A

It measures the rate of static pressure change through use of a calibrated leak within the instrument

91
Q

If the static port becomes blocked, the VSI will read _____

A

0

92
Q

What two fundamental properties of gyroscopes are the operation of the gyro instruments based on?

A

Rigidity in space and Precession

93
Q

Describe a gyro:

A

A rotating, wheel shaped, heavy rimmed mass mounted within lighter rings known as gimbals which rotate around the center of mass freely.

94
Q

What does the principal if rigidity in space state:

A

Regardless of the position of its base, a gyro tends to remain spinning in its original plane with its axis of rotation pointed in a constant direction.

95
Q

What does precession refer to?

A

The reaction of the spinning center mass of a gyroscope to the application of a force. When the direction of the airplane changes a slight tilting of the gyro occurs, which is precession.

96
Q

What is the definition of precession?

A

A force applied to spinning object felt 90 degrees ahead in the direction of rotation.

97
Q

What gyroscopic principle does the attitude indicator use?

A

Rigidity in space

98
Q

What gyroscopic principal does the heading indicator use?

A

Rigidity in space

99
Q

What gyroscopic principal does the turn coordinator use?

A

Precession

100
Q

What powers the the turn coordinator?

A

The electric system

101
Q

What powers the attitude indicator?

A

The vacuum system

102
Q

What powers the heading indicator?

A

The vacuum system

103
Q

What provides suction for the vacuum system?

A

The vacuum pump

104
Q

What monitors the vacuum system?

A

The suction gauge

105
Q

What does the vacuum relief valve do?

A

Prevents excessive pressures within the system

106
Q

What is the only instrument that provides pitch and bank information?

A

The attitude indicator

107
Q

Does the gyro spin horizontally or vertically in the AI?

A

Horizontally

108
Q

Does the AI provide yaw information?

A

No

109
Q

The angle of bank scale on the AI is marked in ___ degree increments

A

10

110
Q

The angle of pitch scale on the AI is marked in ___ degree increments

A

5

111
Q

Is the AI affected by precession?

A

Yes

112
Q

When accelerating, the AI might show a small pitch ______

A

Up

113
Q

When decelerating, the AI might show a small pitch _____

A

Down

114
Q

An unusual or extreme attitude might cause the AI to _____

A

Tumble

115
Q

The AI should be erect and stable within ____ minutes of engine startup

A

5

116
Q

Should the AI indicate a pitch change during brake test?

A

Yes

117
Q

Around what axis does the gyro in the HI spin?

A

Horizontal

118
Q

Does the heading indicator seek magnetic north?

A

No

119
Q

How often should the HI be checked and reset?

A

Every 15 mins

120
Q

Why must the HI be reset?

A

Mechanical drift from precession caused by friction

121
Q

What does the turn coordinator indicate?

A

Rate of turn, rate of roll, and quality of turn

122
Q

What is a standard rate turn?

A

360 deg in 2 min = 3 deg per second

123
Q

What indicated the quality/coordination of the turn on the turn coordinator?

A

Inclinometer Ball

124
Q

Does the turn coordinator indicate bank angle?

A

No

125
Q

Why do light aircraft typically spin the TC electrically?

A

So that not all gyro instruments depend on the vacuum system

126
Q

During taxi turns, what should the TC indicate?

A

The TC wings should go in the direction of the turn while the ball should go in the opposite direction

127
Q

In a coordinated turn, the centrifugal force equals what?

A

The horizontal component of lift

128
Q

In a coordinated turn, where is the inclinometer ball?

A

Centered

129
Q

In a slipping turn, is the centrifugal force greater or less than the horizontal component of lift?

A

Less

130
Q

Where is the inclinometer ball in a slipping turn?

A

Toward the inside of the turn

131
Q

What does a slipping turn indicate?

A

The angle of bank is too great for the rate of turn

132
Q

Is a skidding turn a coordinated one?

A

No

133
Q

In a skidding turn, the centrifugal force is ____ than the horizontal component of lift.

A

Greater

134
Q

The inclinometer ball moves to the _____ of the turn in a skidding turn.

A

Outside

135
Q

A skidding turn indicates what?

A

Rate of turn too great for the angle of bank.

136
Q

What does the rate of turn refer to?

A

Number of degrees of heading changed per unit of time

137
Q

For a constant bank angle, if the velocity increases, the rate of turn ______

A

Decreases

138
Q

For a constant airspeed, if the angle of bank increases, the rate of turn ______

A

Increases

139
Q

For a constant bank angle, if airspeed increases, the radius of turn ____

A

Increases

140
Q

For a constant airspeed, if the angle of bank increases, the radius of turn ______

A

Decreases

141
Q

What is magnetic variation?

A

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north at a given location

142
Q

Charts reference ____ north, but pilots fly using _____ north

A

True, magnetic

143
Q

What is magnetic deviation?

A

Error from interference of electrical and magnetic fields generated within the aircraft.

144
Q

What does magnetic deviation cause?

A

The magnetic compass to not point directly to magnetic north

145
Q

Is deviation constant?

A

No, it varies from plane to plane and heading to heading.

146
Q

What is a deviation card?

A

A card posted near the magnetic compass displaying correction to be made to compass readings to compensate for deviation

147
Q

Where does magnetic dip occur?

A

Near the poles.

148
Q

The weight added to a compass to help with magnetic dip causes _______ when on _______ headings

A

Acceleration/deceleration East/west

149
Q

When accelerating on a easterly or westerly heading, the compass will turn to the _____

A

North

150
Q

ANDS stands for?

A

Acceleration North Deceleration South

151
Q

Do compass turning errors exist on the equator?

A

No

152
Q

When do compass turning errors increase?

A

When flying closer to the poles

153
Q

Are there turning errors when flying east and west headings?

A

No

154
Q

When rolling into or out of turns at northerly headings, the compass will ____

A

Lag

155
Q

The compass will ____ the actual heading when rolling into or out of southerly headings.

A

Lead

156
Q

What does UNOS stand for?

A

Undershoot north overshoot south

Aviation 2100 (15 decks)

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