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Driver Test > Apparatus Operator > Flashcards

Apparatus Operator Flashcards

1
Q

The main purpose of a fire department pumper is to ____ ____ ___ ____ __ _____ ___ ____.

A

provide adequate water pressure for effective fire streams.

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2
Q

____ ____, ____ __ _____ ___ ____, contains the requirements of pumper design.

A

NFPA 1901, Standard for Automotive Fire Apparatus

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3
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies a minimum pump capacity of ___ ___ and a water tank with a capacity of at least ___ _____.

A

750 gpm

300 gallons

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4
Q

____ ____ specifies the minimum portable equipment that must be carried on all fire department pumpers.

A

NFPA 1901

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5
Q

The ___ ____ ____ commonly found on municipal fire pumpers are scaled down versions of those used for industrial fire pumpers. Likewise, the foam tanks are correspondingly smaller, usually ranging from __ to ___ _____.

A

foam proportioning systems

20 to 100 gallons.

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6
Q

Specially designed apparatus that combines the functions of both a rescue vehicle and a fire department pumper.

A

Rescue Pumper

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7
Q

Generic term used to describe a high-energy foam-generation system consisting of a water pump, a foam proportioning system, and an air compressor that injects air into the foam solution before it enters a hoseline.

A

Compressed Air Foam Systems (CAFS)

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8
Q

Fire apparatus whose primary purpose is to initiate a fire attack on structural and wildland fires and support associated fire department actions.

A

Initial Attack Fire Apparatus

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9
Q

Small fire apparatus mounted on a pickup sized chassis, usually with a pump having a rated capacity less than 500 gpm. Its primary advantage is speed and mobility, which enables it to respond to fires more rapidly than larger apparatus.

A

Mini-Pumper

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10
Q

Mobile water supply apparatus have ___ ___ functions on the fire ground.
____ ____ ____
&
____ ____

A

two basic

mobile water shuttle operation
&
nurse tender

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11
Q

A ___ __ ___ system that allows the apparatus to be driven while discharging water is an _____ when combating wildland fires. They perform this action by the use of a ____ ___ ___ (___).

A

pump and roll

advantage

power take off (PTO)

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12
Q

IFSTA does not recommend ____ on the outside of the apparatus, and this practice is prohibited by ____ ____, ___ __ ___ ____ _____ ___ __ ____ ____.

A

riding

NFPA 1500, Standard on Fire Department Occupational safety and Health Program

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13
Q

Specific requirements concerning the design of wildland apparatus can be found in?

A

NFPA 1906, Standard for Wildland Fire Apparatus

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14
Q

A ____ is an apparatus equipped with a fire pump, water tank, and hose, in addition to an aerial device and ground ladders.

A

Quint

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15
Q

According to NFPA 1901 a quint must be equipped with a pump rated at a minimum of ____ ___ and a water tank of at lest ___ _____.

A

1,000 gpm

300 gallons

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16
Q

_____ are used to power electrical equipment used at scenes.

A

generators

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17
Q

Step up transformer that converts a vehicle’s 12- or 24- volt DC current into 110- or 220-volt AC current.

A

Inverter

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18
Q

Ranging from ___ to ___ ____, portable lights are advantageous during incidents where illumination is needed some distance away from a piece of apparatus, or where additional lights are required.

A

300 to 1,000 watts

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19
Q

As pertaining to electric cords, Some jurisdictions may specify ____, ____ cords with _____ _____ and twist lock receptacles to provide secure connections.

A

12-gauge, 3-wire cords with 600-volt insulation

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20
Q

____ ___ are used to supply power to several connections from one supple source.

A

Junction boxes

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21
Q

____ should also be carried on the apparatus to allow rescuers to plug their equipment into standard electric outlets or electrical equipment from other agencies that use different types of connections.

A

adapters

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22
Q

Portable generators powered by small gasoline or diesel engines generally have _____ and/or ___ volt capacity.

A

110
And/or
220

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23
Q

Portable generators are available with a variety of power capacities; _____ _____ is typically the largest capacity.

A

5000 watts

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24
Q

Vehicle mounted generators have capacities up to _______ ____.

A

12,000 watts

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25
Q

______ ________ programs and routine maintenance checks are ________ measures that can ensure that apiece of fire apparatus is maintained in the highest state of readiness and will operate safely and efficiently at emergency scenes.

A

Preventive maintenance

Proacitve

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26
Q

NFPA _____ requires that driver/operators be skilled in the performance of certain maintenance tasks.

A

NFPA 1002

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27
Q

_________ refers to keeping apparatus in a state of usefulness or readiness while _____ means to restore that which has become inoperable.

A

Maintenance

repair

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28
Q

NFPA _____ provides a basis to train and certify fire apparatus mechanics and fire department maintenance officers.

A

NFPA 1071

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29
Q

During the first ____ _____ after an apparatus is received, while the paint and protective coating are new and unseasoned, the vehicle should be washed frequently using cold water to harden the paint and keep it from spotting.

A

six months

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30
Q

NFPA _____ requires that all tires be replaced every seven years, regardless of their condition.

A

NFPA 1911

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31
Q

The _____ ________ turns on various lights at specified intervals so that the startup electrical load for all the devices does not occur at the same time.

A

load sequencer

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32
Q

The ____ _______ “watches” the system for
any added electrical loads that threaten to overload the system.

A

load monitor

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33
Q

If an overload condition occurs, the load monitor will shut down less important electrical equipment in order to prevent the overload. This is referred to as _____ ________.

A

load shedding

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34
Q

An inspection method in which the driver or inspector starts at one point of the apparatus and continues in either a clockwise or counterclockwise direction inspecting the entire apparatus.

A

Circle or walk around method

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35
Q

Inspecting an apparatus and equipment on the apparatus to ensure that all equipment is in place, clean, and ready for service.

A

Operational readiness inspection.

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36
Q

A visual inspection of an apparatus to ensure the major components of the chassis are present and in proper working condition.

A

Pre-trip road worthiness inspection

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37
Q

An inspection where a certain system or component of an apparatus is operated to ensure it is functioning properly.

A

Functional check

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38
Q

In general, steering wheel play should be no more than approximately __ _____ in either direction.

A

10 degrees

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39
Q

Per NFPA 1901 and 1911, a side-to-side variance in weight should not exceed _____ ________.

A

seven percent

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40
Q

Amount of travel the clutch has before it begins to disengage the engine from the transmission.

A

Free play

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41
Q

The component used to push on the internal clutch fingers connected to the clutch pedal and when activated, disengages the clutch from the engine.

A

throw-out bearing

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42
Q

A braking system that uses a fluid in a closed system to pressurize wheel cylinders when activated.

A

Hydraulic Braking system

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43
Q

An electronic system that monitors wheel spin. When braking and a wheel are sensed to begin locking up, the brake on that wheel is temporarily released to prevent skidding.

A

Antilock braking systems

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44
Q

A braking system that uses compressed air to hold off a spring brake (parking brake) and applies air pressure to a service brake for vehicle stopping.

A

Air-actuated braking systems

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45
Q

Apparatus with air brakes are to be equipped with an air pressure protection valve that prevents air horns or other nonessential devices from being operated when the air pressure in the air reservoir drops below ____ psi.

A

80 psi

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46
Q

The SAE number indicates only the ______ of the oil.

A

viscosity

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47
Q

Most automotive batteries contain _____ and ________ _____.

A

lead and sulfuric acid

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48
Q

Batteries can off-gas _______ ____, which is highly explosive and a mere spark can ignite it.

A

hydrogen gas

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49
Q

A battery detonation will likely throw ______ ____ into your eyes or skin.

A

Caustic acid

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50
Q

A specific inspection to an area of a chassis or apparatus to ensure that the unit is operating properly in accordance with the manufacturer’s initial design.

A

Post-maintenance/ Repair Inspection

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51
Q

During an Air brake test: With the truck off, brake pedal depressed, and parking brake is released the air pressure should drop more than ____ psi during ___ minute(s).

A

3psi
1 minute

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52
Q

During an Air Brake test: The warning light and buzzer should activate before the gauge reads ____ ____.

A

60 psi

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53
Q

During an Air Brake test: The parking brake should pop out between _____ _____ and ____ _____.

A

20 to 40 psi

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54
Q

During an Air Brake test: Air pressure should build to 85-100 psi in ____ seconds at full engine RPM.

A

45

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55
Q

During an Air Brake test: The needle should stop climbing between ____ and ____ psi.

A

120-130

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56
Q

The most common place for a collision to occur is at an _________.

A

intersection

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57
Q

An act of proceeding to do something with a conscious awareness of danger, while ignoring any potential consequences of so doing.

A

Reckless disregard

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58
Q

Breach of duty in which a person or organization fails to perform at the standard required by law, or that would be expected by a reasonable person under similar circumstances.

A

Negligence

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59
Q

Willful and wanton disregard

A

Gross disregard

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60
Q

Perception of one’s surrounding environment and the ability to anticipate future events.

A

Situational awareness

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61
Q

In a study conducted by the Society of Automotive Engineers (SAE), it was determined that in _____ percent of all collisions, the driver/operator was not aware of a problem until it was too late to correct.

A

42 percent

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62
Q

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the front tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the front of the apparatus.

A

Angle of Approach

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63
Q

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the lowest projection at the rear of the apparatus.

A

Angel of depature

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64
Q

Angle formed by level ground and a line from the point where the rear tires touch the ground to the bottom of the frame at the wheelbase midpint.

A

Breakover angle

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65
Q

It may take ____ to ___ time’s greater distance for a vehicle to come to a complete stop on snow and ice than it does on dry pavement.

A

3 to 15

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66
Q

At speeds above ____ mph, an emergency vehicle may outrun the effective range of its audible warning device.

A

50

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67
Q

The _______ ________ is the distance the vehicle travels from the time the brakes are applied until the apparatus comes to a complete stop.

A

braking distance

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68
Q

The ______ _______ distance is the sum of the driver/operator’s reaction distance and the vehicle’s braking distance.

A

total stopping

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69
Q

the driver/ operator’s ______ _______ is the distance the apparatus travels while the driver/ operator transfers his or her foot from the accelerator to the brake pedal.

A

reaction distance

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70
Q

While backing the apparatus, a spotter must be positioned in a preferred spot located ___ to ____ feet behind and slightly to the _____ of the apparatus.

A

8 to 10 feet

left

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71
Q

While driving the apparatus: At 5 mph, ___ feet of hose is pulled out each second.

A

7

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72
Q

NFPA 1901 requires that all apparatus with a GVWR of __________ or greater be equipped with an auxiliary braking system.

A

36,000 lb.

73
Q

NFPA _______ specifies the number of practical driving exercises that driver/ operator candidates should successfully complete before being authorized to drive apparatus on emergency calls.

A

1002

74
Q

NFPA 1901 specifies that any __________ not needed while driving to the scene must be secured in brackets or contained in a storage cabinet.

A

equipment

75
Q

___-_______ ________ and district familiarization will assist the driver/ operator to make informed decisions regarding apparatus positioning.

A

Pre-incident planning

76
Q

Incident scene ______ determines the most advantageous position for the attack pumper.

A

size-up

77
Q

_____ ______ is the first tactical priority at any incident.

A

Life Safety

78
Q

Point at which the fire department can connect into a sprinkler or standpipe system to boost the water pressure and flow in the system. This connection consists of a clappered Siamese with two or more 2 ½-inch intakes or on large-diameter (4 inch or
larger) intake.

A

Fire Department Connection

79
Q

To shuttle water between a source and an emergency scene using mobile water supply apparatus.

A

Relay

80
Q

With _____ ______, one strong hydrant is used to supply two pumpers. Generally, they are located close together and are both being used as attack pumpers

A

Dual pumping.

81
Q

Two pumpers in-line close together to boost the pressure.

A

Tandem pumping

82
Q

(1) Overhaul of a fire or hazardous material incident scene. (2) In wildland fire fighting, the act of making a fire safe after it is controlled by extinguishing or removing burning material along or near the control line, felling dead trees (snags), and trenching logs to prevent rolling.

A

Mop-up

83
Q

For fire protection purposes, ordinary fresh water is considered to weigh _______ or ________.

A

62.4 lb/ft3

8.3 lb/gal

84
Q

At 212°F, water converted to steam occupies approximately ______ times its original volume, helping to dissipate heat in a well-vented room. The expansion ratio is even greater at higher temperatures.

A

1,700

85
Q

The _______ ________ that surrounds the earth has depth and density, exerting pressure on everything.

A

atmospheric pressure

86
Q

A pressure of _____ psi makes the column of mercury about 2.04 inches tall. At sea level, the column of mercury is 2.04 x 14.7, or 29.9 inches tall.

A

1

87
Q

______ refers to the height of a water supply above the discharge orifice.

A

Head

88
Q

Above sea level, atmospheric pressure decreases approximately ____ psi for every 1,000 feet.

A

0.5

89
Q

Force per unit area exerted by a liquid or gas measured in pounds per square inch (psi).

A

pressure

90
Q

Simple measure of weight.

A

force

91
Q

Fluid pressure is perpendicular to any surface on which it acts.

A

First principle

92
Q

Fluid pressure at a point in fluid at rest is the dame intensity in all directions. Used in hydrostatic testing.

A

Second principle

93
Q

Pressure applied to a confined fluid is transmitted equally in all directions

A

Third principle

94
Q

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to its depth.

A

fourth principle

95
Q

The pressure of a liquid in an open vessel is proportional to the density of the liquid.

A

fifth principle

96
Q

The pressure of a liquid at the bottom of a vessel is independent of the shape of the vessel.

A

Sixth principle

97
Q

Any pressure less than atmospheric pressure is called _______, and absolute zero pressure is called a ________ ________.

A

Vacuum

perfect vacuum

98
Q

To convert head in feet to head pressure, you must divide the number of feet by _____ (the number of feet that 1 psi will raise a one square inch column of water).

A

2.304

99
Q

______ means at rest, or without motion.

A

Static

100
Q

__________ ________ is the portion of the total available pressure not used to overcome friction loss or gravity while forcing water through pipes, fittings, hoses, or adapters.

A

Residual Pressure

101
Q

________ refers to the center line of the pump or the bottom of a static water supply source above or below ground level.

A

Elevation

102
Q

________ is the position of an object in relation to sea level.

A

Altitude

103
Q

The pressure losses or gains due to gravity are called _______ _______.

A

Elevation Pressure

104
Q

The diameter of the hose determines the ________ for a given volume of water. The smaller the hose, the greater the _____ needed to deliver the same volume.

A

velocity

105
Q

What is the reduction percentage of friction loss by using a 4 inch hose instead of a 3 inch hose?

A

76%

106
Q

Means of Moving Water
Uses one or more pumps that takes the water from the primary source and discharges it through the filtration and treatment processes. Then a series of pumps force water into the distribution system.

A

Direct pumping system

107
Q

Means of Moving Water
Uses a primary water source located at a higher elevation than the distribution system. The gravity flow from the higher elevation provides the water pressure.

A

Gravity system

108
Q

Means of Moving Water
A mix of direct pumping and gravity systems. In most cases, elevated storage tanks supply the gravity flow. These tanks serve as emergency storage and provide adequate pressure through the use of gravity.

A

Combination system

109
Q

The three components of a grid system.

A

1) Primary feeders
2) Secondary feeders
3) Distributors

110
Q

Large pipes or mains, with relatively widespread spacing, that convey large quantities of water to various points of the system for local distribution to the smaller mains.

A

Primary feeders

111
Q

Network of intermediate-sized pipes that reinforce the grid within the various loops of the primary feeder system and aid the concentration of the required fire flow at any point.

A

secondary feeders

112
Q

Grid arrangement of smaller mains serving individual fire hydrants and blocks of consumers.

A

distributors.

113
Q

The average amount of water used per day based on the total amount of water used in a water distribution system over the period of one year.

A

Average daily consumption

114
Q

The maximum total amount of water that was used during a 24-hr interval within a 3-year period.

A

maximum daily consumption

115
Q

The maximum amount of water used in an 1-hr interval over the course of a day.

A

Peak hourly consumption

116
Q

A ______ _______ ______ is produced with a fixed orifice and a smooth bore nozzle. It is tight with little spray or shower effect.

A

solid fire stream

117
Q

mathematical equation for determining the flow rate of a solid stream nozzle.

A

GPM=29.7xd2x/NP

118
Q

The force as water is discharged from a nozzle at a given pressure, a counterforce pushes back against the firefighters operating the hoseline.

A

nozzle reaction

119
Q

Newton’s third law of motion:

A

For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

120
Q

Mathematical equation for determining nozzle reaction for solid stream nozzles

A

1.57xd2xNP
Customary system of measurement is NR=Q/3 for an approximation.

121
Q

Mathematical equation for nozzle reaction of a fog stream nozzle

A

0.0505xQx/NP

122
Q

Mathematical equation for determining friction loss.

A

FL=CQ2L

123
Q

Equation for elevation pressure loss.

A

EP=0.5H

124
Q

Elevation pressure loss in multistory buildings

A

EP=(5psi)x(number of stories-1)

125
Q

With proper calibration, a flowmeter in good working order should be accurate to a tolerance of plus or minus _________.

A

3 percent

126
Q

Each discharge equipped with a flowmeter must have a digital readout display mounted within ___ inches of the control valve for that discharge.

A

6

127
Q

If a pressure gauge is mounted at the 6-inch
location, then the flowmeter must be mounted within ___ inches adjacent to the gauge.

A

2

128
Q

The Condensed Q formula may be used for operations in which the friction loss can be determined for 3-, 4-, or 5-inch hose.

A

3-inch hose–FL=Q2
4-inch hose–FL=Q2/5
5-inch hose–FL=Q2/15
i.e. FL of 200gpm being flowed from 100ft of 3in hose.
FL = (200/100)2= 2squared= 4psi per 100 feet of 3in hose.

129
Q

________ _________ pumps are self-priming, deliver a definite volume of water or air, and exhaust air from the pump and deliver water.

A

Positive displacement

130
Q

_____ _______ operate using a piston that moves back and forth in a cylinder.

A

Piston pumps

131
Q

Referring to piston pumps:
These multi-cylinder, PTO-driven pumps can provide pressures up to ____ psi for high-pressure fog lines, or to inject foam concentrate into a waterline or manifold at a higher pressure than the water pump is creating.

A

1,000

132
Q

The total amount of water that can be pumped by a ______ _______ pump depends on the size of the pockets in the gears and speed of rotation.

A

rotary gear

133
Q

_______ ______ pumps are constructed with moveable elements that automatically compensate for wear, maintaining a tighter fit with closer clearances as the pump is used.

A

Rotary vane

134
Q

Pump with one or more impellers that rotate and utilize centrifugal force to move the water. Most modern fire pumps are of this type.

A

Centrifugal Pump

135
Q

The _______ acts as the disk receiving its water through the ____ in its center. This water is thrown out to the ______ around the outside edge of the pump housing.

A

impeller
eye
volute

136
Q

Hinged valve that permits the flow of water in on direction only.

A

Clapper valve

137
Q

Automatic valve that permits liquid to flow in only one direction. For example, the inline valve that prevents water from flowing into a foam concentrate container when education pressure is disrupted.

A

Check Valve

138
Q

A very close tolerance must be maintained between the pump casing and the hub of the impeller. This opening is usually limited to ____ inch or less.

A

.01

139
Q

Replaceable rings that are attached to the impeller and /or the pump casing to allow a small running clearance between the impeller and the pump casing without causing wear of the actual impeller or pump casing material.

A

Wear rings

140
Q

As packing rings wear with the operation of the shaft, the ______ _______ can be tightened in order to control any leaks and allow the pump to draft.

A

packing gland

141
Q

Heat develops by friction where the
packing rings come into contact with the shaft. In order to overcome this, a spacer, known as a
______ or slinger _______ is supplied with the packing to provide cooling.

A

lantern ring

142
Q

With the engine idling and the pump engaged, most speedometers will indicate between ___ to
____mph.

A

10 to 15

143
Q

Centrifugal pumps are rated to pump their maximum volume capacity at _____psi at draft.

A

150

144
Q

A relay operation begins with the ________ capacity pumper working from the water source.

A

largest

145
Q

It is advisable for driver/ operators to maintain an intake pressure of ____ to _____psi as a relay pumper.

A

20 to 30

146
Q

Apparatus equipped with pressure governors should be set in the ______ mode when acting as the attack pumper and in the ______ mode while working as a relay pumper.

A

pressure
rpm

147
Q

Mathematical equation for determining the number pumpers needed for relay pumping:

A

P=R/D+1

P= Total number of pumpers needed
R= Relay distance (water source to attack pumper)
D= Distance from tables 12.1a (ch.12, pg.429)

148
Q

Many modern fuels, including gasoline, are blended with up to ____ percent solvent additives. Treat these products as polar solvents during emergency operations.

A

15

149
Q

Foam extinguishes and/ or suppresses vapors by the following methods:

A

-Separating: Creates a barrier between the fuel and the fire
-Cooling: Lowers the temperature of the fuel and adjacent surfaces.
-Suppressing or smothering: Prevents the release of flammable vapors, reducing the possibility of ignition or re-ignition

150
Q

Class A foam concentrates maybe mixed with percentages as little as ____ to ____ percent.

A

0.1 to 1

151
Q

The shelf life of class A foam can be as long as ___ ______.

A

20 years

152
Q

Foam concentrate tanks on municipal fire apparatus generally range from ____ to ______ gallons while foam pumper tenders may carry _____ gallons or more of concentrate.

A

20 to 200
8,000

153
Q

Class __ foam concentrates should be stored in cool areas to maximize shelf life: approximately 10 years for protein-based foams and 20- 25 years for synthetic foam.

A

B

154
Q

________ foams are derived from animal protein sources such as hooves, horns, or feather meal.

A

Protein

155
Q

___________ of these products is determined by the rate at which natural bacteria can degrade the foam.

A

Biodegradability

156
Q

Raw foam liquid in its storage container before being combined with water and air.

A

Foam concentrate

157
Q

Device that injects the correct amount of foam concentrate into the water stream to make the foam solution.

A

Foam proportioner

158
Q

Mixture of foam concentrate and water before the introduction of air.

A

Foam solution

159
Q

Completed product after air is introduced into the foam solution.

A

Foam

160
Q

The _______ _____ refers to the minimum amount of foam solution that must be applied to a fire, per minute, per square foot of fire.

A

application rate

161
Q

Foam low expansion rate

A

20:1

162
Q

Foam medium expansion rate

A

20:1 up to 200:1

163
Q

Foam high expansion rate

A

200:1 to 1000:1

164
Q

Ability of a foam blanket to resist direct flame impingement such as would be evident in a partially extinguished petroleum fire.

A

Burnback resistance.

165
Q

To cause or undergo a chemical process of decomposition involving the splitting of a bond and the addition of the element of water.

A

Hydrolyze

166
Q

During road testing the apparatus must accelerate to ___mph from a standing start within ___ seconds.

A

35mph
25seconds

167
Q

The apparatus must achieve a maximum top speed of ___mph.

A

50mph

168
Q

The apparatus must come to a full stop from ___mph within ___ feet.

A

20mph
35feet

169
Q

A _______ _____ is performed to ensure that the pump and associated piping are capable of withstanding high-pressure pumping demands.

A

hydrostatic test

170
Q

The pump body as well as the entire intake and discharge piping system, with the exception of the tank fill and tank-to-pump lines on the tank side of the valves, are subjected to a minimum hydrostatic test pressure of ____psi for a minimum of ___ minutes.

A

500psi
10 minutes

171
Q

The air temperature when pump testing is conducted should be between __°F and ___°F

A

0 and 110

172
Q

The water temperature should be between 35°F and 90°F

A
173
Q

The barometric pressure should be at least 29 inches of Mercury when corrected to sea level. This adjustment is necessary because a 1-inch drop in barometric pressure reduces the static lift of a pumper by approximately 1 foot.

A
174
Q

______ pump discharge pressure is the
difference between the intake pressure and the discharge
pressure.

A

Net

175
Q

Performance tests are conducted at 150psi, 165psi, 200psi, and 250psi net pump discharge pressure.

A
176
Q

NFPA 1911 specifies that all gauges used for service testing must be calibrated within ____ days of the testing.

A

60 days

177
Q

A _________ test evaluates the priming device, pump, and intake hose for air leaks.

A

vacuum

178
Q

If the pump fails to reach ____ inches of mercury, remove the apparatus from service until repairs can be made.

A

22 inches

179
Q

Any apparatus that achieves results less than ____ percent of its original rated capabilities has two options for continued use: It may be placed out of service and restored to its original capabilities and tested again, or the apparatus may be given a lower rating based on the results of the most recent testing.

A

90 percent

Driver Test (6 decks)

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