AVN Regulations Flashcards
1
Q
The definition of night time is:
A
The time between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight.
2
Q
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:
A
Not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
3
Q
According to regulations pertaining to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may:
A
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with passengers, provided the expenses involve only fuel, oil, airport expenditures, or rental fees.
4
Q
What exception, if any, permits a private pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers who pay for the flight?
A
If a donation is made to a charitable organization for the flight.
5
Q
According to regulations pertainging to privileges and limitations, a recreational pilot may:
A
not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
6
Q
According to 14CFR 61.101:
A
In regard to privileges and limitations, a private pilot may not pay less than the pro rata share of the operating expenses of a flight with a passenger.
7
Q
When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command on a cross-country flight that exceeds 50 nm from the departure airport?
A
After receiving ground and flight instructions on cross-country training and a logbook endorsement.
8
Q
A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft that is certified for a maximum of how many occupants?
A
Four
9
Q
A recreational pilot may act as pilot in command of an aircraft with a maximum engine horsepower of:
A
180
10
Q
What exception, if any, permits a recreational pilot to act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying a passenger for hire?
A
There is no exception.
11
Q
May a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft in furtherance of a business?
A
No
12
Q
With respect to daylight hours, what is the earliest time a recreational pilot may take off?
A
At sunrise.
13
Q
If sunset is 2021 and the end of evening civil twilight is 2043, when must a recreational pilot terminate the flight?
A
2021.
14
Q
When may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command of an aircraft at night?
A
When obtaining an additional certificate or rating under the supervision of an authorized instructor, provided the surface visibility is at least 5 statute miles.
15
Q
When may a recreational pilot operate to or from an airport that lies within Class C airspace?
A
After receiving training and a logbook endorsement from an authorized instructor.
16
Q
Under what conditions may a recreational pilot operate at an airport that lies within Class D airspace and that has a part-time control tower in operation?
A
Between sunrise and sunset when the tower is closed, the ceiling is at least 1,000 feet, and the visibility is at least 3 miles.
17
Q
When may a recreational pilot fly above 10,000 feet MSL?
A
When 2,000 feet AGL or below.
18
Q
During daytime, what is the minimum flight or surface visibility required for recreational pilots in Class G airspace?
A
3 miles.
19
Q
During daytime, what is the minimum flight visibility required for recreational pilots in controlled airspace below 10,000 feet MSL?
A
3 miles.
20
Q
Under what conditions, if any, may a recreational pilot demonstrate an aircraft in flight to a prospective buyer?
A
None.
21
Q
When, if ever, may a recreational pilot act as pilot in command in an aircraft towing a banner?
A
It is not allowed.
22
Q
How many passengers is a recreational pilot allowed to carry on board?
A
1.
23
Q
When must a recreational pilot have a pilot in command flight check?
A
If the pilot as less than 400 total flight hours and has not flown as pilot in command in an aircraft within the preceding 180 days.
24
Q
A recreational pilot may fly as sole occupant of an aircraft at night while under the supervision of a flight instructor provided the flight or surface visibility is at least:
A
5 miles.
25
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for a recreational pilot in Class G airspace at 1,200 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
3 miles visibility and clear of clouds.
26
Outside controlled airspace, the minimum flight visibility requirements for a recreational pilot flying above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is:
3 miles.
27
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a category of aircraft?
Airplane, rotorcraft, glider, light than air.
28
With respect to the certification of airmen, which is a class of aircraft?
Single-engine land and sea, multiengine land and sea.
29
The pilot in command is required to hold a type rating in which aircraft?
Aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds.
30
A third class medical certificate was issued to a 19 year old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on:
August 31, 5 years later.
31
A third class medical certificate is issued to a 36 year old on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certification will be valid until midnight on:
August 31, 5 years later.
32
A third class medical certificate is issued to a 51 year old pilot on May 3, this year. To exercise the privileges of a private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will be valid until midnight on:
May 31, 2 years later
33
For private pilot operations, a second class medical certificate issued to a 42 year old pilot on July 15, this year, will expire at midnight on:
July 31, 2 years later.
34
For private pilot operations, a first class medical certificate issued to a 23 year old pilot on October 21, this year, will expire at midnight on:
October 31, 5 years later.
35
Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a glider rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what type of medical?
A medical certificate is not required.
36
Prior to becoming certified as a private pilot with a balloon rating, the pilot must have in his or her possession what class of medial?
A medical certificate is not required.
37
What document(s) must be in your personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft while operating as pilot in command of an aircraft?
An appropriate pilot certificate and an appropriate medical certificate if required.
(and a photo ID)
38
When must a current pilot certificate be in the pilot's personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft?
Anytime when acting as pilot in command or as a required crewmember.
39
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crew member, must have in their possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current:
Medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
40
Each person who holds a pilot certificate or a medical certificate shall present it for inspection upon the request of the administrator, the NTSB, or any:
Federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.
41
A recreational pilot acting as pilot in command must have in his or her personal possession while aboard the aircraft:
A current logbook endorsement that permits flights within 50 nm from the departure airport.
42
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, a pilot must show by logbook endorsement the satisfactory completion of a pilot proficiency check within the preceding:
24 calender months.
43
If recency of experience requirements for night flight are not met and official sunset is 1830, the latest time passengers may be carried is:
1929.
44
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings in an aircraft of the same category, class, and if a type rating is required, of the same type, within the preceding:
90 days.
45
To act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers, the pilot must have made three takeoffs and three landings withing the preceding 90 days in an aircraft of the same:
Category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.
46
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot in must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop in the preceding 90 days in:
The same category and class of aircraft to be used.
47
If a recreational or private pilot had a flight review on August 8, this year, when is the next flight review required?
August 31, 2 years later.
48
Each recreatinal or private pilot is required to have:
A biennial flight review.
49
The takeoffs and landings required to meet the recency of experience requirements for carrying passengers in a tailwheel airplane:
Must be a full stop.
50
The three takeoffs and landings that are required to act as pilot in command at night must be done during the time period from:
1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.
51
What is the definition of a high performance airplane?
An airplane with an engine of more than 200 horsepower.
52
Before a person holding a private pilot certificate may act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, that person must have:
Received ground and flight instruction from an authorized flight instructor who then endorses that person's logbook.
53
In order to act as pilot in command of a high performance airplane, a pilot must have:
Received and logged ground and flight instruction in an airplane that has more than 200 horsepower.
54
A certificated private pilot may not act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of:
100 hours of pilot in command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
55
To act as a pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider, a pilot is required to have made withing the preceding 24 months:
At least three actual or simulated glider tows while accompanied by a qualified pilot.
56
If a certified pilot changes permanent mailing address and fails to notify the FAA Airmen Certification Branch of the new address, the pilot is entitled to exercise the privileges of the pilot certificate for a period of only:
30 days after the date of the move.
57
The final authority as the the operation of an aircraft is the:
Pilot in command.
58
If an in-flight emergency requires immediate action, the pilot in command may:
Deviate from any rule of 14 CFR part 91 to the extent required to meet that emergency.
59
When must a pilot who deviates from a regulation during an emergency send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator?
Upon request.
60
Who is responsible for determining if an aircraft is in condition for safe flight?
The pilot in command.
61
The person directly responsible for the pre-launch briefing of passengers for a flight is the:
Pilot in command.
62
Which preflight action is specifically required of the pilot prior to each flight?
Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight.
63
Preflight action, as required for all flights away from the vicinity of an airport, shall include:
An alternate course of action if the flight cannot be completed as planned.
64
In addition to other preflight actions for a VFR flight away from the vicinity of the departure airport, regulations specifically require a pilot in command to:
Determine runway lengths at airports of intended use and the aircraft's takeoff and landing distance data.
65
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR at night in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 45 minutes at normal cruising speed.
66
What is the specific fuel requirement for flight under VFR during daylight hours in an airplane?
Enough to fly to the first point of intended landing and to fly after that for 30 minutes at normal cruising speed.
67
No person may begin a flight in a rotarcraft under VFR unless there is enough fuel to fly to the first intended point of landing and, assuming normal cruising speed, to fly thereafter for at least:
20 minutes.
68
Flight crewmembers are required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harness fastened during:
Takeoffs and landings.
69
Which best describes the flight conditions under which flight crew members are specifically required to keep their safety belts and shoulder harness fastened?
Safety belts during takeoff and landing and while en route; shoulder harness during takeoff and landing.
70
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?
The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
71
With certain exceptions, safety belts are required to be secured about passengers during:
Taxi, takeoffs, and landings.
72
Safety belts are required to be properly secured about which persons and when?
Passengers, during taxi, takeoff, and landings.
73
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding:
8 hours.
74
Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft?
In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care.
75
No person may attempt to act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft with:
.04 percent by weight or more alcohol in the blood.
76
How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?
No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.
77
Which aircraft has the right of way over all other air traffic?
An aircraft in distress.
78
What action is required when two aircraft of the same category converge, but not head on?
The aircraft on the left shall give way.
79
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed (Glider, airship, or aircraft refueling other aircraft)?
Glider.
80
An airplane and an airship are converging. If the airship is left of the airplane's position, which aircraft has the right of way?
The airship.
81
Which aircraft has the right of way over the other aircraft listed (gryroplane, airship, aircraft towing other aircraft)?
Aircraft towing other aircraft.
82
When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the right of way belongs to the aircraft:
At the lower altitude, but it shall not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of or to overtake another.
83
A seaplane and a motorboat are on crossing courses. If the motorboat is to the left of the seaplane, which has the right of way?
The seaplane.
84
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head on collision course?
Both pilots should give way to the right.
85
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight when:
Over any congested area of a city, town, or settlement.
86
In which class of airspace is acrobatic flight prohibited?
Class E airspace below 1500 feet AGL
(any class below 1500 feet AGL)
87
What is the lowest altitude permitted for acrobatic flight?
1,500 feet AGL.
88
No person may operate an aircraft in acrobatic flight then the flight visibility is less than:
3 miles.
89
A chair type parachute must have been packed by a certified and approprately rated parchute rigger within the preceding:
180 days.
90
An approved chair type parachute may be carried in an aircraft for emergency use if it has been packed by an appropriately rated parachute rigger within the preceding:
180 days.
91
With certain exceptions, when must each occupant of an aircraft wear an approved parachute?
When intentionally pitching the nose of the aircraft up or down 30 degrees or more.
(Or 60 degrees bank)
92
When at ATC clearance has been obtained, no pilot in command may deviate from that clearance. The one exception to this regulation is:
An emergency.
93
As pilot in command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?
In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.
94
What action, of any, is appropriate if the pilot deviates from an ATC instruction during an emergency and is given priority?
File a detailed report within 48 hours to the chief of the appropriate ATC facility, if requested.
95
An ATC clearance provides:
Authorization to proceed under specified traffic conditions in controlled airspace.
96
Except when necessary for takeoff and landings, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?
An altitude allowing, of a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.
97
Except when necessary for takeoff and landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over congested areas?
An altitude of 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizonatal radius of 2,000 feet.
98
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude required for a pilot to operate an aircraft over other than congested area?
An altitude of 500 feet AGL, except over open water or sparsely populated area, which requires 500 feet from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
99
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft may not be operated closer than what distance from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure?
500 feet.
100
During operation within controlled airspace at altitudes of less than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds requirement for VFR flight is:
2,000 feet.
101
What minimum flight visibilty is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?
3 miles.
102
The minimum distance from clouds required for VFR operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL is:
500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontally.
103
During operations within controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is:
1,000 feet.
104
VFR flight in controled airspace above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL requires a minimum visibility and vertical cloud clearance of:
3 miles, and 500 feet below or 1,000 feet above the clouds in controlled airspace.
105
The minimum flight visibility required for VFR flights above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL in controlled air spave is:
5 miles.
106
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is:
1 mile.
107
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirment for VFR flight is:
1,000 feet.
108
What minimum visibility and clearance from clouds are required for VFR operations in Class G airspace at 700 feet AGL or below during daylight hours?
1 mile visibility and clear of clouds.
109
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum flight visibility requirements for VFR flight at night is:
3 miles.
110
Outside controlled airspace, the minimium flight visibility requirements for VFR flight above 1,200 feet AGL and below 10,000 feet MSL during daylight hours is:
1 mile.
111
During operations outside controlled airspace at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL, but less than 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance below clouds requirement for VFR flight is:
500 feet.
112
No person may take off or land an aircraft under basic VFR at an airport that lies within Class D airspace unless:
Ground visibility at the airport is at least 3 miles.
113
The basic VFR weather minimums for operating an aircraft within Class D airspace are:
1,000 foot ceiling and 3 miles visibility.
114
A special VFR clearance authorizes the pilot of an aircraft to operate VFR while within Class D airspace when the visiblity:
At least 1 mile and the aircraft can remain clear of clouds.
115
What is the minimum weather condition required for airplanes operating under special VFR in Class D airspace?
1 mile flight visibility.
116
Under what conditions, if any, may a private pilot operate a helicopter under special VFR at night within Class D airspace?
There are no conditions, regulations permit this.
117
What are the minimum requirments for airplane operations under special VFR in Class D airspace at night?
The pilot must be instrument rated, and the airplane must be IFR equipped.
118
No person may operate an airplane within Class D airspace at night under special VFR unless the:
Airplane is equipped for instrument flight.
119
What ATC facility should the pilot contact to receive special VFR clearance in Class D airspace?
Air traffic control tower.
120
Which cruising altitude is appropriate for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 135 degrees?
Odd thousands plus 500 feet.
121
Which VFR cruising altitude is acceptable for a flight on a victor airway with magnetic course of 175 degrees: (4,500, 5,000, or 5,500 feet)
5,500 feet.
122
Which VFR cruising altitude is appropriate when flying above 3,000 feet AGL on a magnetic course course of 185 degrees: (4,000, 4,500, 5,000 feet)
4,500 feet.
123
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500 foot altitude while on a:
Magnetic course of 0 through 179 degrees.
124
With respect to the certification of the aircraft, which is a category of aircraft:
Normal, utility, acrobatic
125
With respect to the certification of aircraft, which is a class of aircraft?
Aircraft, rotorcraft, glider, balloon.
126
Unless otherwise specifically authorized, no person may operate an aircraft that had an experimental certificate:
Over a densely populated area or in a congested airway.
127
Which is normally prohibited when operating a restricted category civil aircraft?
Flight over a densely populated area.
128
No person may operate an aircraft in formation flight:
Except by prior arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft.
129
Under what conditions may objects be dropped from an aircraft?
If precautions are taken to avoid injury or damage to persons or property on the surface.
130
How should a VFR flight plan be closed at the completion of the flight at a controlled airport?
The pilot must close the flight plan with the nearest FSS or other FAA facility upon landing.
131
Unless otherwise authorized, what is the maximum indicated airspeed at which a person may operate an aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL?
250 kts
132
Unless otherwise authorized, the maximum indicated airspeed at which aircraft may be flown when at or below 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 nm of the primary airport of Class C airspace is:
200 kts.
133
When flying in the airspace underlying Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is:
200 kts.
134
When flying in a VFR corridor designated through Class B airspace, the maximum speed authorized is:
200 kts.
135
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found?
In the current, FAA approved flight manual, approved manual material, markings, and placards, or any combination thereof.
136
Where may an aircraft's operating limitations be found if the aircraft has an Experimental or Special light-sport air worthiness certificate?
In the current, FAA approved flight manual.
137
In addition to a valid Airworthiness Certificate, what documents or records must be aboard an aircraft during flight?
Operating limitations and Registration Certificate.
138
How long does the Airworthiness Certificate of an aircraft remain valid?
As long as the aircraft is maintained and operated as required by the Federal Aviation Regulations.
139
The responsibility for ensuring that an aircraft is maintained in an airworthy condition is primarily that of the:
Owner or operator.
140
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and:
Review of the maintenance records.
141
The responsibility for ensuring that maintenance personnel make the appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service lies with the:
Owner or operator.
142
Who is resonsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service:
Owner or operator.
143
Completion of an annual condition inspection and the return of the aircraft to service should always be indicated by:
An appropriate notation in the aircraft maintenance records.
144
An aircraft's annual condition inspection was performed on July 12, this year. The next annual inspection will be due no later than:
July 31, next year.
145
To determine the expiration date of the last annual aircraft inspection, a person should refer to the:
Aircraft maintenance records.
146
What aircraft inspections are required for rental aircraft that are also used for flight instruction:
Annual condition and 100-hour inspections.
147
No person may use an ATC transponder unless it has been tested and inspected within at least the preceding:
24 calender months.
148
Maintenance records show the last transponder inspection was performed on Septemeber 1, 2010. The next inspection will be due no later than:
September 30, 2012.
149
Preventive maintenance has been performed on an aircraft. What paperwork is required?
The signature, certificate number, and kind of certificate held by the person approving the work and a description of the work must be entered in the aircraft maintenance records.
150
What regulation allows a private pilot to perform preventive maintenance?
14 CFR Part 43.7
151
Who may perform preventive maintenance on an aircraft and approve it for return to service?
Private or commercial pilot.
| (Not sport or recreational)
152
Which operation can be described as preventive maintenance?
Replenishing hydraulic fluid.
153
If an alteration or repair substantially affects an aircraft's operation in flight, that aircraft must be test flown by an appropriately rated pilot and approved for return to service prior to being operated:
With passengers aboard.
154
Before passengers can be carried in an aircraft that has been atered in a manner that may have appreciably changed its flight characteristics, it must be flight tested by an appropriately rated pilot who holds at least a:
Private pilot certificate.
155
An aircraft had a 100-hour inspection when the tachometer read 1259.6. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
1359.6.
156
A 100-hour inspection was due at 3302.5 hours. The 100-hour inspection was actually done at 3309.5 hours. When is the next 100-hour inspection due?
3402.5 hours.
157
Which records or documents shall the owner or operator of an aircraft keep to show compliance with an applicable Airworthiness Directive?
Aircraft maintenance records.
158
What should an owner or operator know about Airworthiness Directives (AD's):
They are mandatory.
159
May a pilot operate an aircraft that is not in compliance with an Airworthiness Directive?
Yes, if allowed by the AD.
160
Who is responsible for ensuring Airworthiness Directives are complied wih:
Owner or operator.
161
What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication:
Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
162
FAA advisory circulars (some free, others at cost) are available to all pilots and are obtained by:
Ordering those desired from the Government Printing Office.
163
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Airmen are issued under which subject number:
60.
164
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to airspace are issued under which subject number:
70.
165
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number:
90.
166
If an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage to the aircraft, the nearest NTSB field office should be notified:
Immediately.
167
Which incident requires an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office?
Flight control system malfunction or failure.
(Not forced landing or hard landing)
168
Which incident would necessitate an immediate notification to the nearest NTSB field office:
An in flight fire.
(Not generator failure or loss of VOR receiver)
169
Which incident requires immediate notification be made to the nearest NTSB field office:
An overdue aircraft that is believed to be involved in an accident.
(Not in flight radio or generator failure)
170
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody:
Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
171
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?
10.
172
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an incident is required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB:
When requested.
