Procedures Flashcards

1
Q

What is the purpose of the Physical Asset Management document?

A

This document provides procedures for managing the Department’s physical assets.

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2
Q

What are some corresponding policies related to Physical Asset Management?

A

Policies include: Physical Asset Management, Use of Department-Owned and Personal Property, Use of Personal Communication Devices, Use of Department-Owned Vehicles, and Non-Official Use of Department Property.

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3
Q

Who should establish an inventory-control system for physical assets?

A

The Fire Chief or the authorized designee should establish an accurate inventory-control and record-keeping system.

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4
Q

How can asset counts be managed when developing a new inventory control system?

A

Asset counts can be divided into smaller tasks and spread out over time.

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5
Q

What approach may be used to determine which capital assets to count first?

A

A risk-based approach may be used to prioritize asset counts based on the risk of loss.

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6
Q

What should be done upon acquisition of a new physical asset?

A

An inventory record should be created and the appropriate information documented before placing the asset into operation.

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7
Q

How often should an inventory review of physical assets be conducted?

A

An inventory review should be conducted at least annually.

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8
Q

What is the purpose of the inventory review?

A

The purpose is to maintain an accurate and complete record of department physical assets.

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9
Q

Who supervises the initial inventory and inventory reviews?

A

Both should be supervised by a person designated by the Fire Chief or the authorized designee.

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10
Q

How should the disposal of physical assets be recorded?

A

Members responsible for recording the disposal should use the inventory-control and record-keeping system.

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11
Q

What should members do if they experience loss, damage, or destruction of physical assets?

A

They should report it to their commanding officer, the Fire Chief, the appropriate committee chairperson, or the authorized designee.

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12
Q

How should surplus or obsolete assets be handled?

A

They should be identified and classified as surplus or obsolete and stored or disposed of by the Fire Chief or the authorized designee.

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13
Q

What is mentioned about corresponding procedures?

A

Corresponding procedures include Purchasing and Procurement.

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14
Q

What laws relate to Purchase Orders?

A

Title 62 – Purchase order Law Sec.310.1-310.9

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15
Q

Is a Purchase Requisition required?

A

It is up to the department if they require Purchase Requisitions.

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16
Q

What are the steps in the Purchase Order flow?

A

(a) Requisition
(b) Vendor/items/amounts/dept/price – if required by dept
(c) Request for Purchase (Dept level)
(d) Encumbering Clerk creates PO with detailed information & remarks
(e) Purchasing Officer/Agent approval
(f) Order of goods or service is placed
(g) Order is received, checked (against P.O & receiving device) & receiving advice or invoice is signed
(h) Submit PO, Invoice & Delivery ticket for payment
(i) Check is mailed

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17
Q

When must Purchase Orders be created?

A

Purchase Orders must be created at the time of commitment. This is the law for government purchases & management policy for public trust.

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18
Q

What should be done if the exact amount is not known at the time of Purchase Order creation?

A

An estimated amount may be used & the encumbrance made.

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19
Q

What must be included in the line description of a Purchase Order?

A

Item description must be put in the line description. If the purchase or purpose cannot be determined, remarks are required.

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20
Q

What is the Encumbrance clause?

A

I hereby certify that the amount of this encumbrance has been entered against the designated appropriation accounts and that this encumbrance is within the authorized balance of said appropriation. Legal level is Department.

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21
Q

Who must sign a Purchase Order for it to be valid?

A

The Encumbering Clerk and the Purchasing Agent/Officer. If the invoice received is more than 10% over the original Purchase Order amount, a second signature is required by the Purchasing Agent/Officer.

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22
Q

What happens after satisfactory delivery of merchandise?

A

The supplier shall deliver an invoice. An invoice is required for a Purchase Order to be processed for payment.

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23
Q

What are the requirements for an invoice?

A

Invoices shall state:
- Supplier’s name and address
- Must be sufficiently itemized to clearly describe each item purchased, its unit price, where applicable, the number or volume of each item purchased
- Total item price
- Total of the invoice purchase & date of the purchase

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24
Q

What must an employee do upon receiving an order?

A

The employee receiving satisfactory delivery of merchandise shall acknowledge such fact by signing the invoice or delivery ticket. NO Purchase Order shall be approved for payment unless the required signed invoice and the delivery ticket are attached.

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25
Q

What supporting documentation is required for a Purchase Order?

A

Supporting documentation includes:
- Signed Purchase Order
- Invoice
- Delivery Ticket (if there is one)
- Travel Request (for training PO’s)
- Requisition (if department requires one)

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26
Q

What if the invoice amount is higher than the encumbrance?

A

If the invoice is 10% more than the original encumbrance, the Invoice and the PO must be initialed by the Purchasing Officer/Agent before it can be paid.

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27
Q

What if the invoice amount is lower than the encumbrance?

A

You do not need to go into the system and reduce the amount of the PO. Mark through the original amount on the front of the PO and write in the amount of the invoice.

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28
Q

When are Purchase Orders due?

A

Purchase Orders are due Monday before noon in the Accounts Payable office for an invoice to be paid on Thursday.

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29
Q

What is required for vendor numbers?

A

The IRS requires the City to obtain & have on file a W-9 for all vendors. A vendor cannot be created without a W-9 being received by AP for entry into the accounting system.

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30
Q

What should be verified on a Purchase Order?

A

Please verify that you have the correct vendor number on the Purchase Order. There are some vendors that have multiple numbers.

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31
Q

What should be done if there is a remittance address change?

A

Please put a sticky note or highlight the new address on the invoice.

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32
Q

What is the policy regarding sales tax?

A

The city does not pay sales tax. Please make sure that sales tax is not charged on the invoice.

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33
Q

When must a Purchase Order be created for credit card purchases?

A

The PO must be created when the commitment is made. This is the Law.

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34
Q

What is the purpose of the document on report writing and documentation?

A

This document provides procedures for preparing reports and other documentation required by the Department.

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35
Q

What are some corresponding policies related to report writing?

A

Administrative Communications, Post-Incident Analysis, National Fire Incident Reporting System, Fire Investigations, Pre-Hospital Care Reports, Performance Evaluation, Personnel Complaints.

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36
Q

What is the first step in the initial steps of report writing?

A

Determine whether a government, agency, or other form exists.

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37
Q

What should be done if there is no applicable form for a report?

A

Refer to the relevant policy or procedure to ensure that all necessary facts and information are gathered and documented.

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38
Q

What basic rule should be followed when gathering facts and information?

A

Follow the basic rule of who, what, when, where, why, how, and how many.

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39
Q

What should reports aim to provide the reader?

A

The report should give the reader as complete a picture as possible of the subject of the report.

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40
Q

What are common forms of written communication in the fire service?

A

Memorandums (memos) and electronic communications.

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41
Q

What should a memorandum include?

A

Title, heading (TO, FROM, DATE, SUBJECT, RELEVANT POLICY/PROCEDURE), introduction, body, conclusion, and any additional documentation required by policy/procedure.

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42
Q

What elements should be included in an EMS narrative?

A

Dispatch and response summary, scene summary, initial patient assessment, interventions, status change, safety summary, and disposition.

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43
Q

What is the SOAP format used for in report writing?

A

The SOAP template is a simple guide to help format a report narrative.

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44
Q

What does ‘S’ stand for in the SOAP format?

A

Subjective information: This is what you were dispatched to or what the patient tells you.

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45
Q

What does ‘O’ stand for in the SOAP format?

A

Objective information: This is what you observed first hand and things that we can measure.

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46
Q

What does ‘A’ stand for in the SOAP format?

A

Assessment: This is what you determined the situation was.

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47
Q

What does ‘P’ stand for in the SOAP format?

A

Plan: This is what you did or directed.

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48
Q

What is required in a fire investigation report?

A

A detailed summary of the incident, list of participating investigators, description of the structure or vehicle, observations, witness interviews, evidence collected, analysis of origin and cause, and conclusion.

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49
Q

What should be included in personnel change reports?

A

Name of the member, reference to policies, reason for the change, effective date, duration, and confirmation that all applicable policies were followed.

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50
Q

What are some universal practices for report writing?

A

Reports may be public records, should be written in first person and active voice, use clear and concise sentences, correct grammar, avoid jargon, proofread, and not cut and paste from other reports.

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51
Q

What is the purpose of the Petty Cash Fund?

A

The Petty Cash Fund is established to reimburse employees for minor expenses incurred for official City business.

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52
Q

What is the maximum reimbursement amount from the Petty Cash Fund?

A

Employees may request reimbursement for items up to $30.00.

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53
Q

What must a receipt submitted for reimbursement include?

A

A receipt must only include items purchased for the City; receipts with both City and personal items are not eligible.

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54
Q

What is required for purchases totaling more than $30.00?

A

Purchases over $30.00 must have signed approval from the Finance Director or Deputy Finance Director prior to reimbursement.

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55
Q

Who must sign all requests for reimbursement?

A

All requests must be signed by the employee’s Department Head or Supervisor.

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56
Q

What is the timeframe for submitting reimbursement requests?

A

Requests must be made within ten (10) days from the date of the receipt.

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57
Q

What must an employee provide to receive reimbursement?

A

An employee must furnish an original, itemized, dated receipt to the Accounts Receivable Clerk.

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58
Q

What information must an itemized receipt contain?

A

An itemized receipt must include the vendor’s printed name, amount paid, service rendered, date paid, and number of persons using the service.

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59
Q

What is required if a receipt is not available?

A

A Missing Detailed Receipt/Invoice Affidavit must be completed and approved by the Finance Director.

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60
Q

What incidental expenses are allowed through petty cash?

A

Incidental expenses include fuel and parking expenses, meal expenses during travel/training, supplies for City business, and certain minor purchases.

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61
Q

Who verifies the information on the receipt before reimbursement?

A

The Accounts Receivable Clerk verifies the information against the requested amount of cash.

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62
Q

What happens after cash is released to the recipient?

A

The recipient signs the petty cash slip to confirm receipt, and the Accounts Receivable Clerk will sign and attach the receipt.

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63
Q

How often does the Accounts Receivable Clerk reconcile the petty cash account?

A

Reconciliation occurs at least monthly to verify remaining cash plus attached receipts.

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64
Q

What is done after the reconciliation of the petty cash account?

A

Receipts are submitted to the Accounts Payable Coordinator for a check to replenish the fund.

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65
Q

Who conducts periodic petty cash audits?

A

The Finance Director or designee conducts periodic audits to ensure proper management of the fund.

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66
Q

What is Constant Manning?

A

Constant Manning is the term used by the Midwest City Fire Department to define the need for overtime staffing for Operation personnel.

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67
Q

What is the purpose of Constant Manning?

A

The purpose is to maintain an effective Emergency Response Force by detailing the process to determine and fill positions as needed.

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68
Q

Is participation in Constant Manning mandatory?

A

Participation in Constant Manning is voluntary and not equivalent to Mandatory Call Back.

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69
Q

What are the corresponding policies related to Constant Manning?

A

The corresponding policies include Minimum Staffing Levels, Overtime, and Vacation Leave and Personal Days Off.

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70
Q

When may Constant Manning be implemented?

A

Constant Manning may be implemented due to shortages of personnel from unscheduled leave or excessive pre-scheduled events.

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71
Q

What information is kept on the Constant Manning card?

A

The card includes the member’s name, position, contact phone number, date contacted, initials of caller, hours worked, location, and date needed to work.

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72
Q

How are the Constant Manning cards arranged?

A

Cards are arranged per shift and grouped by Company Officer, Apparatus Operator, and Firefighter.

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73
Q

What is the minimum work hour guarantee for Constant Manning?

A

There is no guarantee for the minimum hours of work; however, a member’s card will not be moved if their shift is less than 12 hours.

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74
Q

How does the Shift Commander select the shift for Constant Manning?

A

The Shift Commander determines which shift will be off duty the day after the Constant Manning takes place.

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75
Q

What happens if the Shift Commander cannot find personnel for Constant Manning?

A

If unsuccessful, they may work below the minimum staffing level or use Mandatory Call Back.

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76
Q

What is the notification process for Constant Manning?

A

The Shift Commander sends a text message using the Everbridge® call back system, allowing a minimum of ten minutes before moving to the next step.

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77
Q

How are members notified of Constant Manning shifts?

A

Members who accept Constant Manning will have their card filled out and rotated to the back of the card index, with a follow-up message sent.

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78
Q

What is the process for selecting the Constant Manning position?

A

A member of the same position shall replace the position that created the need for Constant Manning when possible.

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79
Q

What notice is required for cancellation of Constant Manning?

A

A minimum of twelve hours notice should be given if manning levels change to cancel Constant Manning.

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80
Q

What happens if cancellation is made within twelve hours?

A

The member may work four hours of Constant Manning or elect to go home without compensation, with their card moved to the front of the index.

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81
Q

What is expected of a member who accepts a Constant Manning assignment?

A

The member is responsible to report for duty as if it were their normal job assignment and is subject to all policies and procedures.

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82
Q

What is the purpose of the Guide to Interpersonal Skills?

A

This document provides guidance for supervisory personnel and members to develop interpersonal skills. It is a tool for developing positive communication between members when not operating on emergency scenes.

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83
Q

What are the corresponding policies related to the Guide to Interpersonal Skills?

A

Conduct and Behavior, Performance Evaluations, Personnel Complaints, Post-Incident Analysis.

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84
Q

What should interpersonal values demonstrate?

A

Interpersonal values should demonstrate the member’s commitment to functional relationships in the workplace.

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85
Q

Who should interpersonal values be practiced between?

A

Between supervisors and subordinates, those equal in rank, the member and the public, and the member and other municipal employees.

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86
Q

What are some outcomes of practicing interpersonal values?

A

Improve workplace culture, build trust, build respect, minimize conflict, demonstrate leadership, improve member performance, build an attitude of teamwork, and reduce risk in the fire station and on the fireground.

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87
Q

What does being transparent involve for supervisors?

A

Supervisors should be honest and open with their crews and share non-confidential information about the Department.

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88
Q

How should supervisors encourage communication?

A

Encourage two-way communication and feedback from crews and subordinates on administrative decisions.

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89
Q

What is the key to clear verbal communication?

A

Communicate orders and directives calmly, clearly, and firmly.

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90
Q

What should be included in constructive feedback?

A

Make constructive feedback part of all conversations and discuss discipline directly and respectfully.

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91
Q

What should members be aware of regarding nonverbal communication?

A

All members should be aware of the power and impact of their nonverbal communication and how to read others’ nonverbal cues.

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92
Q

What are some examples of positive nonverbal communication?

A

Maintaining eye contact conveys honesty and confidence; good posture encourages discussion.

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93
Q

What is active listening?

A

Active listening involves paying attention, using eye contact, giving feedback, and demonstrating empathy.

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94
Q

How should supervisors set expectations?

A

Ensure members understand expectations by emphasizing adherence to policies and procedures and communicating additional expectations clearly.

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95
Q

What are potential causes of workplace conflict?

A

Poor communication, weakly communicated directives, lack of tolerance for differences, personal stress, improper use of authority, and subjective treatment.

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96
Q

How should supervisors address workplace conflicts?

A

Address conflicts as soon as they arise, determine if they are covered by policy, and hold discussions to reach understanding.

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97
Q

What should be documented according to the guide?

A

Members should complete any documentation or record-keeping required by corresponding policies or procedures.

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98
Q

What are the corresponding procedures mentioned in the guide?

A

Administrative Investigations and Interviews, Personnel Evaluations.

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99
Q

What is the purpose of the Operational Readiness document?

A

This document provides readiness procedures for Midwest City Fire Department personnel to be implemented at the start of each shift.

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100
Q

What should the Company Officer do at the start of each shift?

A

Conduct roll call, provide a staffing report to the Shift Commander, outline tasks for the shift, and inspect personnel accountability materials.

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101
Q

What is the responsibility of the Shift Commander regarding staffing?

A

The Shift Commander should ensure all companies are staffed per department policy.

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102
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Shift Commander?

A

The Shift Commander is responsible for every station, apparatus, and member assigned to his/her battalion, prioritizing resource assignment and status checks.

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103
Q

What should the Company Officer prioritize?

A

Instructing firefighters on responsibilities, supervising task completion, and directing repairs or replacements of equipment.

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104
Q

What is the role of the Apparatus Operator?

A

Conduct daily inspections of all apparatus to ensure safe operational status.

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105
Q

What should be done if an apparatus is inoperative?

A

The Company Officer should be notified immediately, and if deemed unsafe, the apparatus should be removed from service.

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106
Q

What are the requirements for firefighters?

A

Inspect personal protective equipment, test self-contained breathing apparatus, understand emergency response responsibilities, and comply with accountability systems.

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107
Q

What should firefighters do regarding tools and equipment?

A

Inspect tools assigned to their unit and assist the apparatus operator with inspections.

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108
Q

What is the responsibility of firefighters when the apparatus is backing in or out?

A

Serve as a spotter for the apparatus operator.

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109
Q

What should firefighters do after each call regarding the vehicle exhaust removal system?

A

Reconnect the vehicle exhaust removal system, assigned to the firefighter closest to the apparatus exhaust.

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110
Q

What is the purpose of the Incident Management procedures?

A

To provide for the safety of personnel, improve resource use and tactical effectiveness, and meet OSHA/EPA and NFPA regulations.

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111
Q

What does ICS stand for?

A

Incident Command System.

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112
Q

What is the definition of ICS?

A

A combination of facilities, equipment, personnel, procedures, and communications operating within a common organizational structure for incident management.

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113
Q

What is the communication protocol for radio communications?

A

All communications shall be in clear text, avoiding 10 codes.

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114
Q

What should the first arriving officer do at an emergency scene?

A

Assume command, provide a situation report, establish a command position, evaluate the situation, and develop an action plan.

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115
Q

What is required for the transfer of command?

A

It must be carried out in person, with a briefing on current activities and conditions.

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116
Q

When should command be transferred?

A

If the current IC is needed for other activities or if a more qualified officer arrives.

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117
Q

What are the command options when a command officer arrives?

A

The command officer assumes command and establishes a fixed command post.

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118
Q

What is the preferred method of command during complex incidents?

A

Command from a fixed position.

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119
Q

What is the maximum number of subordinates one incident commander should manage?

A

Five, with seven being the maximum.

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120
Q

What is the standard geographic designation for a structure?

A

The side facing the street is designated side ‘A’, with remaining sides designated B, C, and D in a clockwise manner.

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121
Q

What is the staging process for emergency vehicles?

A

Unassigned units shall be located within a staging area until given an assignment or released.

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122
Q

What is the purpose of the Structure Fire Incident Command and Management document?

A

It provides arrival and on-scene procedures to establish command for Midwest City Fire Department units responding to structure fire incidents.

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123
Q

Who establishes incident command upon arrival at a multiple unit response?

A

The initial arriving unit establishes incident command and is referred to as IC 1.

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124
Q

What is the primary goal of IC 1?

A

To prioritize and assign first arriving companies to tactics addressing life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.

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125
Q

What should IC 1 do before providing an initial radio report?

A

IC 1 should ‘clear the air’ by contacting dispatch prior to their report.

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126
Q

What is the procedure if IC 1 identifies a known victim?

A

IC 1 should communicate this and instruct the next unit to take command.

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127
Q

What should IC 1 do after the initial radio report if conditions allow?

A

Conduct a 360 walk around for improved size up and assessment of the structure.

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128
Q

What is the initial incident action plan based on?

A

It is based on the initial and follow-up assessment of the incident by IC 1.

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129
Q

What is the role of IC 2 upon arrival of the Shift Commander?

A

IC 2 evaluates if initial tactics align with the incident objectives of life safety, incident stabilization, and property conservation.

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130
Q

What should IC 2 do before assuming command from IC 1?

A

IC 2 should conduct a 360 for improved size up and assessment of the incident.

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131
Q

How does IC 2 formalize command after assuming it from IC 1?

A

IC 2 formalizes command by radio consistent with the command transfer on the Tactical Worksheet.

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132
Q

What is critical for the effectiveness of an incident commander?

A

Maintaining an appropriate span of control.

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133
Q

What does NFPA 1710 recommend for incident management?

A

At least two members dedicated to incident management for incidents beyond the initial alarm assignment.

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134
Q

What is the purpose of establishing Divisions and Groups?

A

To support overall incident safety by increasing accountability, supervision, and communication while reducing the span of control.

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135
Q

What should the IC provide to a Division/Group Supervisor?

A

Boundaries, Resources, and Objectives.

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136
Q

What is the Operations Section responsible for?

A

Coordinating actions of branches, divisions, and groups as incidents grow beyond the initial resource dispatch.

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137
Q

Who is the primary supervisor of the Operations Division?

A

The Shift Commander.

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138
Q

What is the purpose of the Unified Command document?

A

It provides the procedures for establishing a unified command for the Midwest City Fire Department operating at a multi-agency and/or multi-jurisdictional incident.

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139
Q

What policies correspond to the Unified Command document?

A

Incident Management and National Incident Management (NIMS) Training.

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140
Q

What should the first arriving unit do in the first five minutes?

A

Contact Emergency Communications Center and provide information including unit on-scene, initial scene size-up, primary staging area, and unit assuming incident command.

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141
Q

What information should be advised regarding Unified Command?

A

Advise that the incident requires establishment of a Unified Command and identify the initial required UC departments or agencies, and the location of an initial command post.

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142
Q

What is the responsibility of personnel accountability in Unified Command?

A

Personnel accountability remains the responsibility of each agency.

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143
Q

What should the Unified Command do?

A

Select a spokesperson, set priorities and objectives, develop an Incident Action Plan, develop a Communications Plan, account for capabilities and constraints, and adopt an overall strategy.

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144
Q

What requirements must the Midwest City Fire Department satisfy to participate in a UC in another jurisdiction?

A

Have authority or functional responsibility, an area of responsibility affected by the incident, authority for commanding or managing a major aspect of the response, and resources to support participation.

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145
Q

What qualifications should the department UC representative(s) have?

A

Be trained in the Incident Command System, have decision-making authority for the duration of the incident, authority to commit and direct resources, and maintain required credentials.

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146
Q

See page 41 of procedure 303.4 for procedure decision tree flow chart.

A
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147
Q

What is the purpose of search procedures in a structure fire?

A

To prioritize life by locating and occupying all searchable areas within a structure fire, including searching for victims and fire location.

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148
Q

What is included in the Search Size-Up?

A

Time of day and alarm response.

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149
Q

What information is gathered from dispatch by responding units?

A

Reporting party statements, fire origin, and reports of victims.

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150
Q

What should responding units note on the iPad?

A

Occupancy type, era, pre-plan information, and responding units’ locations.

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151
Q

What is the protocol for known victims with known locations?

A

Report of victim(s) trapped with their location by a reporting party or dispatch.

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152
Q

How should positive reports of victims be handled?

A

Quickly investigated to prioritize the area of search within a structure.

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153
Q

What is the expectation regarding unknown victims?

A

All incidents are expected to include victims until the structure is cleared by fire department personnel.

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154
Q

How should negative reports of victims be communicated?

A

They will not be repeated face to face or over the air, as they do not impact search priority.

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155
Q

What is the priority assignment on the fireground?

A

Search tactics, combined with fire attack and ventilation, support the primary incident objective of life safety.

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156
Q

Who assigns resources for search operations?

A

The incident commander sizes up the structure and assigns the appropriate number of resources.

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157
Q

What is the role of the search team leader?

A

To communicate additional resource needs to command.

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158
Q

What is the typical assignment for a secondary search?

A

It will typically be assigned to a different company than the primary search.

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159
Q

When can a structure be benchmarked ‘all clear’?

A

Only after a secondary search has been completed.

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160
Q

What is the priority when performing a search?

A

To locate both life and fire.

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161
Q

What factors are considered during the Search Size-up?

A

Occupancy, layout, era, type, current fire conditions, and suppression/ventilation tactics.

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162
Q

What should the search team do when searching in front of a hose line?

A

Locate the fire, communicate its location with fire attack, and isolate/extinguish if possible.

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163
Q

What is a Primary Search?

A

An immediate and rapid search of a structure for life in any area that can be occupied by a firefighter in full PPE.

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164
Q

What is a Window Entry Search?

A

A technique used to start a primary search from a beneficial entry point based on the Search Size-up.

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165
Q

What is a Large Area or Disoriented Search?

A

A primary search in a structure with increased likelihood of disorientation, using an anchored technique.

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166
Q

What is the Fire Attack Team Search/Heel Search?

A

A search performed by the Fire Attack Team while advancing the initial attack line, focusing on the immediate area of hose line travel.

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167
Q

What is a Secondary Search?

A

A thorough search for life that includes all areas requiring primary search, conducted after initial fire suppression and adequate visibility.

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168
Q

What is the responsibility of the search team regarding communication?

A

To communicate their entry point and completed searches to incident command.

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169
Q

How should search teams maintain accountability when splitting?

A

By voice or vision.

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170
Q

What is established when multiple crews are assigned to a search?

A

A search group with a search group supervisor.

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171
Q

What should be prioritized when searching a structure with an unknown fire location?

A

Locating the fire and communicating its location to fire attack.

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172
Q

What is the protocol for structures during a defensive incident?

A

All structures will have a high priority to be searched unless declared defensive after completing a 360.

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173
Q

What is a contraindication of a Window Entry Search?

A

Positive pressure ventilation.

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174
Q

How can crews isolate an area with a missing door?

A

By removing other doors from within the structure or using other materials.

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175
Q

What is the purpose of the fire attack procedure?

A

The purpose is to provide guidance on fire control and extinguishment options for tactical consideration.

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176
Q

What is the highest strategic priority during a fire attack?

A

Rescue is the highest strategic priority.

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177
Q

What may be the highest tactical priority during a fire attack?

A

Fire attack may be the highest tactical priority, especially to protect rescue operations or slow a rapidly escalating fire.

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178
Q

What is the objective of fire control?

A

To control fire extension and limit fire growth.

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179
Q

What is the optimal technique for external exposures during fire control?

A

Direct application of water to surfaces to absorb radiant heat.

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180
Q

What is the primary tactical objective of interior advancement?

A

To cool and control smoke temperature and radiant heat to increase safety for unprotected occupants and firefighters.

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181
Q

What should firefighters avoid during interior advancement?

A

Advancing under a superheated thermal layer without cooling ahead.

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182
Q

What is the primary goal of extinguishment?

A

Direct and total fire control.

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183
Q

What is the ideal position for applying water during extinguishment?

A

The air intake side of the flow path.

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184
Q

What is the primary tactical objective of post control hydraulic ventilation?

A

To immediately begin improving interior tenability following extinguishment.

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185
Q

What are the benefits of hydraulic ventilation?

A

Local control for ventilation, environmental cooling effects, and readiness to address rekindle or adverse effects.

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186
Q

What is the reference for the fire attack procedure?

A

NFPA 1700 Guide for Structural Firefighting 2021 edition.

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187
Q

What is the purpose of the document?

A

This document provides procedures for placing the first in apparatus at structure fires to maximize hose deployment and subsequent apparatus placement.

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188
Q

What must the Company Officer do upon arriving at the scene?

A

The Company Officer must size up the involved structure for potential victims, fire conditions, and optimal deployment of the initial attack line as scene conditions allow.

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189
Q

How should the initial apparatus position itself?

A

The initial apparatus should pull past the structure to allow the Company Officer to see three sides of the structure.

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190
Q

What is the recommended distance to ‘nose in’ the initial apparatus?

A

The initial apparatus should ‘nose in’ 2-3 feet to eliminate the sharp angle of the preconnect hose pull from the crosslay.

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191
Q

What is the advantage of pulling past the structure?

A

Pulling past clears the fireground of excess hose in the front yard and provides the most advantageous placement for T1 to allow maximum reach of the aerial device.

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192
Q

What should be considered when pulling past the structure?

A

Consider the set back of the structure and the total size of the structure.

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193
Q

What is sufficient for most residential structures?

A

For the majority of residential structures, pulling the initial arriving apparatus to the far side of the neighboring ‘downstream’ exposure will suffice.

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194
Q

How should the size/type of larger structures affect apparatus placement?

A

For larger structures, the size/type should determine how far past the involved structure the initial arriving apparatus must pull.

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195
Q

How should hose deployment be handled for apartments with a center breezeway?

A

Treat the breezeway like the ‘front door’ of the complex and estimate the stretch off the entire building’s dimension.

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196
Q

What should T1 do when first on scene?

A

T1 should assume the truck position in front of the structure and deploy attack lines from T1 to ensure optimal aerial placement is maintained.

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197
Q

What should happen when an Engine and T1 arrive almost simultaneously?

A

T1 will assume the truck position in front of the structure, and the Engine should pull past the structure with fire attack lines being pulled from the Engine.

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198
Q

What should be done if an apparatus cannot pull past the structure?

A

The Company Officer and Apparatus Operator should consider stopping short of the structure and use the same guidelines provided for pulling past the structure.

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199
Q

What additional distance should be added for each floor above/below ground level?

A

Add 50’ for each floor above/below ground level.

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200
Q

What is the purpose of Traffic Incident Management?

A

Establish a guideline for initial and ongoing operations on a highway or other high vehicle traffic roadway.

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201
Q

What is the standard response for incidents on Interstate 40 or NE 23rd (HWY 62)?

A

1 unit for a medical or two units for a MVA, with an additional Traffic Safety Unit, Safety Officer, and Shift Commander dispatched.

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202
Q

What information should be included in the Initial Radio Report?

A

Your Unit, Exact Location, Number and Type of Vehicles Involved, Degree of Damage, Additional Hazard and Initial Action.

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203
Q

What is included in the Conduct Size Up?

A

Situational Awareness, Life - Number and condition of patients, Incident Stabilization, Property Conservation.

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204
Q

What should be reported in the Follow Up Report?

A

Triage Report if applicable, Fire and PD Resource Requests or Assignments.

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205
Q

What considerations should be made for accidents on the left shoulder or in Lane 1?

A

Provision of traffic safety measures for both directions of travel should be considered.

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206
Q

What should be established for multiple patients requiring transport?

A

A protected triage treatment area downstream with the first arriving ambulance.

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207
Q

What is the recommendation of state law regarding vehicle movement?

A

When a vehicle can be safely moved to a more protected location, it should be moved to reduce exposure to responders and delays in traffic.

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208
Q

What should be done if needed regarding traffic messaging signs?

A

Contact dispatch to activate traffic messaging signs through ODOT / OHP.

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209
Q

What information should be provided to dispatch/OHP regarding incident scope and duration?

A

Estimated incident scope and duration of traffic impact: Minor Incident (30 minutes), Moderate Incident (less than 2 hours), Major Incident (longer than 2 hours).

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210
Q

review page 52 pf procedure 307.3 Traffic incident orientation

A
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211
Q

What is the purpose of the civil disturbances procedures?

A

These procedures provide guidelines to members of the Midwest City Fire Department when responding to calls for service during periods of civil disturbance or for civil disturbances that occur during an emergency response.

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212
Q

What are examples of civil disturbances?

A

Examples include: (a) A known civil disturbance incident without the threat of additional violence. (b) An ongoing or likely civil disturbance. (c) A civil disturbance occurring while emergency personnel are present. (d) A series of civil disturbances in a specific area.

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213
Q

What is a Tier-One response?

A

For 911 calls where a civil disturbance is suspected but there is no apparent threat of violence, it is dispatched as ‘Tier-One, Civil Disturbance Proceed with Caution’.

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214
Q

What should the first responding unit do in a Tier-One response?

A

The first responding unit should proceed with caution and may stage if uncomfortable with scene conditions.

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215
Q

What is a Tier-Two response?

A

For 911 calls where further civil disturbance is present, it is dispatched as ‘Tier-Two, Civil Disturbance Stage for PD’.

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216
Q

What are the key actions for a Tier-Two response?

A
  1. Select a staging area at least 1/4 mile away. 2. Turn off warning lights and avoid using sirens. 3. Provide protection from gunfire. 4. Remain at the staging area until police indicate it is secure.
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217
Q

What is a Tier-Three response?

A

If personnel find themselves in a violent situation, a Tier-Three tactical withdrawal is initiated, defined by the Incident Commander.

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218
Q

What are the withdrawal guidelines during a Tier-Three response?

A
  1. Quickly pick up all equipment and withdraw to a defined staging area. 2. Withdraw as a single group or in the largest possible groups. 3. Conduct Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) to ensure safety.
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219
Q

What is a Tier-Four response?

A

If multiple civil disturbances are reported, it is dispatched as ‘Tier-Four, Multiple Civil Disturbances’, and the Emergency Management Director is notified.

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220
Q

What should be done upon receiving a call for service?

A

The OIC should conduct a threat assessment, determine a safe route, and secure the fire station if unoccupied.

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221
Q

What actions should the OIC take upon arrival at the scene?

A

The OIC should contact the communications center, provide initial scene size-up, establish a staging area, and coordinate with other agencies.

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222
Q

What should be avoided when responding to civil disturbances?

A

Hot or warm zones of civil disorder, related road closures, and demonstrating crowds blocking streets.

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223
Q

What security measures should be taken if the fire station is left unoccupied?

A

All bay doors are closed and locked, all access doors are locked, all windows are closed and locked, and all exterior lights are on.

224
Q

What should be determined about the scene upon arrival?

A

Whether the scene is located in a hot, warm, or cold zone.

225
Q

What should be done if the scene is hot or warm and law enforcement is not on-scene?

A

Request a law enforcement response and stage accordingly.

226
Q

What information should the OIC provide to the communications center upon arrival?

A

Unit/task force on-scene, initial scene size-up, unit establishing IC, location of primary staging area, and confirm radio channel assignments.

227
Q

What should be done if law enforcement is not on-scene in a hot or warm zone?

A

Request an ETA and factor the lack of resources into the conditions assessment.

228
Q

What is the purpose of establishing a Unified Command (UC)?

A

To coordinate with other responding agencies and determine cold, warm, and hot operating zones.

229
Q

What should be included in the incident IAP when operating in warm or hot zones?

A

Minimize exposure of personnel to potential injury or death, determine the fire attack mode, and request additional resources as needed.

230
Q

What should be done with apparatus during response?

A

Keep all apparatus cabinets and roll-ups closed and locked if possible.

231
Q

What should personnel do upon arrival at the scene?

A

Not leave the confines of the apparatus crew cabin until directed to a task by the unit commander or IC.

232
Q

What operations should not occur in hot zones?

A

No operations should occur in hot zones.

233
Q

What should the IC or UC determine regarding access and egress paths?

A

The safest paths for access and egress from the scene and continually monitor these paths.

234
Q

What should be done to minimize exposure of personnel during warm zone operations?

A

Stage all personnel and apparatus not engaged in fireground operations in cold zones.

235
Q

What should be done if a tactical withdrawal is initiated?

A

Notify all responding units and the communications center of the withdrawal action.

236
Q

What should personnel do during a tactical withdrawal?

A

Quickly pick up all tools and equipment and withdraw from a hot or warm zone to a defined staging area.

237
Q

What should be conducted after a tactical withdrawal?

A

Two Personnel Accountability Reports (PARs) to confirm all units and personnel are accounted for.

238
Q

What should be done if it is not safe to return to the fire station?

A

The IC should direct units to an alternate location in a cold zone.

239
Q

What is the purpose of Post-Incident Analysis (PIA)?

A

To perform analysis at quarters or assigned alternate location, not on-scene.

240
Q

What should officers be mindful of during periods of social disorder?

A

Review the CISM policy and watch for signs and symptoms of stress in personnel.

241
Q

What should be done if a fire station needs to be abandoned?

A

Ensure all apparatus and members are accounted for and relocate to the nearest fire station in a cold zone.

242
Q

What tasks should be completed before abandoning a station?

A

Gather all apparatus, radios, SCBA cylinders, PPE, and medications for removal.

243
Q

What should be done when abandoning a station?

A

Close bay doors, shut down utilities, lock all exterior doors and windows, and notify communications.

244
Q

What is the purpose of the mutual aid document for the Midwest City Fire Department?

A

This document provides mutual aid procedures for Midwest City Fire Department personnel when a request for mutual aid is received, according to local, county, regional, or state mutual aid protocols.

245
Q

What should the Company Officer confirm when dispatched for mutual aid?

A

The Company Officer should confirm that the Midwest City Fire Department has an executed mutual aid agreement with the requesting jurisdiction and that the request is consistent with an established mutual aid response plan.

246
Q

Who authorizes all mutual aid responses?

A

The Shift Commander will authorize all mutual aid responses and notify the Fire Chief.

247
Q

What should be advised to the Emergency Communications Center once jurisdictional coverage is confirmed?

A

Advise that the requested units are responding and confirm radio channel assignments, incident location, staging location, or initial operations request and any specific routing instructions.

248
Q

What is the first step for mutual-aid apparatus upon arrival?

A

Mutual-aid apparatus should report to the staging area unless otherwise directed by the Incident Commander (IC).

249
Q

What should the Company Officer do upon arrival to the staging area?

A

The Company Officer should check-in with the staging officer.

250
Q

What should be confirmed before responding to another jurisdiction?

A

The Company Officer should confirm that any necessary thread adapters are placed on apparatus.

251
Q

What should personnel do when responding with mutual aid units?

A

When practicable, a Shift Commander should respond with the mutual aid units to aid in communications, personnel safety, and scene management.

252
Q

What equipment should personnel wear when responding?

A

Personnel should be in full personal protective equipment (PPE) suitable for the response and remain with their assigned crew.

253
Q

What should crews do before proceeding with tools and equipment?

A

Crews should stage at their assigned location and proceed with needed tools and equipment only when directed by their Company Officer, as directed by the IC.

254
Q

What is the guideline regarding self-deployment?

A

Personnel should not respond to a scene without being requested.

255
Q

What should personnel operate within during mutual aid operations?

A

Personnel should operate only within a recognized command system.

256
Q

What should the Company Officer do if there is no incident command system (ICS) in effect?

A

The Company Officer should establish an ICS for Midwest City Fire Department units.

257
Q

What must be maintained at all times during operations?

A

Accountability should be maintained at all times.

258
Q

What should the Company Officer initiate if there is no accountability system in effect?

A

The Company Officer should initiate an accountability system for Midwest City Fire Department units.

259
Q

Review page 67 procedure 309.4 decision tree for mutual aid.

A
260
Q

What is the purpose of the Hazardous Materials Initial Incident Response document?

A

It provides on-scene procedures for Midwest City Fire Department units operating at incidents involving hazardous materials.

261
Q

What are the three Hazardous Materials Operational Zones?

A
  1. Exclusion zone (hot zone) - area with actual or potential contamination.
  2. Contamination reduction zone (warm zone) - transition area for decontamination activities.
  3. Support zone (cold zone) - area free from contamination for planning and staging.
262
Q

What should the first arriving unit do in the first five minutes?

A

Approach from upwind and uphill, stage in the cold zone, and contact Emergency Communications Center with initial information.

263
Q

What information should be provided to the Emergency Communications Center?

A

Unit on-scene, initial scene size-up, primary staging location in the cold zone, and unit assuming incident command (IC).

264
Q

What should the Incident Commander (IC) attempt to identify?

A

Hazardous material(s) involved in the incident through various sources such as pre-plans, Material Safety Data Sheets, and visible placards.

265
Q

What is included in the 360 assessment report?

A

Any leaking of liquids, venting of gases or vapors, identification of hazardous material, and possible victims.

266
Q

What are the primary objectives of a hazardous materials response?

A
  1. Isolating, confining, and containing the hazardous material.
  2. Evacuating the contaminated area.
  3. Denying entry to the contaminated area.
267
Q

What should personnel assume about unknown substances?

A

Any unknown or unidentified substance should be assumed as a hazardous material until confirmed otherwise.

268
Q

What are the three hazard levels in hazardous materials incidents?

A
  1. Level I - Small incidents manageable with defensive actions.
  2. Level II - More complex incidents requiring offensive or defensive actions.
  3. Level III - Extremely complex incidents posing extreme threats.
269
Q

What is an example of a Level I incident?

A

Fuel spills of less than 20 gallons that have not entered storm drains or waterways.

270
Q

What is an example of a Level II incident?

A

Fuel spills or leaks of more than 20 gallons entering or threatening storm drains or waterways.

271
Q

What is an example of a Level III incident?

A

Structure fires involving hazardous material production, processing, or storage facilities.

272
Q

Review page 71 procedure 310.5 Decision tree for Haz-Mat Response

A
273
Q

What is the purpose of the Hazardous Materials Decontamination document?

A

It provides arrival and on-scene procedures for decontamination of Midwest City Fire Department personnel equipment operating at a Hazardous Materials Incident.

274
Q

What are the three zones defined in hazardous materials incidents?

A
  1. Exclusion zone (hot zone) - Area with actual or potential contamination.
  2. Contamination reduction zone (warm zone) - Transition area for decontamination activities.
  3. Support zone (cold zone) - Area free from contamination for planning and staging.
275
Q

What is a Decontamination Corridor?

A

An area set up in the warm zone providing a water wash for personnel leaving the hot zone.

276
Q

What should the first arriving unit do upon arrival at a hazardous materials incident?

A

Contact Emergency Communications Center and provide unit on-scene, initial scene size-up, primary staging location in the cold zone, and unit assuming incident command.

277
Q

What should the Incident Commander (IC) identify?

A

The hazardous material(s) involved in the incident using available resources such as pre-plans, Material Safety Data Sheets, and visible placards.

278
Q

What is the role of the Decontamination Group Supervisor?

A

To set up and operate decontamination activities at the incident.

279
Q

What are the considerations for locating the decontamination area?

A

Accessibility, surface material, lighting, drains and waterways, water supply, and weather.

280
Q

What are the four universal decontamination methods?

A
  1. Dilution - Use of water to flush contaminants.
  2. Absorption - Use of absorbent for liquid contaminants.
  3. Chemical degradation - Changing the chemical structure of hazardous material.
  4. Isolation and disposal - Collecting and disposing of hazardous material according to regulations.
281
Q

What are the three main types of decontamination?

A

Technical, emergency, and mass decontamination.

282
Q

What should be done with contaminated structural firefighting PPE?

A

Place in a bag, seal, and tag with the contaminant, contents, member’s name, and time and date.

283
Q

What is the procedure for emergency decontamination?

A

Establish an area of refuge, strip away contaminated clothing, and flush with large volumes of water.

284
Q

What is mass decontamination?

A

Emergency decontamination conducted at the mass casualty incident level using emergency decon operations.

285
Q

What should be done for non-ambulatory victims during decontamination?

A

Gather information about their status, and place them on a backboard or roller system to avoid contact with dirty water.

286
Q

Page 78 procedure chart for decon corridor

A
287
Q

What is the purpose of the Technical Rescue Response document?

A

It provides arrival and on-scene procedures for Midwest City Fire Department units operating at technical rescue emergencies, including high angle, confined space, machinery, wilderness, trench, water, or building collapse rescues.

288
Q

What are the corresponding policies related to Technical Rescue Response?

A

Confined Space Rescue Response, Elevator Entrapments, Incident Management, Staging, Swiftwater Rescue and Flood Search and Rescue Response, Trench Rescues, Urban Search and Rescue.

289
Q

What information should the first arriving unit provide to the Emergency Communications Center?

A

Unit on-scene, initial scene size-up, location of a Primary (Level 1) Staging area, vehicle exhaust considerations, unit assuming incident command, and requests for additional resources.

290
Q

What should the Incident Commander (IC) perform during the first five minutes?

A

Complete a 360 assessment to identify the nature of the incident, victim location, hazards, and appropriate positioning for apparatus and resources.

291
Q

What is the minimum safe distance for apparatus staging at trench, cave-in, and collapse emergencies?

A

Apparatus should stage at least 500 feet away from the incident to minimize vibration that could destabilize the scene.

292
Q

What personal protective equipment (PPE) should personnel wear?

A

PPE appropriate for the hazard, including SCBA in oxygen-deficient and IDLH atmospheres, and personal flotation devices around water.

293
Q

What is the definition of a trench according to OSHA?

A

A narrow excavation made below the surface of the ground, where the depth is greater than the width, but the width is not greater than 15 feet.

294
Q

What are the trench incident levels?

A

Level I: Handled by first alarm assignment; Level II: Requires resources beyond local jurisdiction; Level III: Large operation needing regional/state teams; Level IV: Utilizes national (FEMA) teams.

295
Q

What is the minimum distance emergency vehicles should park from a collapse site?

A

Emergency vehicles shall park at least 100 feet from the collapse site, with the technical rescue team vehicle parking no closer than 50 feet.

296
Q

What should be established around the perimeter of a trench collapse zone?

A

A hazard zone shall be established to control at least 75 feet around the perimeter of the collapse zone, marked with perimeter tape.

297
Q

What is the greatest risk to rescue personnel during water rescue operations?

A

Drowning; personnel must wear a properly fitting, USCG approved type III (or better) personal flotation device (PFD) at all times while engaged in water operations.

298
Q

What should be done if it becomes necessary to enter the water to perform a rescue?

A

An operator must remain on-board the watercraft at all times, and watercraft will not be abandoned unless properly secured.

299
Q

What should be included in the initial size-up for water rescue operations?

A

Determine if the incident is a rescue or recovery, and identify who the Pointer is and if they need assistance.

300
Q

What is the role of the Pointer in a water rescue?

A

The Pointer is assigned to watch and monitor the status of victim(s) in the water until the victim is rescued, relieved, or goes subsurface.

The Pointer shall note the victim’s last position and relay information concerning the victim.

301
Q

What should be included in the initial size up of a water rescue incident?

A

The initial size up should determine if the incident is a rescue or recovery, identify the Pointer, and consider factors such as access to water, proximity to shore, number of victims, weather conditions, and additional resources.

302
Q

What are the three rescue options from watercraft?

A
  1. Reach: Use an object to reach the victim. 2. Throw: Throw a floating item to the victim. 3. Go: Enter the water to swim to the victim.

The decision to ‘GO’ should consider factors like the need for additional pointers and the condition of the victim.

303
Q

What is a confined space?

A

A confined space is large enough for a person to enter, has limited means for entry or exit, and is not designed for continuous human occupancy.

304
Q

What is an Entry Permit?

A

An Entry Permit is a written document provided by the Department to control entry into a permit-required confined space for work.

305
Q

What should be done if there is no response from a worker inside a confined space?

A

A verbal check should be made, and if there is still no response, rescue personnel should conduct a survivability profile and risk analysis based on the entry permit.

306
Q

What precautions should be taken regarding ignition sources in confined spaces?

A

No ignition sources should be introduced into the confined space when atmospheric hazards are present due to flammable or explosive substances.

307
Q

What is the primary assessment upon arrival at a confined space rescue?

A

The first-in company should establish command, assess immediate hazards, conduct a survivability profile of victims, and determine if the operation will be a rescue or recovery.

308
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Incident Commander during a confined space rescue?

A

The Incident Commander must ensure adequate trained personnel are on-scene, proper equipment is available, establish a perimeter, and ensure all utilities are locked out.

309
Q

What should be done immediately after reaching the point of egress with victims?

A

Victims should be transferred to awaiting medical personnel.

310
Q

What should happen at the conclusion of a rescue?

A

The Incident Commander should account for all personnel, ensure tools and equipment are removed, and determine if a debriefing is warranted.

311
Q

What is the responsibility of the officer in charge (OIC) during a fire investigation?

A

The OIC is responsible for determining the origin and cause of each fire type, including structural, vehicle, and grass fires.

312
Q

When should the OIC determine the need for assistance with the fire investigation?

A

The OIC should determine the need for assistance as early as possible into the incident.

313
Q

What types of incidents require MWCFD investigators to respond?

A

MWCFD investigators shall respond to fires involving death or serious injury, undetermined causes, damages exceeding $85,000, suspicious causes, vegetation or dumpster fires with unknown causes, and any fire where the cause cannot be determined.

314
Q

What should be included in the NFIRS report if the OIC determines the origin and cause of the fire?

A

The NFIRS report should include the Point of Origin, Fire Cause, and Ignition Sequence as a secondary narrative.

315
Q

What is the Point of Origin in fire investigations?

A

The Point of Origin is the physical location where a heat source, fuel, and oxidizing agent first interact, resulting in a fire or explosion.

316
Q

What defines Fire Cause in fire investigations?

A

Fire Cause is defined as the circumstances that bring together a fuel, ignition source, and oxidizer, resulting in a fire or explosion. It can be classified as Incendiary, Accidental, or Act of Nature.

317
Q

What should be documented when children are involved in fire incidents?

A

The report should include the parent’s name, address, phone number, child/children’s names, ages, and all circumstances of the incident.

318
Q

How should incidents involving children who willfully start fires be treated?

A

These incidents should be treated as incendiary fires, and the fire investigator should be contacted.

319
Q

What is the protocol for investigating malicious false alarms?

A

All malicious false alarms are investigated by the Fire Prevention Bureau, and suspect information should be included in the NFIRS incident report.

320
Q

When should a fire investigator request a police detective?

A

A fire investigator should request a police detective when a body is discovered during the investigation.

321
Q

What should be done with evidence collected during a fire investigation?

A

All evidence collected should be turned over to the patrol officer, police detective, or placed in secured lockers at the police sally port.

322
Q

Who issues burn permits in Midwest City?

A

The Fire Code official of the Midwest City Fire Department issues burn permits.

323
Q

What guidelines govern open burning in Midwest City?

A

All open burning shall be subject to the guidelines of the adopted version of the International Fire Code (IFC), Section 307 and Chapter 15 or the Midwest City Ordinances.

324
Q

How can citizens obtain a burn permit?

A

Burn permits are issued by appointment by the Fire Prevention Bureau of the Midwest City Fire Department.

325
Q

What is the maximum duration for a burn permit?

A

Burn permits are issued for a period not to exceed one year.

326
Q

How can appointments for a burn permit be made?

A

Appointments can be made by calling the Fire Marshal’s office at 739-1355 or by visiting the Fire Administration office at 8201 E. Reno.

327
Q

What does the Fire Code Official assess during the site inspection?

A

The Fire Code Official assesses the area involved and the material to be burned for safety and compliance concerns.

328
Q

What happens if a burn permit is issued?

A

The requesting party will receive a written permit with the requirements listed and a phone number to call before burning.

329
Q

What must the Fire Code Official do if burning is to take place immediately?

A

The Fire Code Official will notify dispatch regarding the specific site.

330
Q

What factors does the Fire Code Official check for open burning?

A

The Fire Code Official checks local weather conditions for current and projected wind speeds, inversion factor, and ozone quality.

331
Q

What are the wind speed parameters for allowing open burning?

A

The wind speed must be twelve (12) miles per hour or less.

332
Q

What is the required inversion factor for open burning?

A

The inversion factor must be greater than one thousand (1000) feet.

333
Q

What ozone quality is required for open burning?

A

Ozone quality must be above ‘Poor’ conditions.

334
Q

What are the allowed hours for open burning?

A

Open burning is allowed between the hours of 8:00 a.m. and Dusk.

335
Q

What exceptions exist for overnight burning?

A

Commercial land clearing operations may burn overnight if personnel are on site with water or heavy equipment to contain the fire.

336
Q

What should permit holders do before burning?

A

Permit holders must call 739-1340 after 8:00 a.m. Monday through Friday to verify that a ‘burn day’ has been established.

337
Q

What information must permit holders provide when verifying a burn day?

A

Permit holders must provide the burn permit number, the location of the burning, and a telephone number.

338
Q

What should permit holders comply with?

A

Permit holders must comply with all rules and regulations as specified on the burn permit.

339
Q

Who handles burn permits on weekends and holidays?

A

All duties of the Fire Prevention Bureau pertaining to burn permits will be handled by the Emergency Operations Center on weekends and holidays.

340
Q

What should permit holders do if weather conditions become unsafe?

A

All permit holders will be contacted and ordered to extinguish their fires immediately.

341
Q

What happens if a fire department responds to an ‘open burn’ site?

A

Fire department personnel may extinguish or order the extinguishment of any fire deemed a danger or nuisance to the community.

342
Q

What is the summary of the procedures for dispatching an on-call fire investigator?

A

The procedures guide dispatchers in the ECC for requesting the on-call investigator during work hours (7:00 a.m. - 5:30 p.m.) and after work hours.

343
Q

Who is on call each day for fire investigations?

A

One of the Fire Prevention Officers or the Fire Marshal will be on call each day.

344
Q

What is the rotation schedule for the on-call Fire Prevention Officers or Fire Marshal?

A

The rotation begins Thursday at 7:00 a.m. and continues for two weeks, ending the following Thursday at 7:00 a.m.

345
Q

How does the Fire Marshal communicate the on-call schedule to the ECC?

A

The Fire Marshal provides ECC with a copy of the monthly call sheet approximately 3 days prior to the end of the month.

346
Q

What should ECC include in the message when notifying the on-call investigator during work hours?

A

The message should include the requesting party, address, and nature of the request.

347
Q

What should the on-call investigator do upon receiving a call during work hours?

A

They should contact ECC as soon as possible and let them know they are ‘enroute.’

348
Q

What steps should be taken if the on-call investigator does not answer the call?

A

Contact the Fire Marshal immediately. If the Fire Marshal cannot be reached within 15 minutes, begin calling the other Investigators in numerical order.

349
Q

How should ECC notify the on-call investigator after work hours?

A

ECC shall notify the individual by the contact numbers provided first, unless directed otherwise.

350
Q

What should the on-call investigator do upon receiving a call after work hours?

A

They should immediately notify ECC and acknowledge the receipt of the call.

351
Q

Why is it important for the on-call investigator to relay approximate response times to the Incident Commander?

A

This allows the Incident Commander to make necessary adjustments for crews during inclement weather or simultaneous incidents.

352
Q

What is the Knox Box System?

A

The Knox Box System is a system outlined in city ordinance and allowed per the International Fire Code.

353
Q

Which personnel have been assigned a Knox master key?

A

Truck 1, Engine 2, Engine 3, Engine 4, Engine 5, Ladder 6, Shift Commander’s vehicle, Fire Marshal, Fire Prevention Officer.

354
Q

Where is the Knox Box installed on emergency apparatus?

A

The Knox Box is installed either on the Captain’s side wheel well or on the base of his seat.

355
Q

What is the combination for the Knox Box?

A

The combination is 1650, which can be entered in any sequence.

356
Q

Who should keep the Knox keys?

A

All Fire Prevention personnel shall keep their key on their key ring, and extra keys shall be kept with the Fire Marshal.

357
Q

What is the purpose of the Knox keys?

A

The Knox keys are to be used for emergencies, pre-planning, and inspections only.

358
Q

What happens if Knox keys are used for personal use?

A

Violation of this policy shall result in disciplinary action as it is a violation of the public trust.

359
Q

What is the procedure for using the Knox key in an emergency?

A

Insert the Knox key into the Knox Box and turn it one-quarter turn to the right to release the gate or arm.

360
Q

What should be done if other emergency vehicles are arriving?

A

Leave the gate in the open position.

361
Q

What should be done for non-emergency use of the Knox key?

A

Pull through the opening, clear the path of the gate or arm, and turn the key back to its original position to close the gate.

362
Q

Why should gate codes be kept?

A

Gate codes should be kept as a backup for malfunctioning Knox box systems.

363
Q

How often should security gates be inspected?

A

Each gate should be inspected at least annually to ensure emergency operation function is maintained.

364
Q

Who should be notified for maintenance or repair of gates?

A

Crews should contact the facility representative and notify the Fire Prevention bureau via email.

365
Q

What is the purpose of the established procedures?

A

The procedures serve as a guide for dispatchers in the ECC when receiving notifications from the Fire Prevention Bureau about temporary housing of overnight guests.

366
Q

What information does the Fire Prevention Bureau need when notified of overnight guests?

A
  1. Name and Address of Church
  2. Number of People
  3. Length of stay-in days
  4. Location within the church where the lodging is taking place.
367
Q

What action does the Fire Prevention Bureau take after receiving the information?

A

The Fire Prevention Bureau generates a memo to the ECC Director detailing the information and forwards a copy to the Shift Commander’s office.

368
Q

What does the EOC Director do with the information?

A

The EOC Director enters the information into the premise information of the church with an automatic expiration date.

369
Q

What should the dispatcher do if an emergency response is made to the church address?

A

The dispatcher will pass the information about the overnight guests on immediately to responding units.

370
Q

Is there a document for reporting overnight stays?

A

Yes, there is a PDF for the reporting of Overnight Stays.

371
Q

What is the purpose of the medical supplies policy?

A

To establish a Periodic Automatic Replenishment (PAR) level system for medical supply inventories for the safety and welfare of patients and employees.

372
Q

What does the PAR level system assist with?

A

Budgeting and waste management.

373
Q

What is the intended outcome of adhering to the medical supplies policy?

A

To prevent the depletion of protective supplies and critical supplies while reducing inventory overstock.

374
Q

What should the PAR level be based on?

A

Normal inventory usage for a two-week period at career stations.

375
Q

What should the PAR level include?

A

All medical supplies maintained in fire stations and carried on apparatus.

376
Q

How far in advance should a delivery schedule for supplies be created?

A

One month in advance.

377
Q

Who may handle and distribute medications?

A

Only department members who have received medication distribution training.

378
Q

How should medications be stored?

A

Medications shall be kept secure from unauthorized handling or use.

379
Q

How often should medications be inventoried?

A

Daily by the designated paramedic for each facility or station.

380
Q

What should be done with medications that are out-of-date?

A

They should be exchanged for current medications.

381
Q

What should be done with overstock items?

A

Overstock should be returned to the supplier, properly packaged and labeled.

382
Q

What should be attached to the box or container with returned overstock items?

A

A written list of items being returned.

383
Q

What should be done if a supplier indicates that an item is back-ordered?

A

Do not continue to order items that are on back-order.

384
Q

Who should be contacted if needed items cannot be obtained in the normal manner?

A

Contact the EMS supervisor.

385
Q

What is the purpose of the MEDIVAC Helicopter Landing Zones document?

A

This document provides arrival and on-scene procedures for the Midwest City Fire Department to establish a MEDIVAC landing zone.

386
Q

Who should appoint a landing zone (LZ) Supervisor?

A

The Incident Commander (IC) should appoint a landing zone (LZ) Supervisor.

387
Q

What should the LZ Supervisor confirm with Emergency Communications Center?

A

The LZ Supervisor should confirm that at least one fire department company has been dispatched or, if at an active incident, confirm with IC that at least one fire department company can be dedicated to the LZ assignment.

388
Q

What are the suitability considerations for a landing zone (LZ)?

A

LZ suitability considerations should include:
- A flat, open grassy or hard surface area
- At least 100-feet square or larger
- Clear of trees, power lines, poles and other obstructions
- At least 100 yards from any response-related or other human activity.

389
Q

What should the LZ Supervisor do if the assigned LZ is not suitable?

A

Notify Emergency Communications Center that an alternate LZ should be assigned, proceed to the alternate location, and repeat the suitability evaluation steps.

390
Q

What should the LZ Supervisor do once the LZ location is confirmed as suitable?

A

Request an operating channel from Emergency Communications Center for direct communication with the aircraft, make contact, and request an ETA.

391
Q

What should the apparatus operator consider when positioning apparatus?

A

The apparatus operator should consider access to a fixed water source, access to the LZ, keeping a safe distance for landing and take-off, readiness of the foam system, and turning off unshielded apparatus lighting.

392
Q

What is the minimum number of firefighters required at the LZ?

A

A minimum of two firefighters should be in full personal protective equipment (PPE), including self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA).

393
Q

What steps should the LZ Supervisor take to prepare the LZ?

A

The LZ Supervisor should:
1. Assign personnel to clear debris.
2. Mark the LZ corners with weighted traffic cones.
3. If dark, contact the pilot for lighting needs.
4. Assign personnel to keep individuals at least 100 feet from the LZ.
5. Shut down any UAS or laser pointer during LZ operations.

394
Q

What should the LZ Supervisor do after the LZ is prepared?

A

Contact the pilot to confirm that the LZ is ready for use, aid the pilot in locating the LZ if requested, and advise the pilot of any landing hazards.

395
Q

What should personnel do when operating in or near an LZ?

A

Personnel should not approach the aircraft until directed by the pilot, approach and walk away from the aircraft from the side only, and not walk around the tail rotor.

396
Q

What is the purpose of the Training In Inclement Weather Procedures?

A

To provide guidance for safe training operations during inclement weather situations.

397
Q

What happens during cold weather when temperature or wind chill is below 32 degrees?

A

Training will be ‘dry’ to prevent potential hazards of ice.

398
Q

What is the protocol for outdoor training when temperature or wind chill is below 25 degrees?

A

Outdoor training activities will stop to reduce potential for cold-related injuries or illness.

399
Q

What precautions should be taken under 90 degrees ambient or heat index?

A

Provide ample water, encourage shaded areas, and monitor students.

400
Q

What actions should be taken when the ambient or heat index is between 90 to 100 degrees?

A

Provide ample water, encourage shaded areas, remove extra gear, consider modifying drills, limit physical activity to 30 minutes followed by a break, and monitor students.

401
Q

What are the guidelines for training when the ambient or heat index is between 100 to 104 degrees?

A

Provide ample water, encourage shaded areas, limit drills to PT clothing, consider modifying drills, limit physical activity to 30 minutes followed by a break, use active cooling measures, and monitor students.

402
Q

What is the protocol for outdoor training when the temperature or heat index is above 104 degrees?

A

Outdoor training activities will stop to reduce potential for heat-related injuries or illness.

403
Q

What is the risk associated with lightning during training?

A

The risk is present when lightning is seen or thunder is heard, as the average distance between flashes is 2-3 miles.

404
Q

What is the 30 Minute Rule regarding lightning?

A

Outside activities will cease and move inside or to a covered area for 30 minutes after the last flash of lightning or thunder before resuming activities.

405
Q

What happens if there are repeated lightning strikes?

A

The 30 minutes is reset with each strike.

406
Q

What should be considered at night regarding lightning?

A

Lightning can be observed at much greater distances, and radar judgment may be used to vary from the 30 minute rule.

407
Q

What is the purpose of SCBA procedures?

A

To provide members of the Midwest City Fire Department with knowledge of the basic function, proper care, and maintenance of MSA G1 SCBA and all SCBA accessories.

408
Q

What does SCBA stand for?

A

Self Contained Breathing Apparatus

409
Q

What does HUD stand for?

A

Heads Up Display

410
Q

What does PASS stand for?

A

Personal Alert Safety System

411
Q

What are some applicable standards for SCBA procedures?

A

NFAP 1500, MSA Owner’s Manual, SCBA Committee

412
Q

What is the daily inspection procedure for SCBA?

A

SCBA will be inspected and undergo a function test every morning at rig check, including testing of all visual and audible alarms.

413
Q

What is the minimum air pressure required in the SCBA cylinder?

A

At least 4,950 psi.

414
Q

How should the battery status of the SCBA be checked?

A

Hold either green Control Module button until the battery life icon appears.

415
Q

What should be done when only 2 yellow bars remain on the battery?

A

Change the battery.

416
Q

What is the purpose of the RFID tag issued to every Firefighter?

A

To be used in conjunction with the Asset Tracking Software.

417
Q

What indicates that the SCBA is functioning correctly during the self-diagnostic check?

A

A green screen with a check mark will appear on the control module screen.

418
Q

What should be done if a red screen with an ‘X’ appears on the SCBA?

A

Take the SCBA out of service.

419
Q

What does a yellow screen with a wrench indicate?

A

The SCBA needs to be overhauled.

420
Q

What should be done if any problems or needed repairs are identified?

A

Inform an SCBA committee member or Shift Commander.

421
Q

What is the weekly maintenance procedure for SCBA?

A

Clean SCBA and face piece each week during station and rig cleaning time.

422
Q

What is the annual testing procedure for SCBA?

A

SCBA will be tested by the SCBA committee once a year on a Posicheck flow bench for performance within manufacturer specifications.

423
Q

What is the purpose of Identifire tags on SCBA?

A

To label all in-service SCBA with an apparatus ID.

424
Q

What color Identifire tag is used for Firefighters?

A

Yellow.

425
Q

What is the procedure for pairing a SCBA and Kenwood Radio?

A

Turn on the Kenwood Radio, ensure Bluetooth is on, and follow the pairing steps.

426
Q

What should be done if the RFID tag does not pair the radio to the SCBA?

A

Refer to MSA G1 Pairing Procedures located in the SCBA folder.

427
Q

What is the cleaning procedure for the SCBA face piece?

A

The Face Piece shall be cleaned after every involvement in a fire or as needed with approved MSA cleaning solution.

428
Q

How often are SCBA bottles hydrostatically tested?

A

Every 5 years.

429
Q

What is the purpose of blast masks?

A

To be utilized as a training tool and/or during PE.

430
Q

Where are the SCBA compressors located?

A

One at Station 1, one at Station 6, and a mobile air trailer at Station 6.

431
Q

What is the first step in filling SCBA cylinders from the cascade system?

A

Close bottle fill valves.

432
Q

What should be done before disconnecting fill lines from the bottles?

A

Decrease pressure in the fill line with relief knob until the pressure is zero.

This is to ensure safety during disconnection.

433
Q

What is the first step in filling the SCBA cylinders from the air compressor?

A

Close all bottle fill valves.

434
Q

What should be done after placing bottles in the cradle in the fill station?

A

Attach fill line to the bottles.

435
Q

What should be checked before starting the compressor?

A

Make sure relief knob is closed.

436
Q

How do you start the compressor?

A

Press the GREEN square button on the control screen.

437
Q

What should be done once the bottle(s) are full?

A

Shut off the bottle fill valve(s).

438
Q

How do you shut off the compressor?

A

Push the RED square button on the control screen.

439
Q

What is the first step in refilling the cascade system?

A

Make sure all bottle fill valves are closed.

440
Q

What happens when the cascade system is full?

A

The system will shut off automatically.

441
Q

Who is responsible for draining the condensate from the compressor?

A

The SCBA committee.

442
Q

Who collects the quarterly air sample from each compressor?

A

The SCBA committee Director.

443
Q

What should be done if a repair need is found?

A

Notify the SCBA committee immediately.

444
Q

What is the role of the Committee Director?

A

Coordinates efforts of the SCBA Committee to achieve department goals and legal requirements.

445
Q

What does the Committee Chairperson supervise?

A

Committee personnel in testing and repairs.

446
Q

What is one responsibility of Shift Committee Personnel?

A

Perform all testing as required by law at the direction of the director and chairperson.

447
Q

What must be documented by Shift Committee Personnel?

A

All testing and repairs in accordance with federal law and manufacturers recommendations.

448
Q

What is the purpose of the Communicable Diseases Reporting procedure?

A

This procedure provides general guidelines to assist in minimizing the risk of department members contracting and/or spreading communicable diseases, and establishes procedures to follow in the event of an exposure.

449
Q

What should an employee do upon exposure to a communicable disease?

A

Notify supervisor of exposure, complete Form 207 for Department of Health, complete injury reports and supervisors reports, and follow steps to gather information from the source patient.

450
Q

What samples should the EMS crew draw from the source patient?

A

The EMS crew shall draw 1 purple tube and 1 red tube for the ‘source’ and label with source name and date of birth.

451
Q

What information should the EMS crew provide to the shift supervisor?

A

The exposed party’s name, agency, location of exposure, and description of exposure.

452
Q

What must be done if the exposed party is a City of Midwest City employee?

A

They will check into the ED as a patient.

453
Q

What is required by law regarding the source patient in case of exposure?

A

The ‘source’ must submit to having blood drawn when exposure involves Fire/Police/EMS or First Responder personnel.

454
Q

Who should be contacted if there are questions regarding exposure procedures?

A

Contact the EMS Director or Alliance Health Midwest Infection Control Coordinator Jamie Cox (610-8395).

455
Q

What should be done immediately after receiving an exposure?

A

Isolate and carefully clean and dress the affected site, and secure the name of the source patient and the facility being transported.

456
Q

Who should be notified immediately after an exposure?

A

Notify Supervisor and Shift Commander immediately.

457
Q

What should the employee complete after an exposure?

A

Complete Part I of Form 207 (lines 1-13).

458
Q

What information should be included in lines 17, 18, and 19 of Form 207?

A

Provider’s Name: Lienen, Jason M.D.; Provider’s Phone: (405) 600-1500; Provider’s Fax: (405) 600-1530.

459
Q

What should the firefighter do upon arriving at the Emergency Medical Department?

A

Present the OSDH Form 207 to the ER staff and explain to the triage nurse that you have had an exposure.

460
Q

What will the ER determine during screening?

A

If significant exposure occurred, the ER will draw blood for a baseline and begin testing the source patient (if applicable).

461
Q

What happens if tests are negative or low risk?

A

You will be discharged with instructions to follow-up with Dr. Lienen, who will review the information and schedule follow-up tests as necessary.

462
Q

What happens if tests are positive or significant risk is determined?

A

You may begin treatment medication designed to reduce your risk for HIV and will receive follow-up from the Infection Control Doctor at the treating facility.

463
Q

What should be done before leaving the ER?

A

Ensure that a licensed health care professional completes lines 20, 21, and 22 of OSDH Form 207 and that you have a copy of everything.

464
Q

What forms should be completed upon returning from the Emergency Room?

A

Fill out accident/illness report and the Employers’ First Notice of Injury Report.

465
Q

What should be done with the yellow copy of the paperwork?

A

Mail it to the OSDH using the included gray envelope.

466
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring the paperwork is mailed?

A

The Training Officer and/or Shift Commander.

467
Q

What should be done with the green copy of the paperwork?

A

Deliver it immediately to the designated person (usually the Infection Control Practitioner) at the location of the source patient.

468
Q

What is the purpose of the Personnel Complaints document?

A

This document provides procedures for receiving and processing complaints against department members.

469
Q

What are some corresponding policies related to Personnel Complaints?

A

Conflict of Interest, Solicitation of Funds, Use of Department-Owned and Personal Property, Non-Official Use of Department Property, Discriminatory Harassment, Conduct and Behavior, Workplace Violence, Anti-Retaliation.

470
Q

What are the initial steps for handling complaints received in person or by phone?

A

Obtain and complete a department complaint form, forward the complaint to the next appropriate level, and investigate the complaint.

471
Q

What should an investigating member do upon receiving a complaint?

A

Determine the nature of the complaint, give complete attention to the complainant, seek additional details if necessary, and prepare documentation of the complaint investigation.

472
Q

How should complaints received in writing be processed?

A

Obtain and complete a department complaint form, forward the complaint, and investigate the complaint.

473
Q

What steps should be taken for complaints received from an anonymous source?

A

Complete a department complaint form with available information, forward the complaint, and investigate the complaint.

474
Q

What types of complaints correspond to the Conflict of Interest policy?

A

Complaints about missing money, demands for money in exchange for services, or members working for someone providing goods or services to the agency.

475
Q

What might a complainant say regarding the Use of Department-Owned and Personal Property policy?

A

A member took a chain saw off an engine for personal use or used an agency vehicle for personal errands.

476
Q

What is an example of a complaint related to Discriminatory Harassment?

A

I experienced negative activity because of my race, ethnicity, or other protected status.

477
Q

What might a complainant report under the Conduct and Behavior policy?

A

A member working a second job while on injury leave or members involved in a bar fight while in uniform.

478
Q

What could a complainant say regarding Workplace Violence?

A

I found threatening notes or items in my gear.

479
Q

What is an example of a complaint related to Anti-Retaliation?

A

Since filing a complaint, my time-off requests have been denied.

480
Q

What should be done after completing the complaint form?

A

Use the Complaint Procedure Checklist to begin processing the complaint.

481
Q

What are some universal practices for handling complaints?

A

Active listening, thorough note-taking, ensuring confidentiality, and advising against retaliation.

482
Q

What should an investigating member avoid during the investigation?

A

Expressing doubt about the complaint or providing a definite timeline.

483
Q

What is the purpose of the document?

A

This document provides procedures for Midwest City Fire Department personnel initiating a disciplinary action.

484
Q

What does command discipline entail?

A

A penalty imposed by department officers to sanction members under their direct command for minor deficiencies.

485
Q

What is formal discipline?

A

A penalty that includes formal charges for violation of department policy or procedure.

486
Q

What infractions may lead to command discipline?

A

Infractions include tardiness, violation of uniform regulations, minor conduct infractions, and failure to display required knowledge.

487
Q

What is required before implementing formal disciplinary action?

A

Officers should consider due process, general policies, records of incompetency, electronic communications, and more.

488
Q

What does due process entail in disciplinary actions?

A

Disciplinary actions should follow state law, employee agreements, and Human Resources rules.

489
Q

What should be documented in a disciplinary record?

A

Documentation should include date, time, place of the incident, facts, violated policies, recommendations, and signatures.

490
Q

What is a disciplinary report?

A

Documentation of an incident where a member has violated or is alleged to have violated a department policy.

491
Q

What are the guidelines for completing disciplinary reports?

A

Reports should be objective, specific, clear, and factual, documenting actions taken.

492
Q

What are forms of progressive discipline?

A

Forms include informal counseling, oral reprimand, written reprimand, loss of paid time off, suspension, and discharge.

493
Q

What corresponding procedures may personnel consult?

A

Personnel may need to consult Administrative Investigations and Interviews and Personnel Complaints procedures.

494
Q

Read and review Procedure 1004 Annual fitness evaluation starting on pg 152

A
495
Q

What is the purpose of the user guide?

A

The purpose of this guide is to familiarize users of Lexipol’s Fire Procedures with their basic style, format, and structure.

496
Q

What are the main sections of each Fire Procedure?

A

Each Fire Procedure is organized into the following sections: A. Purpose and Scope, B. Corresponding Policies, C. First Five Minutes, D. Procedures, E. Universal Practices, F. Decision tree.

497
Q

What does the ‘First Five Minutes’ section contain?

A

Tasks and instructions for first-on-scene responders; appears only in operational procedures.

498
Q

What is included in the ‘Procedures’ section?

A

Resource deployment, operations, personnel, apparatus.

499
Q

What symbols are used in the procedure format?

A

The # symbol designates First Five Minutes tasks, and the • symbol calls out items of instruction within a task.

500
Q

How are sections organized in the procedures?

A

Sections are organized in tiers designated by letters, then numbers, then symbols.

501
Q

What does the term ‘style’ refer to in the context of Fire Procedures?

A

The term ‘style’ refers to the rules Lexipol follows for spelling, punctuation, grammar, and other issues.

502
Q

What should be done when using an acronym for the first time?

A

Spell it out on first use within a document, then add the acronym in parentheses for subsequent references.

503
Q

What are guide sheets?

A

Guide sheets offer direction for customizing content for your agency and contain a list of references.

504
Q

What does the glossary contain?

A

A glossary of terms and phrases used within the procedure documents and decision trees follows this user guide.

505
Q

What is a cold zone?

A

An area outside of the immediate threat deemed safe enough for personnel to assemble and work at a Casualty Collection Point (CCP) without concern for migration of the threat.

506
Q

What is a warm zone?

A

An area that is relatively secure and that is entered by personnel as part of a team to extract viable patients to a CCP.

507
Q

What is a hot zone?

A

An area entered only by law enforcement personnel, including any area where a suspect or suspects may be located and that is not under the control of law enforcement.

508
Q

What is an anchor point?

A

A safe area from which wildfire operations start.

509
Q

What is an annunciator or fire alarm control panel (FACP)?

A

A control station for an alarm system within a building.

510
Q

What is an apparatus in emergency response?

A

Any emergency fire response vehicle.

Types include Aerial (with a mounted ladder or tower) and Engine (with pump, water, and hose).

511
Q

What is a cache?

A

A complement of predetermined tools, equipment, and supplies stored in a designated apparatus location and ready for use by a Rapid Intervention Team.

512
Q

What is a casualty collection point (CCP)?

A

A geographic location at or near the scene of an active shooter/violent incident to which victims are extracted.

513
Q

What defines civil disorder?

A

Any public disturbance involving acts of violence by assemblages of three or more persons that causes immediate danger to, or results in damage or injury to the property or person of, any other individual.

514
Q

What is a cold zone in civil disorder?

A

An area outside of the immediate threat deemed safe for personnel to operate without concern for migration of the civil disorder threat.

515
Q

What is a warm zone in civil disorder?

A

An area that is relatively secure where personnel can operate with or without law enforcement personnel present, depending on a threat assessment performed by the Incident Commander (IC).

516
Q

What is a hot zone in civil disorder?

A

An area that is deemed too unstable or unsafe for personnel to operate based on a threat assessment.

517
Q

What is a Conditions, Actions, Needs (CAN) situation report?

A

Information reported to the Incident Commander (IC) by on-scene personnel regarding conditions being experienced, actions being taken, and support or resources needed.

518
Q

What is a division in incident management?

A

Used to divide an incident into geographical areas of operation, identified by alphabetic characters or floor numbers.

519
Q

What are the fire attack modes?

A

Defensive (initiated and completed from the exterior) and Offensive (initiated from the interior).

520
Q

What is a fire control room?

A

A centralized location within a structure that houses the controls for emergency fire detection/suppression systems.

521
Q

What is a flow path?

A

The movement of hot fire gases from the seat of the fire toward openings in the buildings and the movement of fresh air toward the fire.

522
Q

What is a group in incident management?

A

Established to divide the incident into functional areas of operation, composed of resources assembled to perform a special function.

523
Q

What are the hazardous materials (HAZMAT) operational zones?

A

Exclusion zone (hot), contamination reduction zone (warm), and support zone (cold).

524
Q

What does IDLH stand for?

A

Immediately dangerous to life or health, describing an atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life.

525
Q

What is an incident action plan (IAP)?

A

An oral or written plan containing general objectives reflecting the overall strategy for managing an incident.

526
Q

What is the role of the Incident Commander (IC)?

A

Responsible for all incident activities, including strategy development and resource management.

527
Q

What is a landing zone (LZ)?

A

A designated location for a helicopter to take off and land.

528
Q

What is a lookout in incident management?

A

An on-scene member tasked with paying attention to changing scene environments to provide warning to working personnel.

529
Q

What does Mayday indicate?

A

A call indicating a firefighter may be in distress and in need of rescue.

530
Q

What is mutual aid?

A

The provision of personnel, equipment, materials, or associated services to another jurisdiction for aiding in fire suppression or other emergency incidents.

531
Q

What is a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)?

A

A roll-call system designed to confirm the identity, location, and well-being of all personnel working at an incident.

532
Q

What is a qualified officer?

A

A member with Incident Command System certifications and other qualifications necessary for fireground responsibilities.

533
Q

What is a Rapid Intervention Team (RIT)?

A

A team of two or more firefighters dedicated solely to rescuing firefighters in distress.

534
Q

What is rehabilitation (Rehab)?

A

To restore or bring to a condition of health or useful and constructive activity.

535
Q

What is a risk assessment?

A

The process of identifying fireground hazards and their potential impact on firefighter safety.

536
Q

What are the Rules of Air Management (ROAM)?

A

A system used by firefighters to remain aware of how much breathing air is in the SCBA.

537
Q

What is size-up?

A

The initial and ongoing process of gathering and analyzing information critical to incident factors.

538
Q

What is span of control?

A

The number of resources for which a supervisor is responsible, usually expressed as a ratio of supervisors to individuals.

539
Q

What is staging in incident management?

A

Location established where resources can be placed while awaiting a tactical assignment.

540
Q

What is a tactical withdrawal?

A

The cancelation or withdrawal of a response based on a threat assessment.

541
Q

What is a task force?

A

A group of apparatus and personnel assembled and assigned to operate as a response and operations unit.

542
Q

What is a temporary refuge area (TRA)?

A

Area of relative safety for members to retreat during wildfire operations.

543
Q

What are temporary traffic control devices (TCD)?

A

Devices used to direct traffic around emergency scenes, such as cones and signs.

544
Q

What is a threat assessment?

A

An initial and continuing review of civil disorder conditions to determine response actions.

545
Q

What is the Traffic Incident Management System?

A

An all-hazard management program for managing roadway incidents.

546
Q

What is unified command (UC)?

A

An Incident Command System application used when more than one agency has incident jurisdiction.

547
Q

What is the purpose of the Rapid Intervention/Two-In Two-Out procedures?

A

To preclude firefighters from performing emergency rescue activities before an entire crew has assembled.

548
Q

What should members consider before initiating fire attack?

A

Life safety and available resources to determine the establishment of two in two out procedures.

549
Q

What is required for firefighters entering an IDLH environment?

A

At least two firefighters using SCBA must enter and remain in voice or visual contact with one another.

550
Q

What is the requirement for firefighters located outside the IDLH environment?

A

At least two additional firefighters should be outside, with one able to perform assistance or rescue activities.

551
Q

What should take priority during the initial phase of an incident?

A

Life safety should take priority.

552
Q

Can emergency rescue activities be performed before a designated IRIT is assembled?

A

Yes, if a rescue is identified during the initial phase of an incident.

553
Q

What should be done regarding tracking members in IDLH environments?

A

All members should be tracked and accounted for at all times, except when performing emergency rescue activities.

554
Q

What is the sole function of the RIT?

A

To prepare for, monitor, and provide effective emergency rescue for responders.

555
Q

What communication should be maintained between those in the IDLH environment and the RIT?

A

Visual and voice communication should be maintained as much as possible.

556
Q

What should RIT members not be involved in?

A

Any other duties that divert attention or resources away from their primary mission of responder rescue.

557
Q

What should happen when a Mayday broadcast is transmitted?

A

All non-emergency radio traffic shall cease so the Incident Commander can respond to the Mayday.