Company Officer Flashcards

1
Q

A person that leads or directs a unit.

A

Leader

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2
Q

Individual who accomplishes organizational objectives through effective and efficient handling of material and human resources.

A

Manager

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3
Q

A person who is responsible for directing the performance of other employees.

A

Supervisor

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4
Q

______ _______ is commonly used in the fire and emergency services, defined as having an uninterrupted series of steps or a chain of command.

A

Scalar Structure

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5
Q

Those who deliver services to the public or external customers; typical functions include fire suppression, EMS, inspections, education, and investigations.

A

Line personnel

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6
Q

Those who provide support to the line personnel and internal or external customers; typical functions are training, logistics, auxiliary organizations, and personnel administration.

A

Staff personnel

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7
Q

_____ refers to the legal ability of an individual to make and implement decisions for which the individual is held accountable.

A

Authority

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8
Q

______ ______ is when decisions are made by one person at the top of the structure.

A

Centralized Authority

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9
Q

_____ ______ is when decisions are made at a lower level with the effects of the decisions reported through the structure.

A

Decentralized Authority

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10
Q

____ __ _____ means that each person with in an organization reports to one, and only one, designated authority.

A

Unity of Command

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11
Q

_____ __ _____ consists of dividing large jobs into smaller tasks that are assigned to specific individuals.

A

Division of Labor

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12
Q

Assistance from agencies, industries, or fire departments that are not part of the agency having jurisdiction over the incident.

A

Additional Resources

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13
Q

Relates to the empowered duties of an official to perform certain tasks. In the case of a fire inspector, the level of an inspector’s authority is commensurate with the enforcement obligations of the governing body.

A

Authority

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14
Q

Written agreement between two or more agencies to automatically dispatch predetermined resources to any fire or other emergency reported in the geographical area covered by the agreement.

A

Automatic aid

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15
Q

Person whose primary employment is as a firefighter within a fire department.

A

Career Firefighter

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16
Q

Order of rank and authority in the fire and emergency services.

A

Chain of Command

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17
Q

Political subdivision of a state, province, or territory for administrative purposes and public safety. Also known as Perishes.

A

County

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18
Q

National level of governments such as the U.S. and Canada

A

Federal

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19
Q

Designated geographic area where fire protection is provided, usually through a supporting tax or an area where fire prevention codes are enforced.

A

Fire District

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20
Q

Organizational principle that allows workers to report to more than one supervisor without violating the unity of command principle.

A

Functional Supervision

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21
Q

Functional division of the lowest level of local government.

A

Municipal

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22
Q

Reciprocal assistance from one fire and emergency services agency to another during an emergency, based upon a prearranged agreement; generally made at the request of the receiving agency.

A

Mutual Aid

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23
Q

Person who responds to fires and emergencies and is paid for the responses the make on a response-to-response basis.

A

Paid-on-Call Personnel

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24
Q

The process of going around a link in the chain of command to deal with an issue.

A

Sidestepping

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25
Q

Notifying one’s supervisor the one wishes to take an issue to the supervisor’s supervisor.

A

Skip level Notification

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26
Q

Territory occupied by one of the constituent administrative districts of a nation whose rights are defined by a constitution.

A

State/ Provincial

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27
Q

Term that describes the governmental structure of Native American and Aboriginal Peoples of North America.

A

Tribal

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28
Q

An evaluation method that incorporates feedback from multiple sources such as the worker, his/ her peers, superiors, subordinates, and customers.

A

360-degree Feedback Evaluation

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29
Q

An individual’s ability to correctly perceive and label their own and others’ emotions. Also known as Emotional Quotient (EQ)

A

Emotional Intelligence (EI)

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30
Q

System of moral principles governing the perception of right and wrong.

A

Ethics

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31
Q

Ability to motivate other people to follow your example and do the things that you want them to do.

A

Leadership

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32
Q

Process of accomplishing organizational objectives through effective and efficient handling of resources; official, sanctioned leadership.

A

Management

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33
Q

A statistical tool used in project management that is designed to analyze and represent the tasks involved in completing a given project.

A

Program (or Project) Evaluation and Review Technique (PERT) Chart

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34
Q

Program to help employees and their families with work or personal problems.

A

Employee Assistance Program (EAP)

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35
Q

A complaint against management by one or more personnel concerning an actual, alleged, or perceived injustice.

A

Grievance

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36
Q

A petition to a federal, state, or local agency for access to records concerning a specific topic, individual, or organization.

A

Freedom of Information Act (FOIA) Request

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37
Q

Statement that identifies a general philosophy; may be included as part of a policy.

A

Guideline

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38
Q

Any memory technique that is used to assist a learner in properly encoding and recalling vital information; is primarily used to associate seemingly dissimilar items or concepts.

A

Mnemonic Device

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39
Q

Organizational principle that is developed and adopted as a basis for decision-making.

A

Policy

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40
Q

Outline of the steps that must be performed in order to properly follow an organizational policy.

A

Procedure

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41
Q

Any writing containing information relating to the conduct of government or the performance of any governmental or proprietary function prepared, used, or retained by any state or local agency, regardless of form or characteristics.

A

Public Record

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42
Q

A doctrine holding individuals responsible, ethically, for actions they may take (acts), or do not take (omissions), with foreseen results.

A

Acts or Omissions

43
Q

The process of addressing the larger issue of preventable injury that is occurring in a community.

A

Community Risk Reduction (CRR)

44
Q

Reactive maintenance or repairs that are performed after a breakdown or mechanical failure.

A

Corrective Maintenance

45
Q

Quality of an organization’s relationship with individuals who have contact with the organization. There are internal customers such as the various levels of personnel and trainees, and external customers such as other organizations and the public.

A

Customer Service

46
Q

Statistical characteristics of a given population, such as average age, income, education level, ethnicity, nationality, and religion.

A

Demographics

47
Q

The inclusion of people of different races or cultures in a group or organization.

A

Diversity

48
Q

Scheduled, ongoing, routine inspection and maintenance that is intended to prolong the life and to prevent the breakdown of apparatus, equipment, and facilities; does not involve repairing or replacing damaged or worn-out components.

A

Preventive Maintenance

49
Q

Unplanned, uncontrolled event resulting from unsafe acts and/or occupational conditions; can result in injury death, or property damage.

A

Accident

50
Q

Cancer-producing substance.

A

Carcinogen

51
Q

Condition, substance, or device that can directly cause injury or loss; the source of a risk.

A

Hazard

52
Q

Allowing firefighters or rescuers to rest, rehydrate, and recover during an incident; also refers to a station at an incident where personnel can rest, rehydrate, and recover.

A

Rehabilitation

53
Q

(1) Likelihood of suffering harm from a hazard; exposure to a hazard. The potential for failure or loss. (2) Estimated effect that a hazard would have community; likelihood of a hazard event resulting in an adverse condition that causes injury or damage. Often expressed as high, moderate, or low or in terms of potential monetary losses associated with the intensity of the hazard.

A

Risk

54
Q

Analyzing exposure to hazards, implementing appropriate risk management techniques, and monitoring their result.

A

Risk Management

55
Q

Instructional/ Teaching method in which the instructor/educator actually performs a task or skill, usually explaining the procedure step-by-step.

A

Demonstration

56
Q

Teaching outline or plan for teaching that is a step-by-step guide for presenting a lesson or presentation.

A

Lesson plan

57
Q

Operation of fire service training or suppression covering one or several aspects of fire fighting.

A

Practical Training Evolution

58
Q

Occupancy classification of buildings, structures, or compartments (rooms) that are used for the gathering of 50 or more persons.

A

Assembly

59
Q

Instantaneous explosion or rapid burning of super heated gases that occurs when oxygen is introduced into an oxygen-depleted confined space. The stalled combustion resumes with explosive force; may occur because of inadequate or improper ventilation procedures.

A

Backdraft

60
Q

A collection of rules and regulations that has been enacted by law in a particular jurisdiction.

A

Codes

61
Q

Area surrounding a heat source in which there is sufficient air available to feed a fire.

A

Combustion zone

62
Q

Physical flow or transfer of heat energy from one body to another, through direct contact or an intervening medium, from the point where the heat is produced to another location, or from a region of high temperature to a region of low temperature.

A

Conduction

63
Q

Transfer of heat by the movement of heated fluids or gases, usually in an upward direction.

A

Convection

64
Q

The drawing in an transporting of solid particles or gases by the flow of a fluid.

A

Entrainment

65
Q

System of detection devices, wiring, and supervisory equipment used for detecting fire or products of combustion, and then signaling that these elements are present.

A

Fire Detection and Alarm System

66
Q

Systems designed to act directly upon the hazard to mitigate or eliminate it, not simply to detect its presence and/or initiate an alarm.

A

Fire Extinguishing Systems

67
Q

Maximum amount of heat that can be released if all fuel in a given area is consumed; expressed in pounds per square foot and obtained by dividing the amount of fuel present by the floor area.

A

Fire Loads

68
Q

(1) Stage of a fire at which all surfaces and objects within a space have been heated to their ignition temperature, and flame breaks out almost at once over the surface of all objects in the space. (2) Rapid transition from the growth stage to the fully developed stage.

A

Flashover

69
Q

Composed of at least one intake opening, one exhaust opening, and the connecting volume between the openings. The difference in pressure determines the direction of the flow. Heat and smoke in a high pressure area will flow toward areas of lower pressure.

A

Flow Path

70
Q

A fire with adequate oxygen in which the heat release rate and growth rate are determined by the characteristics of the fuel, such as quantity and geometry.

A

Fuel-Limited

71
Q

(1) Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules in solids or liquids that is transferred from one body to another as a result of a temperature difference between the bodies, such as from the sun to the earth. (2) Form of energy associated with the motion of atoms or molecules and capable of being transmitted through solid and fluid media by conduction, through fluid media by convection, and through empty space by radiation.

A

Heat

72
Q

Flames in the hot gas layer that indicate the gas layer is within its flammable range and has begun to ignite; often observed immediately before a flashover.

A

Isolated Flames

73
Q

Level at a compartment opening where there is an equal difference in pressure exerted by expansion and buoyancy of hot smoke flowing out of the opening and the inward pressure of cooler, ambient temperature air flowing in through the opening.

A

Neutral plane

74
Q

Local or municipal law that applies to persons and things of the local jurisdiction; a local agency act that has the force of a statute; different from law that is enacted by federal or state/provincial legislatures.

A

Ordinance

75
Q

The chemical decomposition of a solid material by heating.

A

Pyrolysis

Pyrolysis precedes combustion of a solid fuel.

76
Q

(1) Transmission or transfer of heat energy from one body to another body at a lower temperature through intervening space by electromagnetic waves, such as infrared thermal waves, radio waves, or X-rays. Also known as radiated heat. (2) Energy from a radioactive source emitted in the form of waves or particles, as a result of the decay of an atomic nucleus; Process known as radioactivity.

A

Radiation

77
Q

Condition in which the unburned fire gases that have accumulated at the top of a compartment ignite and flames propagate through the hot-gas layer or across the ceiling. These superheated gases are pushed, under pressure, away from the fire area and into uninvolved areas where they mix with oxygen.

A

Rollover

78
Q

Form of fire gas ignition; the ignition of accumulated flammable products of combustion and air that are within their flammable range.

A

Smoke Explosion

79
Q

System that limits the exposure of building occupants to smoke; may include elements such as compartmentation, control of smoke migration from the affected area, and a means of removing smoke to the exterior of the building.

A

Smoke Management System

80
Q

A set of principles, protocols, or procedures that explain how to do something or provide a set of minimum standards to be followed.

A

Standard

81
Q

Wet or dry system of pipes in a large single-story or multistory building, with fire hose outlets installed in different areas or on different levels of a building to be used by firefighters and/or building occupants.

A

Standpipe and Hose System

82
Q

Water pump used in private fire protection to provide water supply to installed fire protection systems.

A

Stationary Fire Pump

83
Q

Outcome of combustion in a confined space in which gases tend to form into layer, according to temperature, gas density, and pressure with the hottest gases found at the ceiling and the coolest gases found at the floor level.

A

Thermal layering

84
Q

A public or private water supply designed to provide adequate water at sufficient pressure to facilities equipped with sprinklers and/or standpipe systems.

A

Water Supply System

85
Q

Noncombustible barriers or dividers hung from the ceiling in large open areas that are designed to minimize the mushrooming effect of heat and smoke and impede the flow of heat.

A

Draft Curtains

86
Q

(1) Place or means of exiting a structure or vehicle. (2) Escape or Evacuation

A

Egress

87
Q

Mechanical system used to provide environmental control within a structure and the equipment necessary to make it function; usually a single, integrated unit with a complex system of ducts throughout the building.

A

Heating, Ventilating, and Air Conditioning (HVAC) System

88
Q

Architectural drawing showing the overall project layout of building areas, driveways, fences, fire hydrants, and landscape features for a given plot of land; view is directly from above.

A

Plot Plan

89
Q

Evidence presented in a trial that tends to prove a factual matter through inference by proving other events or circumstances.

A

Circumstantial Evidence

90
Q

Anything that can taint physical evidence during a fire investigation.

A

Contamination

91
Q

Type of evidence provided by a witness who obtained it through his or her senses.

A

Direct evidence

92
Q

(1) One of three requirements of evaluation; the information, data, or observation that allows the investigator to compare what was expected to what actually occurred. (2) in law, something legally presented in court that bears on the point in question. (3) Information collected and analyzed by an investigator.

A

Evidence

93
Q

Right of entry stating that the fire department does not require a warrant to enter a property to suppress a fire, or to remain on the property for a reasonable amount of time afterward in order to determine the origin and cause of the fire.

A

Exigent Circumstances

94
Q

Written or unwritten plan for the disposition of an incident; contains the overall strategic goals, tactical objectives, and support requirements for a given operational period during and incident.

A

Incident action plan (IAP)

95
Q

Tangible or real objects that are related to the incident.

A

Physical Evidence

96
Q

Legal access to private property obtained in one of five ways: exigent circumstances, consent, administrative search warrant, criminal search warrant, or contractual entry agreement.

A

Right of Entry

97
Q

Term which refers to evidence that is destroyed, damaged, altered, or otherwise not preserved by someone who has responsibility for the evidence.

A

Spoliation

98
Q

______ is the process of providing subordinates with the authority, direction, and resources needed to complete and assignment.

A

Delegation

99
Q

This leadership style provides clear directions of what, how, and when tasks will be performed.

A

Autocratic

100
Q

_____ leaders solicit input form their followers before making decisions.

A

Democratic

Also known as participative leadership.

101
Q

_____-_____ leaders do not make decisions or avoid making them. Followers are left to make decisions and solve problems for themselves.

A

Laissez-faire

102
Q

Leadership style in which organizational change is accomplished by followers’commitment to the leader’s vision and inspiration

A

Transformational

103
Q

Sometimes called managerial leadership, this leadership style enforces compliance through rewards and punishments.

A

Transactional