Fire Department Incident Safety Officer Flashcards
A ____ __ ____ ____ (_ _ _) is the individual assigned ans authorized by the fire chief as the manager of the health and safety program.
health and safety officer (HSO)
An ____ ____ ____ (_ _ _) is a member of the command staff responsible for monitoring ans assessing safety hazards or unsafe situations ans for developing measures to ensure personnel safety.
incident safety officer (ISO)
NIMS was developed through ___ ___ ___ ___ _ (_ _ _ -) to create and mandate a consistent nationwide approach to prepare for, respond to, and recover from domestic incidents regardless of cause, size, or complexity.
Homeland Security Presidential Directive 5 (HSPD-5)
In 1970, Congress passed the ___-___ __, which created the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA).
Williams-Steiger Act
THe roots of risk management and a dedicated safety officer in today’s fire service lie in the development and 1987 adoption of ___ ___, ___ __ ___ ____ ____ ___ __ ___ ___.
NFPA 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
As a companion document to NFPA 1500, ___ ___, ___ __ ___ ____ ____ ____, was created by the NFPA Fire Department Occupational Health and Safety Technical Committee.
NFPA 1501, Standard for Fire Department Safety Officer
Since 1977, an average of ___ firefighters die in the line of duty each year (1997-2013).
112
Some may argue that using data all the way back to 1977 does not reflect recent preventive efforts developed to improve firefighter safety. We have made progress: From 2004 to2013, the yearly average for LODDs drops to ___.
103
In fact, when viewed as the number of fire ground injuries per 1,000 fires, the number has been riding a roller-coaster, going up and down between __ and __ injuries per 1,000 fires over the past 30 years (and over the past 10 years).
22 and 25
The most common injuries for all fire service activities are ___, ___, and ____ ___, followed by ___, _____, and ____.
strains, sprains, and muscle pain
cuts, lacerations, and bruises
Firefighters who have survived an incident in which another firefighter was killed are considered at risk of experiencing ___-____ ___ ____ (_ _ _ _), a mental health disorder that can develop in those who have experienced a terrifying ordeal that involved physical harm.
post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD)
ISO Responsibilities Thinking of the ISO as the "\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_" for an incident can remind you of the ISO's incident responsibilities: \_\_ = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_ = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_ = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_ = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_ = \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
“hazard MEDIC”
M = Monitor the incident environment and activities
E = Evaluate hazard potentials
D = Develop preventive measures
I = Intervene when a threat exists
C = Communicate urgent and advisory safety messages
Creating a safe operational environment is dependent on three components (the triad): ____, ___, ___.
procedures, equipment, and peronnel.
A ____ ____ is defined in writing and can take on many forms: standard operating procedures (SOPs), standard operating guidelines (SOGs), departmental directives, temporary memorandums, and the like.
formal process
In this context, ____ are strict directives that must be followed with little or no flexibility, and _____ are adaptable templates that allow flexibility in application.
Procedures
Guidelines
An ____ ____ is a process or operation that is part of a department’s routine but that is not written.
informal process
An ___ can become a training outline, a tool to minimize liability, and certainly a tool to guide your members.
SOP
OSHA regulations. Known as ___ __ ____ ____ (_ _ _), these regulations often outline the equipment required for a given process to be accomplished.
Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
The protective (insulative) quality of structural gear is given as a relative value known as the _____ _____ _____ (_ _ _) rating.
thermal protective performance (TPP)
____ is the process of learning and applying knowledge and skills.
Training
____ is the process of developing one’s analytical ability using principles, concepts, and values.
Education
In many ways, it is ____ ____ that helps to shape an individual’s values and attitudes.
safety education
A ____ ____ is capable of changing a person’s value programming, often in the direction of a more healthy safety attitude.
traumatic death
____ can simply be defined as the chance of damage, injury, or loss.
Risk
___ ______ is the process of minimizing the chance, degree, or probability of damage, injury, or loss.
Risk management
____ is the probability that an injurious event can happen, and it can best be described as ___, ____, or ___ based on the number of times that a particular hazard is present or the number of times ijury results from the hazard.
Frequency
low, moderate, or high
_____ can be viewed as a harmful consequence or cost associated with injury or property damage from a given hazard.
Severity
The overall strategy of hazard control is called _____. _____ is accomplished using a hierarchy of controls to reduce the potential for accidents and injuries.
mitigation
The fire service _____ _____ refers to a preferred order of hazard control strategies:
- _______
- _______
- _______
- _______
- _______
mitigation hierarchy
- Elimination
- Reduction
- Adaptation
- Transfer
- Avoidance
Prior to eleimination, though, hazard _____ and _____ are the control methods most often employed at an incident.
adaptation and reduction
The actual action used for mitigation is called a ______. (e.g., PPE, fire streams, zoning, barriers, ventilation, shoring, lock-out/ tag out).
countermeasure
The ____ was established in 1896 to address a multitude of fire prevention and fire protection issues.
NFPA
It is important to note that NFPA standards are often used to help define what is _____ for fire service equipment, procedures, and professional qualifications.
“acceptable”
Additionally, NFPA standards could be -and have been- viewed by the courts as ____ _____ or the _____ __ ____ when considering legal questions.
common practice
standard of care
OSHA is part of the __ _____ __ ____ and is tasked with the creation and enforcement of workplace law.
U.S. Department of Labor
Development of national minimum consensus standards, codes, and guides. Also collects data and reports trends on a wide range of fire-related topics.
NFPA
Develop and enforce the Code of Federal Regulations (CFRs) dealing with occupational safety and health.
OSHA
Research, investigate, and recommend safe procedures, processes, and habits.
NIOSH
Develop and implement a national response plan.
DHS
Issue and enforce regulations and provide training for issues regarding hazardous materials and processes.
EPA
_____ is the safety and health research and educational arm of the federal government and is part of the _____ __ _____ _____ __ ____(___) under the Department of Health and Human Services.
NIOSH
Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
The devastating results of _____ _____ (____) ____ incidents (beginning generally in the 1970s) spurred the creation of the EPA to better prevent, respond to, and recover from hazmat incidents.
hazardous materials (hazmat)
A ____ is an enforceable rule of conduct that helps protect a society.
Law
A _____ ___ deals with rules of conduct in civil and criminal matters.
statutory law
____ ___ refers to a precedent established over time through the judicial process.
case law
A _____ typically outlines details and procedures that have the force of law issued by an executive government authority.
regulation
A ____ is a work of law established or adopted by a rule-making authority.
code
The term _____ can apply to any set of rules, procedures, or professional measurements that are established by an authority.
standard
A _____ is a publication that offers procedures, directions, or standards of care as a reasonable means to address a condition or situation.
guide
what is the NFPA standard that has become the “mother ship” of fire department safety and health because it ties together many other NFPA standards by referring to them by their applications.
NFPA 1500: Standard on Fire Department Occupational Safety and Health Program.
Requirements, responsibilities, functions, and authorities for the ISO are outlined in what document.
NFPA 1561: Standard on Emergency Service Incident Management System and Command Safety.
What are some major responsibilities of the ISO according to NFPA 1561?
- Participate in planning meetings
- Identify hazardous situations associated with the incident.
- Review the incident action plan for safety implications.
- Exercise emergency authority to stop and prevent unsafe acts.
- Investigate accidents that occurred within the incident area.
- assign assistants as necessary.
- Review and approve the medical plan.
- maintain a unit log.
As it relates to the ISO, the CFR emphasizes the need to have a written ___ ____ ___ for incidents involving hazmat, confined spaces, trenches, and hazardous energy emergency incidents.
site safety plan
For an IC to truly make a difference at an incident scene, the delegation of the safety function to an ISO needs to be _____.
proactive
The first __ ____ of an incident warrant close monitoring of firefighters and firefighting operations. The early appointment of an ___ gives the IC another set of eyes, another view point, and another consultant.
20 minutes
ISO
Generally speaking, a _____ _____ can be defined as one at which the initial response assignment is 100% committed and more resources are needed.
working incident
Once the ____ __ _____ grows past three, the IC should include an ISO.
span of control
NFPA ___ , NFPA ___ , and numerous requirements of the ____ ____ __ _____ _____ (___) give the ISO the authority to stop, alter, or terminate activities if an imminent threat exists.
1500
1561
OSHA Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
Tools of an ISO to do the job:
Radio/Phone High-visibility identification Personal protective equipment (PPE) Clipboard file box Zoning tape box light and other miscellaneous items
Granted, once collapse occurs, unpredictability increases because _____ ____ are no longer in a physical position to carry load as they were designed.
structural elements
Combined with smoke and fire observations, ISOs must apply skill to predict and communicate _____ _____ and establish _____ ____.
collapse potential
collapse zones
A ___ ___ refers to the weight of the building itself and anything permanently attached to it.
dead load
A ___ ___ refers to any force or weight, other than the building itself, that a building must carry or absorb.
Live load
Loads are then imposed on building materials. This imposition causes stress and strain on the materials- called ____.
force
An ____ ____ is imposed through the centroid of another object.
axial load
An ____ _____ is imposed off-center to another object.
eccentric load
A ____ ____ is imposed in a manner that causes another object to twist.
torsional load
The three types of forces are ____, _____, and _____.
compression, tension, and shear
A force that causes a material to be crushed or flattened axially through the material.
Compression
A force that causes a material to be stretched or pulled apart in line with the material.
Tension
A force that causes a material to be torn in opposite directions perpendicular or diagonal to the material.
Shear
The ____ (or _____-__-___ ____) of a material directly affects is fire resistance.
mass (surface-to-mass ratio)
Some materials can ____ yet remain strong, while others will actually break apart as they deform. Thus, material is classified as being ____ or ____ based on this reaction to imposed loads and resistance to forces.
deform
brittle or ductile
Materials that will fracture or fail as they are deformed or stressed past their design limits.
Brittle
Materials that will bend, deflect, or stretch- yet retain some strength- as a force is resisted.
Ductile
_____ ___ includes a host of products that consist of many pieces of native wood(chips, veneers and sawdust) glued together to make a sheet, a long ____(tress only grow so tall), or a strong _____.
Engineered wood
beam
column
Cold-drawn steel, such as cables, bolts, rebar, and lightweight fasteners, loses ___ of its strength at ___.
55%
800F
Extruded structural steel used for beams and columns loses ___ of its strength at ___.
50%
1,100F
Structural steel also elongates or expands as temperatures ___. At ____, a 100-foot long beam can elongate __ ____.
rise
1,100F
10 inches
When heated, this moisture content expands, causing the concrete to crack or____ . _____ refers to the crumbling and loss of concrete material when exposed to heat.
spall
Spalling
A ____ ___ supports only its own weight and is commonly used as a decorative finish.
veneer wall
The term”____” can be used for many things but in this case refers to a combination of the four basic materials, as well as various plastics, adhesives, and assembly materials.
composite
Although the wooden I-beam is structurally strong, it fails quickly when ___.
heated
A ____ is any structural element that transmits a compressive force axially through its center.
column
A structural element that transfers loads perpendicularly to its imposed load is called a ____.
beam
Loads placed on a beam create opposing forces as the beam tries to deflect: The top of the beam is subjected to a ______ ____ while the bottom of the beam is subjected to _____.
compressive force
tension
A beam that is supported at the two points near its ends.
Simple beam
a beam that is supported in three or more places.
continuous beam
a beam that is supported at only one end (or a beam that extends well past a support in such a way that the unsupported overhang places the top of the beam in tension and bottom in compression.
Cantilever beam
A beam that spans an opening in a load bearing masonry wall, such as garage door opening (often called a “header” in street slang.
Lintel
A beam that carries other beams
Girder
A series of triangles used to form an open-web structural element to act as a beam.
Truss
A series of beams placed perpendicularly to other trusses or beams to help support roof decking.
Purlin
This type is the most common truss used to form a peaked roof.
Triangular truss.
A _____ can be defined as a structural element used to attach other structural elements to one another.
connection
There are four construction influences that help the officer classify the building:
- Type of construction
- The Era or historical time period the building was built.
- The intended Use
- The Size of the building
The “five types” of buildings also known as the NFPA 220 system are:
Type 1: Fire Resistive Type II: Noncombustible Type III: Ordinary Type IV: Heavy Timber Type V: Wood frame
In a ___ _ (______) construction, the structural elements are of an approved noncombustible or limited combustible material with sufficient fire-resistive ratings to withstand the effects of fire and prevent its spread from story to story.
Type I (fire resistive)
Although no official definition exists, we can define a _____ _____ as one that is a mix of multiple NFPA 220 construction types or one that doesn’t fit into any of the five constructive types.
hybrid building
The following time periods represent significant changes in the history of building construction:
- The founders era:________
- The industrial era:_________
- the legacy era:__________
- The lightweight era:__________
- 1700s to WWI
- WWI to WWII
- WWII to roughly 1980
- 1980s to the present
In ____ ____, continuous wood studs run from the foundation to the roof, and floors are placed on a shelf, called a ribbon board, that hangs on the interior surface of the studs.
Balloon framing
____ ____ is achieved when a single-story wall is built and the next floor is built upon the tops of the studs, creating fire stopping to help minimize fire spread.
platform framing.
A ___ ___ is a non-load bearing wall that supports only itself and is used only to keep weather out.
curtain wall
In a ____ ____, the building can accept the failure of a single component and still retain some strength (like a curtain wall collapse).
partial collapse
A ____ _____ is the complete failure of the building to resist gravity.
general collapse
An ____ ____ is a strict order for all crews to immediately escape from a building interior or roof, leaving hose lines and tools that can impede rapid retreat behind.
Emergency evacuation
A ____ ____ is a directive for crews to exit a building interior or roof in a orderly manner, bringing hoses and tools along.
precautionary withdraw
Since then the fire service has acknowledged that changes have led to more severe content and structure fires-and more _____ entrapments of firefighters.
flashover
A sudden hostile fire event that occurs when all the surfaces and contents of a space reach their ignition temperature nearly simultaneously, resulting in full room fire involvement.
Flashover
Smoke leaving a structure has four key attributes: _____, _____, _____, and ______.
volume, velocity (pressure), density, and color.
Materials contributing smoke through _____ _____ are actually on fire, but the rapid oxidation hasn’t fully reduced the fuel.
incomplete combustion
Material contributing smoke through ____ ______ aren’t necessarily burning but are being chemically degraded by heat.
pyrolitic decomposition
_____ is the chemical breakdown of compounds into other substances by heat alone. _____ often leads to combustion
Pyrolysis
The term ____-____ is often used for pyrolysis. It is not, however, accurate, so we will refer to it as slang.
off-gassing
The solids (______) suspended in smoke are “high surface-to-mass” materials, meaning they have lots of surface area to collect heat and no mass to “sink” heat.
particulates
An ____ can be defined as a suspended or propelled liquid.
aerosol
It is important to note that some very common hydrocarbons in smoke can self-ignite as low as ____, but they often do not ignite because the particulates have made the smoke to rich to burn.
450F
There are hundreds of chemically named fire ____ in smoke, although most are transient and trace.
gases
Some gases if significant quantity that afect fire behavior are ____ ____, ____ _____, ____, _____, and _____ ____.
carbon monoxide(CO), hydrogen cyanide (HCN), benzene (C6H6), acrolein (C3H4O), and hydrogen sulfide (H2S).
The six phases of a ventilation-controlled fire :
- Ignition phase
- Initial growth phase
- Ventilation-limited phase
- Explosive growth phase
- Fully developed phase
- Decay phase
____ ____ states that the “Safety Officer shall monitor conditions, activities, and operations to determine if they fall within the criteria [of acceptable risk taking] as defined in the department’s risk management plan.”
NFPA 1561
_____ _____ is physical property whose loss will cause harm to the community. Examples may include a hospital, a significant employer (economic base), a utility infrastructure, or a place with historical significance.
Valued property
In many ways, the fire service has become the agency of ____ __ ___ ____ for events that affect the public.
first and last resort
Three levels of situational awareness:
- capturing current cues and clues
- Comprehending the situation.
- Predicting the future.
The process of observing others to develop knowledge, skill, or experience base.
vicarious learning
The degree of accuracy to which one’s perception of his or her current environment mirrors reality.
situational awareness (SA)
A mental model that suggests that many quick decisions are made using mental templates from previous experiences that fit the images you are currently witnessing.
recognition-primed decision making (RPD)
The unintended, and often sudden, release of stored, residual, or potential energy that will cause harm if contacted.
hazardous energy
The ____ of electrical systems is based on their being properly grounded, insulated, and circuit protected.
integrity
_____ is always trying to seek the path of least resistance to ground.
Electricity
_____ _____ is electrical energy that has established a path to ground through the earth and is energizing it.
Ground gradient
A downed power line may be energizing the earth in a concentric ring of up to ___ ___, depending on the voltage of the source, especially if the ground is wet or snowy.
30 feet
High-tension wires that seperate from anchor points can “____ ____” with tremendous force; that is, when the tension is released suddenly, the wire snaps, or whips, in a direction opposite to the tension force.
reel coil
Efforts to improve an individual’s strength, flexibility, and aerobics to help prevent overexertion at incidents can be defined as ____ ______.
work hardening
The three stressors that influence _____ are related to the environment, human physiology, and the quality of rehabilitation (rehab) efforts.
overextertion
Some define _____ as the science of adapting work or working conditions to a worker. Others define it as the study of problems associated with people adjusting to their work environment.
ergonomics
The cold reality is that firefighters don’t have the luxury of having an “_______ _______ ______” at an emergency scene.
ergonomically friendly workplace
The ____ ISO evaluates those stresses and , when appropriate, calls a “time out” to adjust the way firefighters have chosen to tackle the situation or to simply give them a break.
aware
_______ includes efforts to alter or adjust the environment, worker relationship, or task to reduce injury potential.
accommodation
_______ can be defined as an individual’s gradual process of becoming accustomed to an environment.
Acclimation
The human body is amazing with its many systems to regulate a normal (average) core temperature of _____.
98.6 F
Although medical literature varies, most agree that core temperatures above _____ or below ____ will start to affect physical performance-including reduced mental alertness or decision-making capability.
101 F
96 F
Typically, firefighters have used _____ _____ to reduce core temperatures during periods of rehab. _____ _____ includes the use of shade, air movement, and rest to bring down core temperatures.
passive cooling
_____ _____ is the process of using external methods or devices to reduce elevated body core temperatures.
active cooling
_____ _____ and _____ _____ lead the list of hundreds (if not thousands) of contaminants that interfere with oxygen intake, although the wearing of a SCBA during firefighting and overhaul makes this risk a nonissue.
Carbon monoxide
and
hydrogen cyanide
Firefighters engaged in strenuous physical activity while wearing PPE ensembles can sweat out over a ______ of water per hour.
quart.
For a cell to work efficiently, it must use a balance of the three essential ingredients:
1.
2.
3.
Oxygen
water
and Fuel
An intervention designed to mitigate against the physical, physiological, and emotional stress of firefighting in order to sustain a member’s energy, improve performance, and decrease the likelihood of on-scene injury or death.
NFPA definition of emergency scene rehab
emergency incident scene rehab
Standard on the rehabilitation process for members during emergency operations and training exercises. (2015)
NFPA 1584
Standard on emergency service incident management system and command safety (2014).
NFPA 1561
Standard on fire department safety officer.
NFPA 1521
An incident that involves unusually gruesome situations, serious firefighter injury, firefighter death, or other potential psychological stresses (now called an ________ _______ ______) is cause for the ISO to initiate, through the IC, a process of rotation and / or crew removal.
atypically stressfull incident
Five factors that are repeatedly to blame for LODDs, civilian losses, near misses, and significant injuries. These are dubbed the NIOSH 5. they in include inadequate and improper:
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
- Risk Assessment
- Incident command
- Accountability
- Communications
- standard operating guidelines (SOGs), or failure to follow SOGs
A _____ ______ can be defined as the option or approach that an ISO uses to help remind firefighters to be situationally aware and to perform in a safe and predictable manner.
safety trigger
_____ ______ requires that the ISO and any assistant safety officers (ASOs) be readily identifiable at the incident scene.
NFPA 1561
Safety issues requiring intervention can be classified as an imminent threat or potential threat.
An ________ _______ is an act or condition that is a danger to persons or property that is so urgent and severe that it requires immediate corrective or preventative action.
imminent threat
A ________ _______ is an activity, condition, or inaction that is judged to have the capability, but not immediacy, to cause harm to persons or property and thus warrants monitoring and/or operational modification.
potential threat
A ____ _______ can be defined as awareness or suggestive communications made to crews or command staff that cause them to modify their observations and activities to prevent injury from a potential threat.
Not to be used when an imminent threat exists.
soft intervention
A ____ _______ can be defined as a direct order to immediately stop, alter, suspend, or withdraw personnel, activities, and operations due to an imminent threat.
firm intervention
As a rule, the ISO should have face-to-face communication with the IC every __ _____ at routine incidents and more frequently if conditions or factors change.
15 minutes
ICs are responsible for developing and communicating an _____ that reflects the overall strategy, tactics, risk management, and responder safety objectives. (NFPA 1561, 5.3.12)
IAP
In more complex situations, the ISO will be required to prepare specific forms that are included in an IAP packet. Namely, the ISO may have to prepare the following forms:
-ICS 208: Safety message/plan
-ICS 215A: IAP safety (risk) analysis
-ICS 214: Activity log
-Site safety plan (hazmat incidents and technical rescues)
-ICS 206: Medical plan (reviewed by the ISO)
The incident can be handled with local resources and without the activation of general staff positions of the ICS. Incident duration is one operational period the rarely exceeds a few hours.
Type 5 incident (local)
The incident requires more than several resources (may include mutual aid), and the IC activates command and general staff functions as needed. the incident is limited to one operational period. No IAP is required, but documentation should begin for operational briefings and priorities.
Type 4 incident (local)
Capability needs have exceeded the abilities of initial resources, and IC positions are being added to match the complexity of the incident. Command staff, general staff, division/group supervisors, and unit leaders are being used. A preorganized and trained IMT assumes the management of initial actions where they exist. Multiple operational periods are being considered or developed. A written IAP is required.
Type 3 incident (regional event)
The incident requires the response of resources from out of the area, multiple operational periods are involved, and most or all of the ICS positions are being filled. Preorganized and trained IMT is assigned. Guidelines suggest incident involving less than 200 personnel per operational period or 500 total.
Type 2 incident (multi-region, state, or initial federal event)
This incident is the most complex. All ICS positions are activated and branches are established. Preorganized and trained IMT manages the incident.
Type 1 incident (federal event)
An _____ ______ is a template that outlines a mental or physical process that considers inputs that lead to an putput or outcomes.
action model
A thinking process of having a defined starting point and a desired ending point (goal accomplishment). Inputs are considered that may or may not change the path to accomplishing the goal. At some point the person making decisions may reach his or her maximum capacity for input, causing stress.
linear thinking
It is imperative that ISOs create an environment in which they can stay open to multiple inputs and maintain a high degree of situation scanning and awareness.
Cyclic thinking
Exploratory examination of the incident scene conditions and activities.
Reconnaissance
Judgements are often _______, and others may not perceive things the same way you do.
perceptive
Just as incidents are _____, so must the evaluation of conditions and activities.
dynamic
Key phrases that signal the completion of significant tactical objectives.
incident benchmark
Failure to work within the framework of the action plan is a form of _______.
freelancing
Fires in void spaces, in basements, and above drop ceilings pose rapid ________ ______.
collapse threats
The _______ _______ is a classification given to the probability that a victim will survive a given environment within a given building space or compartment.
rescue profile
Spaces within a building where a victim would be in danger of harm from the incident and the likelihood of survival is good with a rescue effort.
High rescue profile
Spaces within the building that present a danger to occupants and rescuers but there is no compelling evidence to indicate a high or zero rescue profile.
Marginal rescue profile
Spaces or areas where conditions are simply not survivable.
Zero rescue profile
The number one tactical priority must be controlling ______ and ______ (for search, fire attack, and firefighter safety) in buildings with central halls or stairways.
smoke and heat
The cancer rate is _____ that of the general population, and we know the causes.
twice
The constellation of elements that must be taken into consideration at a structure fire, including issues associated with the building’s layout, size, number of floors, access options, and other features.
Building geometry
An organized reporting activity (usually via radio communication) designed to account for all personnel working an incident. To be truly effective, it should include radio transmissions that include confirmation of the assignment, location, and number of people in each assignment.
personnel accountability report (PAR)
The methods of attack employed for wildland fires are numerous but are typically classified as ______ or ________.
direct or indirect
“look up and live” applies to ______ and _______ _____.
snags
and
power lines
At most wildland fires, the ISO is not in a good position to evaluate operational effectiveness because of _________, __________, and ________.
distance, terrain, and smoke.
A wildland fire term used to describe the sudden advancement and increase in fire intensity due to wind, prewarmed fuels, or a topographical feature such as a narrow canyon or “chimney”.
blowup
All constructed or natural barriers and treated fire edges used to control a wildland fire.
control line
The part of a control line that is scraped or dug to mineral soil.
fire line
A violent convection caused by a large continuous area of intense fire. They are characterized by violent surface in-drafts near the fire perimeter and occasional tornado-like whirls.
fire storm
A sudden. but short lived, rise in wildland fire intensity that is usually attributed to wind, fuel, or topographical changes.
flare up
A preliminary control line hastily constructed as an emergency measure to check fire spread.
scratch line
The burning of the foliage of a single tree, or small bunch of trees, from the bottom up (sometimes called “candling”).
torching
Water or a water agent sprayed on the ground as a temporary control line for a low-intensity fire or to ignite a burn-out.
wet line
Also referred to as the I-zone; areas where homes and businesses have minimal separation from, or are interspersed with, natural growing wildland areas.
wildland-urban interface (WUI)
_______ incidents have become the most regulated of all the incidents to which fire departments might respond.
Hazmat
Enviromental integrity considerations at the hazmat incident typically include the weather, infrastructure stability, container condition, and hazardous energy.
Hazmat technician crews are required by law (the OSHA CFR) to preplan a ______ ________ paths and escape areas that are specific to a given incident.
rapid withdrawal
A person who meets or exceeds the NFPA 472 requirements for a hazardous materials technician and is trained in the responsibilities of the ISO position as it relates to hazmat response.
assistant safety officer-hazmat (ASO-HM)
A hazmat zone established for obvious or potentially contaminated victims who are awaiting mass decontamination efforts and assistance.
contaminated safe refuse area
An area where progressive decontamination is accomplished for hazmat teams (and support personnel)
contamination reduction zone
An area where progressive mass decontamination is taking place for victims.
decontamination corridor
A hazmat zone used for technicians who are operating in a hot zone. The dedicated technician rapid intervention team often stages there.
escape area
The application of special knowledge, skills, and equipment to safely resolve unique and/or complex rescue situations
technical rescue
Complex incidents requiring specially trained personnel and equipment to complete the mission.
Technical rescue incident
PG 217 CFR codes for technical rescue
The competencies for confined space, trench, and cave-ins are defined in various chapters of NFPA ____.
NFPA 1670, Standard on Operations and Training for Technical Search and Rescue Incidents.
LCES mnemonic for devoloping safety briefings for cave-ins and trench rescue.
L- Lookouts
C- Communications
E- Escape routes
S- Safe Zones
A collapse in which victims are easily accessible and trapped by surface debris. Loads are minimal and easily moved by rescuers. The threat of secondary collapse is minimal.
basic/surface collapse
A collapse in which stressed concrete, reinforced concrete, and steel girders are impeding access. Included are collapses that require the response of urban search and rescue teams and specialized equipment, and collapses that threaten other structures or that involve the possibility of significant secondary collapse.
heavy collapse
An approach to incident response used whin victims have been rescued (or recovered when appropiate) yet the conditions are such that a potential for further harm exists and must be addressed.
incident stabilization mode
A collapse in which usually a light-frame (wood) partition collapses and common fire department equipment can access or shore areas for search and extrication.
light collapse
A collapse of ordinary construction that involves masonry materials and heavy wood.
moderate collapse
An organized system in which a working team is replaced with another working team that is already dialed in and ready to replace them. Once replaced, the rotated workers go to rehab, while a crew from rehab rotated into the vacated on-deck position.
on-deck system
An approach to incident response used when victims have been determined to be deceased or the conditions present are incompatible with survivabilty.
recovery mode
An approach to incident response used when victims obviously need rescue and/or the conditions present indicate that search and rescue operation can lead to savable victims.
rescue mode
An object that can absorb the impact of a secondary crash to protect rescuers.
traffic barrier
