Policies Flashcards

1
Q

Pursuant to __________, Firefighters are appointed members of this department and are authorized to exercise the following authority pursuant to applicable Oklahoma law:

A

11 O.S. § 29-103

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2
Q

Any chief officer may relieve a member under his/her command from duty when, in his/her judgment, an offense committed is sufficiently serious to warrant immediate action.

A
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3
Q

The oath of office shall be filed as prescribed by law (51 O.S. § 36.3).

A
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4
Q

Fire Code - 2018 edition of the International Fire Code as adopted and amended by the State of Oklahoma (OAC 748:20-4-1)., and adopted by Midwest City (Ordinance § 15-55)

A
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5
Q

A person in a position of authority regarding hiring, transfer, suspension, promotion, discharge, assignment, reward, or discipline of other department members, directing the work of other members, or having the authority to adjust grievances.

A

Supervisor

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6
Q

The term “supervisor” may also include any person (e.g., firefighter-in-charge, lead, or senior worker) given responsibility for the direction of the work of others without regard to a formal job
title, rank, or compensation.

A
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7
Q

Each Assistant Chief will ensure that members under his/her command are aware of any Policy Manual revision.

A
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8
Q

The Midwest City Fire Department shall have a medical director who is a fully licensed, non-restricted Doctor of Medicine or Doctor of Osteopathy in the State of Oklahoma (OAC 310:641-15-13).

A
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9
Q

Generally, each member is accountable to a single supervisor at any time for a given assignment or responsibility. Any supervisor may temporarily direct the subordinate of another supervisor where specifically delegated or if an operational need exists.

A
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10
Q

The Fire Marshal or designee will develop and maintain an EAP and FPP to provide for the safety of department members and visitors in the event of an emergency. The EAP and FPP will address the specific requirements contained in CFR and Oklahoma Department of Labor rules (29 CFR 1910.38; 29 CFR 1910.39; OAC 380: 40-1-2) and will address all buildings, facilities, and regular places of work or visitor access that are controlled by the Department.

A
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11
Q

The objectives of the training program are to:
(a) Enhance the level of emergency services to the public.
(b) Increase the technical expertise and overall effectiveness of department members.
(c) Provide for continued professional development of department members.
(d) Reduce risk and enhance safety.

A
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12
Q

Email may, depending upon the individual content, be a public record under the Oklahoma Open Records Act (51 O.S. § 24A.2) or a record under the Records Management Act (67 O.S. § 201 et seq.) and must be managed in accordance with the established records retention schedule and in compliance with state law.

A
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13
Q

A PIA should be completed within 30 days of an incident and may result in recommendations for changes to procedures, staffing, equipment use, policy, and/or training to better enable the Department to serve the community.

A
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14
Q

An incident “hot wash” should be performed at the incident scene prior to the release of equipment or personnel. A hot wash is a meeting of all involved personnel on-scene. It is an informal briefing of the incident, the actions taken, and problems encountered.

A
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15
Q

A building or occupancy that is unusually dangerous in terms of life loss, or that has a high potential for property damage.

A

Target hazard

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16
Q
  • The individual designated by the Fire Chief as having custody of and responsibility
    for maintaining the petty cash fund.
A

Custodian

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17
Q

A reserve of money established to make small purchases when payment by
purchase order or voucher is not practical.

A

Petty cash fund

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18
Q

Maximum dollar amount for purchases. Petty cash expenditures should be limited to
no more than $100.

A
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19
Q

All incident-related activities should be managed
in accordance with established ICS/NIMS methods and procedures (63 O.S. § 683.2).

A
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20
Q

The Fire Chief should ensure the Department adopts written ICS/NIMS procedures that are
compatible with neighboring jurisdictions. These procedures should be available to members (63
O.S. § 695.4).

A
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21
Q
  • Any call for service or assistance involving fire, explosion, or violent
    rupture; human rescue; human entrapment; illness or injury; hazardous materials release or
    threat of contamination; flooding; threatened or actual acts of violence; any explosive, bomb, or
    threatened bombing; any act of terrorism; any natural disaster; or any other circumstance that
    presents a threat to life-safety or to property.
A

Emergency response

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22
Q

Fire personnel dispatched to an emergency shall proceed immediately, shall continuously operate
emergency lighting equipment, and shall sound the siren as reasonably necessary (47 O.S. §
11-106).

A
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23
Q

Responding with emergency lights and siren does not relieve personnel of the duty to continue to
drive with due regard for the safety of all persons

A
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24
Q

Emergency vehicle operators shall exercise sound judgment and care, with due regard for life and
property, while operating a vehicle en route to an emergency response (47 O.S. § 11-106)

A
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25
Q

In addition, emergency vehicle operators should reduce speed at all intersections and should come
to a complete stop at all blind street intersections or intersections where there is either a red light,
a flashing red light, or a stop sign (47 O.S. § 11-106).

A
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26
Q

If, in the judgment of either individual, the roadway conditions or
traffic congestion do not permit such a response without unreasonable risk, the response may
be continued without the use of red lights and siren at the legal speed limit. In such an event,
the Company Officer should ensure Emergency Communications Center is promptly notified.

A
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27
Q

A roll call of all operations members assigned to an
incident at specified times or during a strategy changea PAR is designed to account for each
member’s location and activity and to verify his/her safety.

A

Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)

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28
Q

A written personnel accountability system, such as the Incident Command System (ICS) Form
ICS-201 for Incident Commanders (ICs) or some similar process, should be used and a status
board should be maintained for appropriate incident level. Individual crew names are kept in the
Incident Command Vehicle.

A
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29
Q

Personnel should be accounted for from the time
of dispatch to the time of demobilization

A
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30
Q

Division or group supervisors should be assigned to keep track of all crews under their supervision.
Company Officers should know the location and assignment of each member in their crew.

A
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31
Q

Ongoing, routine strategic and tactical accountability at all emergency incidents, including wildland
fires, should be accomplished through periodic reporting or visual observation. This can be
accomplished through concise reports that include conditions, actions and needs, also called a
CAN report.

A
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32
Q

Members should also make the following reports:
* Emergency situations
* Inability to meet objective with revised timeline and/or resource requests
* Notification of completed actions
* Change in strategy
* Change in fire conditions, such as crossing planned control lines

A
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33
Q

For any IDLH incidents, a PAR should be conducted by the Incident Commander within the first 15
minutes or when appropriate at the IC’s discretion of an incident and every 20 minutes thereafter
for personnel at the scene.

A
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34
Q

This policy (Rapid Intervention/Two -in two-out) applies to all members assigned to an incident and is designed to ensure immediate
assistance for members who become lost, trapped, or injured by adhering to the two-in/two-out
standard and designating rapid intervention Teams (RITs) (29 CFR 1910.134(g)(4)), NFPA 1500
and NFPA 1710.

A
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35
Q

Any atmosphere that poses an immediate
threat to life, would cause irreversible adverse health effects, or would impair an individual’s ability
to escape from a dangerous atmosphere. Interior atmospheric conditions at structure fires beyond
the incipient stage are considered IDLH, as are a variety of rescue types.

A

Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)

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36
Q

A team of at least two members located outside the IDLH
atmosphere to initially monitor and provide emergency rescue for responders until a larger, more
formalized rapid intervention crew (RIT) is created. One of the two members may be assigned
to an additional role, as long as the individual is able to perform assistance or rescue activities
without jeopardizing the safety or health of any firefighter at the incident. An IRIT is also known
as On Deck.

A

Initial rapid intervention Team(IRIT)

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37
Q
  • The nationally adopted “call for help” term used to indicate that an emergency responder
    is in a situation of imminent peril where he/she is in need of immediate help.
A

Mayday

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38
Q

A forward staged and ready crew available for any immediate needed tactical
assignment including but not limited to affecting or assisting in the rescue of a distressed,
disoriented or incapacitated firefighter.

A

ON Deck

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39
Q

An assignment to a crew of two or more that will serve as the
dedicated firefighter rescue resource for the fire ground or division. Once a crew is assigned RIT
no other duties may be assigned that could compromise the state of readiness or capability
of RIT responsibilities.

A

Rapid Intervention Team (RIT)

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40
Q

Prior to initiating fire atttack, members should consider life safety and available resources to
determine the establishment of two in two out procedures (29 CFR 1910.134(g)(4)).

A
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41
Q

At least two additional firefighters should be located outside the IDLH environment.
-One of the two outside firefighters may be assigned to an additional role so
long as the individual is able to perform assistance or rescue activities without
jeopardizing the safety or health of any firefighter working at the incident.

A
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42
Q

RIT members should not be involved in any other duties that divert attention or resources away from their primary mission of responder rescue.

A
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43
Q

Additional companies may be assigned to the RIT as conditions warrant. For large incidents with multiple points of entry, multiple RITs should be considered.

A
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44
Q

The Incident Commander (IC), scene supervisor, or senior ranking member has the authority to
initiate a tactical withdrawal and the responsibility for ensuring that all members on-scene or at
risk due to the threat are notified of the action. Authority for the decision resides primarily with on-scene personnel and should not be delayed while seeking approval or confirmation from a higher
authority, who may not be at the incident scene.

A
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45
Q

If a tactical withdrawal
is initiated at a time that members are providing medical services to sick or injured patients, those
members should, whenever practicable, attempt to maintain their care of medical patients and
evacuate those patients as part of the withdrawal process

A
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46
Q

In the event that violence or the threat of violence forces members to abandon any patient under
their care, the involved member should immediately notify the appropriate law enforcement agency
of the location of the patient and request immediate assistance in securing the scene to allow for
safe and timely medical treatment and evacuation of the patient.

A
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47
Q

The time elapsed between receipt of the alarm or telephone call and
the dispatch of emergency response units.

A

Dispatch processing time

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48
Q
  • The time elapsed between the emergency response unit beginning travel to the
    emergency and when the emergency response unit arrives.
A

Travel time

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49
Q

The time elapsed between Emergency Communications Center notifying
firefighters of the emergency and when the emergency response unit begins travel.

A

Turnout time

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50
Q

The time elapsed between the dispatch center receiving the first notification of
the alarm and the arrival of the first emergency response unit. Response time combines dispatch
processing, turnout, and travel times.

A

Response time

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51
Q

Time frame from which dispatch receives the 911 call until all units are on-scene.

A

Full response Time

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52
Q

Turnout time for Fire and/vs. EMS

A

80 sec. fire
60 sec. EMS

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53
Q

Travel time for first arriving Unit vs. full response

A

4 min. travel time for 1st due
8 min. travel for full response

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54
Q

Time frame from which dispatch receives the 911 call to fire units going en-route

A

Mobilization time

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55
Q

Mobilization time for 81% of fire and EMS

A

140 sec. or less for fire
120 sec. or less for EMS

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56
Q

First unit response time 90% of the time for fire and EMS

A

6 min. 20 sec. for fire
6 min for EMS

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57
Q

Full response time 90% of the time for fire and EMS

A

10 min. 20 sec. for fire
10 min. for EMS

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58
Q

What is the purpose of the petty cash management policy?

A

This policy provides for the establishment and administration of a department petty cash fund.

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59
Q

Who is designated as the custodian of the petty cash fund?

A

The individual designated by the Fire Chief as having custody of and responsibility for maintaining the petty cash fund.

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60
Q

What is a petty cash fund?

A

A reserve of money established to make small purchases when payment by purchase order or voucher is not practical.

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61
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Fire Chief regarding the petty cash fund?

A

The Fire Chief or authorized designee is responsible for establishing and maintaining protocols for the operation of a petty cash fund.

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62
Q

What should the protocols for the petty cash fund include?

A

Protocols should include designation of a petty cash custodian, initial and replenishment fund amounts, maximum dollar amount for purchases, accounting requirements, audit requirements, disciplinary guidelines, and designation of a physical location for the fund.

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63
Q

What is the maximum dollar amount for petty cash purchases?

A

Petty cash expenditures should be limited to no more than $100.

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64
Q

How often should the petty cash fund be audited?

A

The petty cash fund should be audited at least quarterly by the Fire Chief’s authorized designee.

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65
Q

What should happen if the custodian violates the petty cash policy?

A

Established disciplinary guidelines should be followed, including referral to law enforcement if a crime may have occurred.

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66
Q

How should the petty cash fund be secured?

A

The fund should be secured using a lockbox stored in a safe, securable drawer, cabinet, or locker located in a securable room or office with restricted access.

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67
Q

What are the responsibilities of the petty cash custodian?

A

The custodian is responsible for maintaining the petty cash fund, requesting replenishment funds, receiving funds for replenishment, maintaining the petty cash ledger, and accounting for petty cash when transferring responsibilities.

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68
Q

When should replenishment funds be requested?

A

Requests should be made when the funds fall below the established replenishment amount at any regular membership meeting.

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69
Q

What should the custodian do before transferring petty cash responsibilities?

A

Account for all petty cash and vouchers before transferring responsibilities to an alternate custodian.

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70
Q

What is the purpose of the Emergency Vehicle Response policy?

A

To ensure a safe and appropriate response to emergencies while maintaining the safety of department members and the public by requiring operators of department vehicles to conform to applicable Oklahoma laws and regulations during an emergency response.

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71
Q

Define ‘emergency response’.

A

Any call for service or assistance involving fire, explosion, human rescue, illness or injury, hazardous materials release, flooding, acts of violence, terrorism, natural disasters, or any circumstance that presents a threat to life-safety or property.

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72
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding emergency calls?

A

To appropriately respond to all emergency calls.

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73
Q

What should fire personnel do when dispatched to an emergency?

A

Proceed immediately, continuously operate emergency lighting equipment, and sound the siren as reasonably necessary.

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74
Q

What does responding with emergency lights and siren not relieve personnel from?

A

The duty to continue to drive with due regard for the safety of all persons.

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75
Q

When should personnel respond with emergency lights and siren?

A

Only when dispatched to an emergency or when circumstances reasonably indicate an emergency response is required.

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76
Q

What should emergency vehicle operators do when multiple emergency vehicles respond?

A

Remain alert to the presence of other emergency vehicles and exercise due caution.

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77
Q

What must a Company Officer do if they believe an emergency response is appropriate?

A

Ensure the Emergency Communications Center is immediately notified.

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78
Q

What should emergency vehicle operators do at intersections?

A

Reduce speed and come to a complete stop at all blind street intersections or where there is a red light or stop sign.

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79
Q

What should be done if emergency equipment fails to operate?

A

Terminate the emergency response and notify the Emergency Communications Center of the equipment failure.

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80
Q

What is the purpose of the Fireground Accountability policy?

A

To increase firefighter safety by establishing accountability systems for keeping track of all personnel operating at the scene of an emergency incident.

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81
Q

Define ‘Personnel Accountability Report (PAR)’.

A

A roll call of all operations members assigned to an incident at specified times or during a strategy change to account for each member’s location and activity.

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82
Q

What is the responsibility of supervisors in the accountability system?

A

To periodically account for members working under their direction at emergency incidents.

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83
Q

What should a personnel accountability system primarily track?

A

Personnel, not resources.

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84
Q

What should be maintained for appropriate incident level during emergency incidents?

A

A status board.

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85
Q

What is the role of the Incident Commander regarding accountability?

A

To designate an accountability officer to monitor personnel assignments and locations.

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86
Q

What should be reported during ongoing accountability at emergency incidents?

A

Conditions, actions, needs, and any changes in strategy or fire conditions.

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87
Q

When should a Personnel Accountability Report (PAR) be conducted?

A

Within the first 15 minutes of an IDLH incident and every 20 minutes thereafter.

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88
Q

What is the purpose of the Rapid Intervention/Two-In Two-Out policy?

A

To increase firefighter safety by implementing procedures for safeguarding and rescuing firefighters in environments that are immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH).

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89
Q

Define ‘Immediately dangerous to life and health (IDLH)’.

A

Any atmosphere that poses an immediate threat to life or would impair an individual’s ability to escape from a dangerous atmosphere.

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90
Q

What is an Initial Rapid Intervention Team (IRIT)?

A

A team of at least two members located outside the IDLH atmosphere to monitor and provide emergency rescue for responders.

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91
Q

What should members ensure before initiating fire attack in IDLH environments?

A

That at least two firefighters using SCBA enter the IDLH environment and remain in contact with one another.

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92
Q

What should RIT members not be involved in?

A

Any other duties that divert attention or resources away from their primary mission of responder rescue.

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93
Q

What should happen when a Mayday broadcast is transmitted?

A

All non-emergency radio traffic shall cease so the Incident Commander can respond to the Mayday.

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94
Q

What is the purpose of the Atmospheric Monitoring policy?

A

This policy establishes procedures for measuring atmospheric concentrations of carbon monoxide (CO) at an incident for the safety of members working in potentially hazardous conditions.

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95
Q

What is calibration in the context of atmospheric monitoring?

A

Calibration is the process of resetting the values for each sensor in the instrument.

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96
Q

What does spanning refer to?

A

Spanning is the process of using calibration gases to check the calibration of the instrument, also known as bump testing.

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97
Q

What is the policy regarding exposure to carbon monoxide (CO)?

A

The policy aims to mitigate the health risks associated with exposure to CO by its members and the public.

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98
Q

What are the responsibilities of Company Officers regarding atmospheric monitoring instruments?

A

Company Officers should ensure that instruments are spanned or calibrated to manufacturer’s specifications on a weekly basis if not used, and prior to use.

99
Q

Who is responsible for measuring atmospheric concentrations of CO?

A

The Incident Commander or the authorized designee is responsible for measuring atmospheric concentrations of CO at any location containing or suspected of containing elevated levels of CO.

100
Q

How can carbon monoxide be present in the atmosphere?

A

Carbon monoxide may be present as a by-product of combustion, an emission from internal combustion engines, a chemical reaction, or a leak from an industrial process.

101
Q

Where should instruments be placed when measuring atmospheric concentrations of CO?

A

Instruments do not have to be placed near the floor or ceiling to obtain accurate readings.

102
Q

What should be used to reduce CO concentration in the atmosphere?

A

Positive pressure ventilation may be used to reduce the CO concentration, as well as the presence of other toxic gases.

103
Q

When should members use self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA)?

A

Members shall use SCBA in any atmosphere containing 35 parts per million or greater of CO, and in any atmosphere with visible smoke or less than 19.5 percent oxygen.

104
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of acute CO exposure?

A

Signs and symptoms include headache, flushing, nausea, vertigo, weakness, irritability, unconsciousness, and chest pain in individuals with pre-existing heart disease.

105
Q

What should be done for a person with acute CO exposure?

A

An affected person should be removed from further exposure and have appropriate emergency medical procedures implemented.

106
Q

What should personnel be familiar with regarding CO exposure?

A

All personnel should be familiar with emergency procedures, the location and proper use of emergency equipment, and methods of protecting themselves during rescue operations.

107
Q

What is the purpose of the staging policy?

A

The purpose of this policy is to provide guidelines for staging at emergency incidents.

108
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding resource staging?

A

It is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department to safely stage resources at emergency incidents.

109
Q

What are staging areas?

A

Staging areas are locations designated within the incident area to temporarily position resources that are available for assignment.

110
Q

Who should identify a staging area manager during an incident?

A

The Incident Commander (IC) should identify a staging area manager to maintain the staging area resources.

111
Q

What is Level I staging?

A

Level I staging is used during initial attack operations or on smaller, short-term incidents, placing incoming resources in a safe location for rapid deployment.

112
Q

What is Level II staging?

A

Level II staging is established during extended attack or multiple-alarm incidents, requiring early identification of a staging area and assignment of a staging area manager.

113
Q

What factors should be considered when establishing a Level II staging area?

A

The Level II staging area should not affect incident operations, be large enough for resource needs, and ideally be pre-planned to minimize disruption.

114
Q

What should be done when using private property for staging?

A

The IC or an authorized designee should contact the owner for permission and configure the staging area to minimize disruption.

115
Q

What is tiered staging?

A

Tiered staging should be used in any incident where there may be a violent encounter.

116
Q

What are some incidents that may require tiered staging?

A

Incidents include shootings, stabbings, civil disturbances, criminal gang activity, attempted suicides, domestic disputes, unknown assaults, and bomb incidents.

117
Q

What is the Fire Department’s role in responding to bomb threats?

A

The Fire Department’s role is to provide rapid response for medical needs and fire extinguishments in the event of an explosion.

118
Q

What is the general dispatch procedure for bomb threats?

A

The dispatcher shall respond the closest available fire company and notify the Shift Commander of the bomb threat.

119
Q

What are the radio procedures for responding to bomb threats?

A

The responding unit will stage a minimum of 500 feet from the suspected bomb location and limit radio communications to portable radios only.

120
Q

Who is in charge during bomb threat emergencies?

A

The Police Department will be in charge of all bomb threat emergencies.

121
Q

What is the purpose of the elevator entrapments policy?

A

The purpose is to ensure the safe and effective rescue of people who may become trapped in an elevator.

122
Q

What is the policy regarding people trapped in elevators?

A

People trapped in an elevator are typically not in danger unless there is a medical emergency or fire.

123
Q

Who establishes guidelines for personnel entering elevator shafts?

A

The Fire Chief or the authorized designee shall establish guidelines for personnel entering elevator shafts.

124
Q

What should on-scene personnel consider during an elevator entrapment?

A

They should consider if the elevator is inoperative, the condition of people inside, and if a repair person has been notified.

125
Q

What methods may be used to extricate people from an inoperative elevator?

A

Methods include lockout/tagout procedures, moving the elevator car, using an adjacent elevator car, forcing doors open, breaching shafts, and using emergency exits.

126
Q

Who is responsible for ensuring training in elevator entrapment rescue procedures?

A

The Chief of Training is responsible for ensuring that all personnel are properly trained in department-approved elevator entrapment rescue procedures.

127
Q

What is the purpose of the Swiftwater Rescue and Flood Search and Rescue policy?

A

The purpose is to establish guidance for operating at a swiftwater or flood search and rescue incident.

128
Q

What system does the Midwest City Fire Department use for managing swiftwater or flood search and rescue incidents?

A

The Incident Command System (ICS).

129
Q

What should department members do upon notification of a potential water rescue incident?

A

They are authorized to order and should dispatch or request the appropriate specialized water rescue resources immediately.

130
Q

Should the ordering of resources be delayed pending verification of a water rescue situation?

A

No, ordering of resources should not be delayed.

131
Q

What unique challenges do rescuers face in swiftwater environments?

A

Rescuers face risks not encountered in other types of rescue operations and require specialized knowledge, training, and equipment.

132
Q

What type of PPE should members not wear during swiftwater or flood search and rescue incidents?

A

Members should not wear structural firefighting PPE or wildland fire PPE.

133
Q

Who is allowed to approach or enter any body of water during a rescue?

A

Only properly trained members currently certified for in-water rescues.

134
Q

What safety equipment should members don before commencing rescue efforts?

A

A personal flotation device and head protection.

135
Q

What can surface support personnel use to attempt water rescues?

A

They may utilize ropes, throw-bag ropes, rescue rings, flotation devices, or other appropriate equipment without entering the water.

136
Q

What caution should department members take when positioning fire apparatus alongside swiftly moving water?

A

They should use extreme caution and remain vigilant for signs of erosion or changing conditions.

137
Q

How should vehicles be positioned when responding to incidents near swiftly moving water?

A

Vehicles should be backed into position and face away from any expanding incident.

138
Q

What is the purpose of the wildland firefighting policy?

A

The purpose of this policy is to provide guidance for wildland firefighting incidents.

139
Q

What is defined as a ‘Forest’?

A

A tract of land that is at least 10 percent stocked by trees of any size, whether commercial or noncommercial species, or formerly having tree cover and not currently developed for non-forest use.

140
Q

What is a ‘Wildfire’?

A

An uncontrolled fire involving grasslands, forests, fields, or croplands.

141
Q

What does ‘Wildland’ refer to?

A

Any undeveloped lands, including forests, prairies, marshes, and swamps.

142
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding wildland fire suppression?

A

To provide wildland fire suppression services consistent with the availability of staffing resources and in compliance with state regulations.

143
Q

What system does the Midwest City Fire Department use for managing wildland firefighting operations?

A

The Incident Command System (ICS) methods and procedures.

144
Q

What is the responsibility of the Incident Commander (IC) during a wildland fire event?

A

To assess the potential for the fire to extend into either a State Responsibility Area (SRA) or Federal Responsibility Area (FRA) and notify the appropriate services.

145
Q

What should the IC do if a wildland fire threatens to involve bordering jurisdictions?

A

Direct the Emergency Communications Center to notify the appropriate jurisdictions.

146
Q

What is the purpose of trench rescue operations?

A

To minimize member exposure to hazardous conditions during trench rescues through safe and efficient management of operations.

147
Q

What is defined as an excavation?

A

Any man-made cut, cavity, trench or depression in the ground.

148
Q

How is a trench defined?

A

A narrow excavation made below the surface of the ground that is generally deeper than it is wide and is not wider than 15 feet.

149
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding trench rescues?

A

To adopt and maintain a written response program with standardized procedures and relevant training to minimize exposure to hazardous conditions.

150
Q

What hazards must be considered during trench rescues?

A

Secondary collapse, suffocation, extreme pressure, and trauma due to the weight of a cave-in.

151
Q

What should the first-in company determine using the Incident Command System (ICS)?

A
  1. Who is in charge at the site and what happened? 2. How many victims are trapped and where are they located? 3. Is a rescue possible or is this a body recovery? 4. What kind of material is covering the victims?
152
Q

What is the role of the extrication and safety officer?

A

To monitor the status of all personnel involved in the rescue and the site for signs of potential secondary collapse.

153
Q

What is the established hazard zone perimeter around the incident site?

A

A 50-foot perimeter using ICS methods.

154
Q

What equipment is required for rescue personnel to enter a trench or excavation?

A
  1. A self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA). 2. A safety harness or line, or a basket stretcher. 3. A helmet.
155
Q

What factors determine if a trench or excavation is safe for emergency responders to enter?

A
  1. Adequate ventilation has been established. 2. Air quality is being periodically tested. 3. Protection from water hazards is in place if water accumulation is a factor. 4. Adequate protection for workers in the trench has been established.
156
Q

What should be done if the rescue effort is protracted?

A

Personnel may need to be rotated and/or additional alarms requested for appropriate relief.

157
Q

What is the purpose of the Carbon Monoxide Detector Activations policy?

A

This policy establishes guidelines for the safe and efficient handling of calls associated with carbon monoxide (CO) detector activations.

158
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding CO detector activations?

A

The policy is to respond to all reports and alarms indicating the presence of CO and mitigate health risks associated with CO exposure.

159
Q

What are the responsibilities of the Emergency Communications Center when handling CO detector activations?

A

Dispatchers must inform responding personnel of CO detector activations, ascertain symptoms of CO poisoning, and consider dispatching medical aid.

160
Q

What should arriving units do upon responding to a CO detector activation?

A

Arriving units should establish NIMS/ICS practices, assess for necessary rescue, evaluate the situation, and wear appropriate safety gear.

161
Q

What actions should investigating personnel take during a CO detector activation?

A

Investigating personnel should remove occupants, examine the detector, interview the reporting party, check for CO sources, and use a CO detector if available.

162
Q

What should personnel do if they identify the source of CO?

A

If the source is a vehicle or open flame device, remove it or shut it off and ventilate. For appliances, shut them off and advise service by a technician.

163
Q

What actions should be taken if the source of CO is not identified?

A

Consider requesting a gas company response and advise occupants to remain out of the building until a representative arrives.

164
Q

What is the purpose of the Safely Relinquished Child Law?

A

This policy establishes guidelines to comply with the Oklahoma Safe Haven Law.

165
Q

What age of children does the Safely Relinquished Child Law address?

A

Children who are thirty days old or younger.

166
Q

Where can parents safely relinquish a child?

A

At any staffed fire station.

167
Q

Who is responsible for taking custody of relinquished children?

A

Qualified personnel identified by the Fire Chief.

168
Q

What should fire department stations display?

A

Appropriate safe haven signage and public outreach brochures.

169
Q

What should personnel do if an infant appears older than thirty days?

A

Notify law enforcement and DHS immediately.

170
Q

What information should receiving personnel ask the surrendering parent?

A

Relevant medical history and whether the parent intends to return for the child.

171
Q

What should receiving personnel provide to the parent?

A

The Oklahoma Safe Haven brochure containing information on parents’ rights and counseling.

172
Q

What should be done following the acceptance of a child?

A

Notify the Fire Chief and local DHS office about the relinquished child.

173
Q

Who assesses the child’s immediate treatment needs?

A

A qualified health care professional.

174
Q

What should be done if the parent is the birth mother?

A

Attempt to assess and treat her while listing her as ‘Jane Doe’ for anonymity.

175
Q

What information can the Public Information Officer provide to the media?

A

Date, time, and fire station where the child was relinquished, and local DHS representative’s contact information.

176
Q

What should be done if a parent requests return of a relinquished child?

A

Refer the parent to DHS while keeping their identity confidential.

177
Q

What guidelines are established for community donations?

A

Only new baby blankets in the original wrapper should be accepted; other items should be directed to local social services.

178
Q

What are hazardous materials (HAZMAT)?

A

HAZMAT may include toxic, flammable, corrosive, explosive, radioactive, or reactive materials; materials that can cause health hazards; or a combination of these materials.

179
Q

What is the purpose of the HAZMAT policy?

A

The purpose of this policy is to provide a general framework for handling a HAZMAT incident.

180
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding HAZMAT incidents?

A

The policy is to protect the safety of the public and responders to HAZMAT incidents and to comply with all applicable state and federal laws during the management and mitigation of all HAZMAT incidents.

181
Q

What system should be used to manage HAZMAT responses?

A

All HAZMAT responses should be managed using the National Incident Management System (NIMS) and the Incident Command System (ICS).

182
Q

What initial actions should be taken upon arrival at a HAZMAT incident?

A

The first-arriving unit should use caution, approach from upwind and upgrade, establish Incident Command, and begin a size-up of the situation.

183
Q

What is the purpose of the size-up in a HAZMAT incident?

A

The purpose of the size-up is to determine the nature and severity of the HAZMAT incident and formulate an initial Incident Action Plan (IAP).

184
Q

What references should be used to assess a HAZMAT incident?

A

References may include the DOT Emergency Response Guidebook, NIOSH Pocket Guide to Chemical Hazards, Safety Data Sheets, HAZMAT business plans, shipping papers, NFPA placards, and others.

185
Q

What should the initial Incident Action Plan (IAP) focus on?

A

The initial IAP should focus on identifying a safe approach for other units, determining the type of hazard, isolating the area, determining incident-specific PPE, and initiating notifications.

186
Q

What minimum information should be included in the initial IAP?

A

The initial IAP should include incident name, agency or unified command, command post location, best route for responding units, information on products involved, incident control objectives, site safety plan, and a communications plan.

187
Q

What should be done if a HAZMAT incident response will be prolonged?

A

A written IAP should be developed utilizing standard NIMS/ICS forms.

188
Q

What types of resources may be needed for a HAZMAT incident?

A

Resources may include specialized HAZMAT teams, specialized operators for cleanup, local law enforcement for scene security, and public works for diking or diversion.

189
Q

What notifications may be required during a HAZMAT incident response?

A

Notifications may include the public, adjoining jurisdictions, local officials, and various state and federal agencies.

190
Q

What is the equipment response for a broken/leaking natural gas meter?

A

The equipment response includes the closest Engine/Ladder/Truck.

191
Q

What is the equipment response for a large fuel spill?

A

The equipment response includes the closest Engine/Ladder/Truck, Hazmat 1, Ladder 6, 203, 206, and one PD Patrol Unit.

192
Q

What is the equipment response for a hazardous materials incident?

A

The equipment response includes two closest Engines/Ladders/Trucks, Hazmat 1, Ladder 6, 203, 206, and one PD Patrol Unit.

193
Q

What is the minimum personnel requirement for the OK-DHS Region 8 Intermediate CBRNE response team?

A

The team consists of nine personnel, including seven IFSAC-Certified Hazardous Materials Technicians and two IFSAC-Certified Hazardous Materials Operations members.

194
Q

What is the purpose of the News Media and Community Relations policy?

A

The purpose is to provide guidelines for communicating with media, community leaders, residents, and businesses, and to establish procedures for interacting with media at emergency scenes.

195
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding media relations?

A

The policy is to establish and maintain a positive working relationship with the community and the media to effectively communicate timely and accurate information.

196
Q

Who designates the Public Information Officer during incidents with media presence?

A

The Incident Commander (IC) will designate a Public Information Officer if the Department does not have a full-time Public Information Officer.

197
Q

What is the role of the Public Information Officer during an incident?

A

The Public Information Officer interfaces with and provides timely and relevant information to media and community representatives during critical command stages.

198
Q

What information should the Public Information Officer gather and disseminate?

A

The Public Information Officer should gather incident response information, human interest or safety information, nature of the incident, hazards, heroic acts, projected duration, and evacuation notices.

199
Q

What is restricted information in the context of media relations?

A

Legally protected information that should not be released to the media without consulting the IC or authorized designee.

200
Q

How should media inquiries be handled?

A

All media inquiries should be forwarded to the Public Information Officer for response, who will provide accurate preliminary information.

201
Q

What conditions apply to media access during emergencies?

A

Media representatives must display valid press credentials, not interfere with operations, and may be escorted by the Public Information Officer.

202
Q

What is the procedure for Temporary Flight Restrictions (TFR)?

A

The IC should request a TFR if media presence poses a threat to safety or hampers operations, routed through the Emergency Communications Center.

203
Q

What are news releases and who prepares them?

A

News releases are documents prepared for media release, authored by the Public Information Officer and approved by the Fire Chief or IC.

204
Q

What is the purpose of a news conference?

A

A news conference is a pre-scheduled event to highlight a newsworthy event, determined by the Fire Chief.

205
Q

What should be done prior to a news conference?

A

Specific information should not be released before the conference, and the Public Information Officer should notify department personnel of the details.

206
Q

What is the purpose of the child abuse policy?

A

The purpose of this policy is to provide guidelines for the reporting of suspected child abuse.

207
Q

What is defined as a ‘Child’ under this policy?

A

Any unmarried person 18 years of age or younger, including an infant born alive.

208
Q

How is ‘Child abuse’ defined?

A

Any offense or attempted offense involving violence or neglect with a child victim when committed by a person responsible for the child’s care.

209
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding child abuse?

A

To ensure the Department of Human Services (DHS) is notified of suspected child abuse as required by law.

210
Q

When must members of the Midwest City Fire Department notify DHS?

A

When there is a reason to believe that a child is the victim of abuse or neglect.

211
Q

What constitutes ‘abuse’ for notification purposes?

A

Harm or threatened harm to the health, safety, or welfare of a child by a responsible person, including non-accidental physical or mental injury, sexual abuse, or sexual exploitation.

212
Q

What constitutes ‘neglect’ for notification purposes?

A

Abandonment, failure to provide adequate nourishment, medical care, or supervision, or failure to protect the child from illegal drugs or activities.

213
Q

What is the notification procedure for suspected child abuse?

A

Notification shall occur immediately or as soon as practicable by calling the DHS child abuse hotline, 1-800-522-3511.

214
Q

What information should be reported when notifying DHS?

A

The name, address, and location of the child and responsible person, child’s age, nature and extent of abuse or neglect, identity of the abuser, and any other helpful information.

215
Q

What should be done if a child is transported to a medical facility?

A

The receiving center triage nurse or physician shall be notified of the situation upon the child’s arrival.

216
Q

What are the consequences of failing to report suspected child abuse?

A

Failure to report is a misdemeanor and may result in discipline.

217
Q

Are reports of child abuse confidential?

A

Yes, reports are confidential and will only be released in accordance with the Release of Records Policy.

218
Q

What is the purpose of the Adult Protective Services (APS) Reporting policy?

A

This policy provides guidance to members of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding when to notify law enforcement of suspected abuse of certain adults.

219
Q

What constitutes adult abuse?

A

Adult abuse includes causing or permitting physical pain, injury, sexual abuse, unreasonable restraint, mental anguish, or deprivation of essential care.

220
Q

Who is considered a vulnerable adult?

A

A vulnerable adult is an incapacitated person, 18 years or older, who is substantially impaired in self-care, unable to manage property, or unable to protect themselves from abuse.

221
Q

What is the responsibility of the officer in charge regarding vulnerable adults?

A

The officer in charge is responsible for reporting the maltreatment of vulnerable adults in situations of observed abuse and neglect.

222
Q

What are the situations of maltreatment that must be reported?

A

Situations include abuse, neglect, self-neglect, financial exploitation, abandonment, sexual abuse, verbal abuse, and personal degradation.

223
Q

When must members of the Midwest City Fire Department notify law enforcement?

A

Members must notify law enforcement when there is reasonable cause to believe that a vulnerable adult is suffering from adult abuse.

224
Q

What is the procedure for making a referral to APS?

A

The OIC must include a detailed run report, request police to the scene, submit an APS referral, notify the Fire Marshal, and communicate with other crews.

225
Q

What information should be included when notifying law enforcement of adult abuse?

A

Include the name and address of the vulnerable adult, caretaker, current location and condition of the adult, and a description of the abuse.

226
Q

What happens if a mandated reporter fails to report adult abuse?

A

Failure to report may result in criminal charges and disciplinary action.

227
Q

What is the confidentiality status of reports related to adult abuse?

A

Information related to incidents of adult abuse is confidential and may only be disclosed pursuant to state law.

228
Q

Who should be notified if a person is transported to a medical facility?

A

The receiving center triage nurse or physician should be notified of the situation upon the person’s arrival.

229
Q

What is the purpose of the policy on Line-of-Duty Death and Serious Injury Investigations?

A

To provide guidelines for investigating serious injuries or line-of-duty deaths, documenting events, and making recommendations to prevent similar occurrences in the future.

230
Q

What is the policy of the Midwest City Fire Department regarding serious injuries or line-of-duty deaths?

A

To identify causal factors, document evidence, and secure evidence for regulatory actions or litigation.

231
Q

What external resources may assist in the investigation of a line-of-duty death or serious injury?

A

Resources include the Oklahoma Department of Transportation, Oklahoma State Fire Marshal, local law enforcement, area fire department Fire Marshals, and Oklahoma Department of Labor PEOSH.

232
Q

What must the Department establish when utilizing multiple agencies for an investigation?

A

A Unified Incident Command program to facilitate the investigation’s needs and activities.

233
Q

Who assigns the investigation team after a serious injury or line-of-duty death?

A

The Fire Chief or an authorized designee.

234
Q

Who should lead the investigation team?

A

A Shift Commander designated by the Fire Chief.

235
Q

What is the responsibility of the investigation team members?

A

To fully cooperate with the investigation team.

236
Q

What agency conducts investigations involving the death of an employee?

A

The PEOSH (Public Employee Occupational Safety and Health Division).

237
Q

What is required for public release of the investigation report?

A

Approval from the Fire Chief or an authorized designee, processed in accordance with the Oklahoma Open Records Act.

238
Q

What are the minimum members of the investigation team?

A

Shift Commander, Fire investigator, Department Safety Officer, Risk manager or assigned designee, Employee labor representative.

239
Q

What are some duties of the investigation team?

A

Gather evidence, interview witnesses, collect recordings, consult experts, and develop a written report.

240
Q

What should be documented at the scene of a line-of-duty death or serious injury?

A

Diagrams, photographs, observations, and witness interviews.

241
Q

What should the investigation team obtain regarding personal protective equipment (PPE)?

A

A complete physical description and a performance evaluation report conducted by a qualified professional.

242
Q

What is the final step for the investigation team after completing their report?

A

Present the final report to the Fire Chief.

243
Q

Pick up on policies at page 115 Active shooter

A