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03-2023 > PRE2 > Flashcards

PRE2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is used to assess collateral circulation before radial artery puncture

a. Modified Bloom’s test
b. Modified Allen’s test
c. Rivalta’s test
d. Frei test

A

B. Modified Allen’s test - performed before arterial puncture to assess the collateral circulation via blood supply from ulnar artery

a. under sperm vitality
c. simple inexpensive; differentiate transudate from exudate
d. diagnostic test for a bacterium C. trachomatis (lymphogranuloma venereum)

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2
Q

What is 86 mg/dl glucose in SI unit?

a. 4.73 mmol/L
b. 4.79 mmol/L
c. 4.73 g/L
d. 4.79 g/L

A

A. 4.73 mmol/L

Conversion factor for glucose: 0.0555

86 x 0.055

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3
Q

Which anticoagulant has the least interference with chemical analysis?

a. EDTA
b. citrate
c. heparin
d. oxalate

A

C. heparin

Physiological anticoagulant (in vitro and in vivo)
Variant used for most tests: LITHIUM HEPARIN
Anticoagulant used in CARDIOPULMONARY BYPASS (CPB)

Sodium heparin may interfere with electrolyte determination - Falsely elevate

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4
Q

At room temperature, glucose is metabolized at which rate?

a. 10 mg/dl/hr
b. 17 mg/dl/hr
c. 2 mg/dl/hr
d. 7 mg/dl/hr

A

D. 7 mg/dl/hr

“I want 7 rooms and 2 refrigerators”

Glucose analysis - subjected to glycolysis
Room temp = 7 mg/dl/hr
Ref. temp = 2 mg/dl/hr

  1. Separate the serum from the cells within 30 mins. to prevent glycolysis.
  2. The presence of cells, including LEUKOCYTES, may cause a SUBSTANTIAL DECREASE in glucose
  3. Usage of GRAY-colored evacuated tube
    a. glucose analysis
    b. to prevent glycolysis
    • sodium fluoride - antiglycolytic agent
    • oxalate - anticoagulant
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5
Q

Which test monitors blood glucose control for the past 3 months?

a. HbA1c test
b. fructosamine
c. OGTT
d. micral test

A

A. HbA1c test (glycated hemoglobin)
1. hemoglobin which is chemically linked with glucose
2. measures long-term glucose control
- monitors the glucose intake for the past 2-4 months (ave. 3 months)
- life span of RBC: 120 days (4 months)
3. rate of production is dependent on average blood glucose concentration and red blood cell lifespan
4. not recommended for px with low RBC life span (ex. thalassemia, hemoglobinopathies) may shorten the exposure of hemoglobin to glucose; HbA1c will be DECREASED – fructosamine test is done

b. glycated serum proteins (e.g. albumin, globulins); monitors short-term glucose control (2-3 weeks) indicated for patients with shortened RBC lifespan; Albumin half-life= 20 days
c. diagnosis of diabetes
d. diagnosis for a complication in diabetes (diabetic nephropathy)

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6
Q

What is the major structural protein of LDL?

a. Apo A-1
b. Apo B-48
c. Apo B-100
d. Apo C-II

A

C. Apo B-100

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7
Q

Which of the following is also known as sinking pre-B lipoprotein?

a. Chylomicron
b. IDL
c. B-VLDL
d. Lp(a)

A

D. Lp(a)

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8
Q

Smallest and most dense lipoprotein particle
Contains majority of protein (45-55%) - APO A-1
“GOOD cholesterol”
a. transports cholesterol from peripheral tissue to the liver
b. non-atherogenic - not able to create plaques
c. promotes negative risk in CHD

A

HDL

High Density Lipoproteins

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9
Q

Transport lipids (hydrophobic) within the system

Composed of lipids and proteins, which are called Apolipoproteins

A

Lipoproteins

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10
Q

Major Lipoproteins

A

HDL, LDL, VLDL, Chylomicron

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11
Q

Minor Lipoproteins (vowels)

A

IDL, Lp(a)

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12
Q

Abnormal Lipoproteins (consonant)

A

LpX, B-VLDL

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13
Q

Rich in cholesteryl esters (50%)
APO B-100
“BAD cholesterol”
a. most atherogenic - build up cholesterol and blockage
b. transports cholesterol from the liver to the peripheral tissue
c. smaller in size as compared to Chylomicrons and VLDL

A

LDL

Low density lipoprotein

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14
Q

Rich in triglycerides (65%)
a. large size: accounts for the turbidity of FASTING hyperlipidemic plasma
APO B-100
Transports ENDOGENOUS TAG (from the liver) to the peripheral tissue

A

VLDL

Very low-density lipoprotein

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15
Q

Largest lipoprotein
a. Rich in TAG (95%)
b. POSTPRANDIAL turbidity (after eating)
Least dense - readily float to the top of the stored plasma that forms a CREAMY layer
APO B-48
Transports EXOGENOUS/ dietary TAG (from food) to the liver and peripheral cells

A

Chylomicrons

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16
Q

Minor lipoprotein
VLDL remnants
No TAGs

A

IDL
Intermediate-density lipoproteins

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17
Q

Minor lipoprotein
LDL-like particle that contains APO(A) linked to Apo B-100
SINKING PRE-B LIPOPROTEIN
a. Co-migrates with VLDL in electrophoresis (‘pre-B’)
b. Has similar density with LDL (‘Sinking’)

A

Lp(a)

“Low pressure area - sinking ship”

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18
Q

Abnormal lipoprotein
Found in patients with cholestasis and LCAT defect

LCAT - important in the reverse cholesterol pathway

A

Lipoprotein X (LpX)

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19
Q

Abnormal lipoprotein
Floating B-lipoprotein
a. migrate similar to LDL, density similar to VLDL
Associated in patients with Type III hyperlipidemia

A

B-VLDL

“ang BARKO nag-FFLOAT sa dagat”

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20
Q

Which of the following uses potentiometry

a. pO2
b. Potassium
c. pCO2
d. Sodium

A

C. pCO2

Potentiometry = pH and pCO2
Amperometry = pO2
Ion selective electrode = Potassium, Sodium

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21
Q

Acid-Base Balance
Potentiometry
Glass electrode - H+ ion concentration ?
Severinghaus electrode - pH change?

A

pH, pCO2

Glass electrode - H+ ion concentration = pH

Severinghaus electrode (modified pH or glass electrode) - pH change = pCO2
- pH electrode immersed in HCO3- solution
- electrode permeable in carbon dioxide

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22
Q

Acid-Base Balance
Amperometry or Polarography
Clark electrode - current flow?

A

pO2

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23
Q

In enzyme assays, which method is more advantageous

a. Forward reaction
b. Reverse reaction
c. Any of the above
d. None of the above

A

B. Reverse reaction

More advantageous
Shorter reaction Rate

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24
Q

Enzymatic Assays
Creatinine kinase
Forward: ?
Reverse: ?

A

Creatinine kinase
Forward: Tanzer-Gilvarg
Reverse: Oliver-Rosalki-Hess

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25
Q

Enzymatic Assays
Lactate Dehydrogenase
Forward: ?
Reverse: ?

A

Lactate Dehydrogenase
Forward: Wacker
Reverse: Wroblewski-LaDue

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26
Q

Enzymatic Assays
Lactate Dehydrogenase
Forward: ?
Reverse: ?

A

Lactate Dehydrogenase
Forward: Wacker
Reverse: Wroblewski-LaDue

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27
Q

Which is the most potent of the estrogens

a. Estradiol
b. Estrone
c. Testosterone
d. Estriol

A

A. Estradiol (highest conc. in nonpregant women)

A, B, D = estrogens

Estrone - detectable but lower concentration
Estriol - undetectable in nonpregnant women (x 1000-fold in pregnant women)
Testosterone - principal most potent androgen

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28
Q

Increased cortisol because of excessive activity of pituitary gland causes?

a. cushing’s disease
b. hashimoto’s thyroiditis
c. grave’s disease
d. cushing’s syndrome

A

A. Cushing’s disease

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29
Q

Endocrine Disorders

Primary?
Secondary?
Tertiary?

a. Pituitary gland
b. Gland
c. Hypothalamus

A

Primary = Gland (usually inverse relationship among results)
Secondary = Pituitary gland (-SH) (usually direct relationship)
Tertiary = Hypothalamus (-RH) (usually direct relationship)

a. hypothalamus will release a releasing hormone which will stimulate pituitary gland
b. pituitary gland will release stimulating hormone which will stimulate the target gland

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30
Q

Overexposure to glucocorticoids, like cortisol
Cause:
a. cortisol-secreting tumor in adrenal glands
b. medication (e.g. Prednisone)
Increased cortisol, Decreased ACTH

A

Cushing’s Syndrome
aka Primary hypercortisolism/ Adrenal cushing’s syndrome

ACTH - produced by pituitary gland

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31
Q

Cause: Pituitary adenoma
Increased ACTH, Increased cortisol

A

Cushing’s disease
aka Secondary hypercortisolism/ Pituitary Cushing’s syndrome

Tumor-secreting ACTH

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32
Q

Cause: CRH-secreting tumors (rare)
Increased corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)
Increased ACTH, Increased cortisol

A

Cushing’s disease
aka Tertiary hypercortisolism

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33
Q

What is the blood alcohol volume that can be considered presumptive evidence for drunk driving?

a. 20mg/dl
b. 25mg/dl
c. 75mg/dl
d. 100mg/dl

A

D. 100mg/dl

Blood alcohol concentration - presumptive evidence of driving under the influence of alcohol = 0.10% (w/v) or 100mg/dl

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34
Q

Which statistical test is used to compare the means of 2 groups

a. F test
b. Paired t test
c. Chi-squared test
d. Pearson correlation

A

B. Paired T-test

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35
Q

QC
SD, Precision

A

F test (“SPF”)

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36
Q

QC
Accuracy, Mean

A

T test (“TAM”)

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37
Q

Which line on a graph is designated for independent variable?

a. X-axis
b. Y-axis
c. Z-axis
d. A-axis

A

A. X-axis

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38
Q

Cartesian Plane
Horizontal, Abscissa, Independent variables

A

X-axis (“HAXI”)

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39
Q

Cartesian Plane
Vertical, Ordinate, Dependent variables

A

Y-axis (“VOYD”)

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40
Q

Cartesian Plane
Vertical, Ordinate, Dependent variables

A

Y-axis (“VOYD”)

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41
Q

Which refers to 6 consecutive values that distribute themselves on one side of the mean?

a. Trend
b. Drift
c. Outlier
d. Shift

A

D. Shift

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42
Q

QC
Gradual change
Values continue to either increase or decrease over a period of 6 consecutive days
Most common cause:
a. Deterioration of reagent
b. Deterioration of control samples

A

Trend (drift)

Ex. 7T rule violation

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43
Q

QC
Abrupt, sudden change in control values
Six or more consecutive values that distribute on one side of the mean
Most common cause: Improper calibration of instrument

A

Shift

Ex. 10X violation

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44
Q

QC
Highly deviating value

A

Outlier

Must not be included in the interpretation

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45
Q

Westgard Multirules
NL =

A

N = number of control values being observed
L = control limit being exceeded

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46
Q

Westgard Multirule
1 control value being observed
2SD - control limit being exceeded

1 control exceeds +-2s from mean
“WARNING” rule - signifies that an error may be present
Continue to run
Random error

A

1 2s

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47
Q

Westgard Multirule
1 control exceed +-3s from mean
Unacceptable random error
Rejection rule
Rerun control

A

1 3s

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48
Q

Westgard Multirule
One control exceeding +-2s and another exceeding +-2s
Random error
Rejection rule

A

R 4s

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49
Q

Westgard Multirule
2 control exceed +- 2s from mean on the same side
Systematic error
Rejection rule

A

2 2s

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50
Q

Westgard Multirule
4 control exceeds +-1s from mean on the same side
Systematic error
Rejection rule

A

4 1s

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51
Q

Westgard Multirule
10 consecutive controls on same side of mean
Systematic error
Rejection rule
Form of Shift (abrupt change)

A

10x

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52
Q

Which is often calculated to identify the cause of metabolic acidosis?

a. Osmolal gap
b. Friedewald equation
c. Anion gap
d. DeLong

A

C. Anion Gap

B, D = LDL approximation

A = used for detection of osmotically active substances (serum osmolality, electrolyte determination)

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53
Q

Difference between unmeasured anions and unmeasure cations
Indicates INCREASE in one or more unmeasured anions
Forms as a QC for electrolytes determination
Also used to identify the cause of metabolic acidosis

A

Anion Gap

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54
Q

Decreased Anion Gap
Decrease in unmeasured anions

A

Hypoalbuminemia
(cirrhosis)

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55
Q

Decreased Anion Gap
Increase in unmeasured cations

A

Hypercalcemia
(multiple myeloma)

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56
Q

Acid Base Disordes

Hypo/Hyperventilation?
Excretion/ reabsorption of bicarbonate in the tubules?

A

Lungs, CO2 = Hypoventilation (retain CO2) /
Hyperventilation (expel CO2)

Kidney, HCO3- = Excretion/ reabsorption of bicarbonate in the tubules

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57
Q

Acid Base Disorder
(match disease with condition)

  1. Respiratory Acidosis
  2. Respiratory Alkalosis
  3. Metabolic Acidosis
  4. Metabolic Alkalosis

a. Increased AG
b. Vomiting
c. Emphysema
d. Anxiety

A

Respiratory Acidosis = Emphysema
Respiratory Alkalosis = Anxiety
Metabolic Acidosis = Increased AG
Metabolic Alkalosis = Vomiting

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58
Q

Which BSC allows 70% air to recirculate and the remaining 30% to be exhausted outside the building?

a. Class I BSC
b. Class IIA BSC
c. Class IIB BSC
d. Class III BSC

A

B. Class IIA BSC

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59
Q

BSC
Allow room air (unsterilized) to pass into the cabinet and aorung the material within, sterilizing only the air to be exhausted

A

Class I BSC

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60
Q

BSC
70% recirculated, 30% exhausted

SARS-COV-2

A

Class IIA-1 BSC

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61
Q

BSC
Minimum inflow velocity of 100ft/min. A negative air pressure plenum surrounds all contaminated positive pressure plenums

A

Class IIA-2 BSC

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62
Q

BSC
30% recirculated, 70% exhausted

A

Class IIB-1 BSC

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63
Q

BSC
No recirculation. Air is discharged outside the building. Selected if radioisotopes, toxic chemicals or carcinogens will be used

A

Class IIB-2 BSC

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64
Q

BSC
Designed for work with BSL-4 pathogenic agents, providing maximum protection. The enclosure is gas-tight, and gloves attached to the front prevent direct contact with hazardous materials. All entering and exiting the BSC is sterilized by the HEPA filter

A

Class III BSC

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65
Q

Dimorphic fungi, such as Coccidioides, are under which biosafety level?

a. BSL-1
b. BSL-2
c. BSL-3
d. BSL-4

A

C. BSL-3

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66
Q

BSL
Not harmful to healthy individuals
Bacillus subtilis
Mycobacterium gordonae

A

BSL-1

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67
Q

BSL
Common agents of infectious disease
Used in diagnostic, teaching, and other laboratories
Most viruses (incl. HIV)
S. aureus
SARS-COV-2

A

BSL-2

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68
Q

BSL
Aerosolized, highly infectious, possible bioterrorism agent
F. tularensis
Brucella spp.
Systemic fungi (Coccidioides)
C. burnetii
Y. pestis

A

BSL-3

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69
Q

BSL
Exotic viruses with no available vaccine/ treatment
Life-threatening diseases
Novel viruses
Smallpox
Filovirus
Arenavirus (Lassa fever)
EBOLA virus

A

BSL-4
BSC 3

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70
Q

The chain of infection includes a Source, Mode of transmission and a?

a. Susceptible host
b. Vector
c. Disease
d. Virus

A

A. Susceptible host

Chain of Infection - an important epidemiological model that explains how infectious diseases result from the interaction of agent, host, and environment

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71
Q

6 parts of the Chain of Infection

A

Infectious agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host

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72
Q

Most effective way to break the chain of infection

A

Hand hygiene

Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry

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73
Q

Hand Hygiene
1. “Father of Hand Hygiene”?

  1. Visibly soiled (Handwashing) for how long?
  2. Not visibly soiled (Handrub - alcohol based) for how long? what position/ direction?
A

Started by Ignaz Philipp Semmelweis

Visibly soiled (Handwashing) for 40-60s

Not visibly soiled (Handrub - alcohol based) for 20-30s

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74
Q

Most important part of Hand hygiene

A

Mechanical action of the rubbing the hands together and soaping under the fingernails

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75
Q

What is the safest method of strerilization?

a. Autoclave
b. Dry oven
c. Incineration
d. Filtration

A

C. Incineration

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76
Q

What is the safest method of strerilization?

a. Autoclave
b. Dry oven
c. Incineration
d. Filtration

A

C. Incineration

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77
Q

Which method can be used to sterilize heat-sensitive culture media?

a. Autoclave
b. Membrane filtration
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

A

B. Membrane filtration

a. Autoclave - heat stable

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78
Q

Laboratory Safety

Process that kills ALL FORMS of microbial life, including BACTERIAL SPORES

A

Sterilization

Bacterial Spores are usually highly resistant - they contain DIPICOLINIC ACID

Either accomplised by
a. Physical = heat
b. Chemical/ Cold method

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79
Q

Laboratory Safety

Process that destroys pathogenic organisms, NOT INCLUDING SPORES

A

Disinfection

Physical - Boiling, Pasteurization, Non-ionizing radiation

Chemical - Alcohols, Aldehydes, Halogens, Heavy metals, Quaternary ammonium compounds, Phenolics

80
Q

Physical Sterilization

SAFEST method to ensure that NO INFECTIVE MATERIALS REMAIN in samples or containers when disposed

Subjected to extremely high temp. (980C)

A

Incineration

81
Q

Physical Sterilization

Moist heat
Steam under pressure - 121C, 15psi
Used to sterilize biohazardous trash (30-60 mins) and heat-stable objects (15 mins)

A

Autoclave

82
Q

Physical Sterilization

Dry heat
160-180C
Used to sterilize items such as glassware, oil, petrolatum, or powders

A

Oven

83
Q

Physical Sterilization

METHOD OF CHOICE for antibiotic solutions, toxic chemicals, radioisotopes, vaccines and carbohydrates, which are ALL HEAT SENSITIVE

Cellulose acetate/ nitrate membrane or HEPA

A

Filtration

84
Q

Physical Sterilization

Used for sterilizing disposables such as plastic syringes, catheters, or gloves before use

High-energy GAMMA rays

A

Ionizing radiation

85
Q

Laboratory Safety

Chemical sterilant
a. Ethylene oxide (EtO) - MOST COMMON cold sterilant
b. Formaldehyde vapors/ Vapor-pahse H2O2 - BSC
c. Gluteraldehyde/ Peracetic acid - surgical instruments

A

Cold Sterilization

86
Q

Serpentine growth pattern in Middlebrook 7H10 indicates which organism?

a. M. leprae
b. P. aeruginosa
c. S. marcescens
d. M. tuberculosis

A

D. M. tuberculosis

Middlebrook 7H10 - agar based (SERPENTINE)

Lowenstein-Jensen medium (egg-based), MTB is CAULIFLOWER like colonies (rough, buff)

87
Q

Confluent growth

A

P. aeruginosa

88
Q

Red pigment

A

S. marcescens

89
Q

Non-cultivatable in artificial media
a. Armadillo and footpads of mice

Hansen’s disease/ Leprosy
a. Dx: ulcerative skin leasion, peripheral nerve involvement (sensory impairment

A

M. leprae

90
Q

Which agent is the most common cause of aseptic meningitis?

a. Filovirus
b. C. neoformans
c. West Nile Virus
d. Enterovirus

A

D. Enterovirus

Aseptic meningitis - inflammation of brain or spinal cord meninges; involves non bacteria

a. Hemorrhagic fever
b. Aseptic meningitis - but not most common
c. Meningitis, encephalitis - but not most common

91
Q

Picornaviridae family
Transmitted by means of ingestion
1. Poliovirus - flaccid paralysis
2. Coxsackie virus - herpangina, HFMD, pleurodynia
3. Echovirus - enteric cytopathic human orphan virus

Tx: maily supportive

A

Enterovirus

Enterovirus - acid resistant (‘enteric’)

Rhinovirus - acid sensitive (agent of common cold)

92
Q

Which parasite may cause eosinophilic lung infiltration accompanied by blood eosinophilia?

a. T. spiralis
b. A. lumbricoides
c. Any of the above
d. None of the above

A

B. A. lumbricoides

a. T. spiralis - highest cause of blood eosinophilia

Lung infiltration (ASH)
- Ascaris
- Strongyloides
- Hookworms

93
Q

Pulmonary eosinophilis infiltration due to migrating parasites

Accompanied by blood eosinophila and radiographic shadowing

Heart-lung migration
a. ASH
b. Dirofilaria immitis - Dog heart worm; “coin lesions”

A

Loeffler’s Syndrome

94
Q

Loeffler’s syndrome (WAKANA dx)
Associated with vertical transmission and congenital infections

A

Ancylostoma duodenale (Hookworm)

95
Q

Which parasite may resemble S. haematobium but acid-fast positive?

a. S. japonicum
b. S. mekongi
c. S. intercalatum
d. S. mansoni

A

C. S. intercalatum

96
Q

Unoperculated, embryonated trematode

A

Blood Flukes

Embryonated flukes or trematodes = “CHOS”
Clonorchis
Heterophyes
Opistorchis
Schistoma - unoperculated

97
Q

Blood Flukes

Small lateral spine/ lateral knob

A

S. japonicum

98
Q

Blood Flukes

Large lateral spine
S. mekongi - similar, much smaller

A

S. mansoni

(mansoni = ‘mansion’ malaki = large)
M-M mansoni-mekongi

99
Q

Blood Flukes

Large terminal spine
Found in urine specimen
S. intercalatum - similar, acid fast positive

A

S. haematobium

‘um-‘um

100
Q

Which organism is found mostly in the crypts in the duodenum?

a. Cryptosporidum spp.
b. G. lamblia
c. E. histolytica
d. E. vermicularis

A

B. G. lamblia (small intestine)

All amoeba are found in the intestine
a. Found in small intestine
b. Found in large intestine
d. Nematode found in the large intestine (T. trichura)

101
Q

Characteristic old man’s eyeglases and “falling leaf” motility

Found commonly on the crypts in the duodenum

Entero Test or String test - used to detect Giardia spp. in duodenal specimen

GAY BOWEL SYNDROME

A

Giardia lamblia

102
Q

Autofluorescence requires no stain and is recommended for the indentification of which organism?

a. E. histolytica cysts
b. T. gondii tachyzoites
c. D. fragislis trophozites
d. C. cayetanensis oocyts

A

D. C. cayetanensis oocyts

Autoflourescence - distinct test for cyclospora

Coccidians - weakly acid fast

103
Q

How will you report the grading for Uric acid crystals?

a. Average/hpf
b. Average/lpf
c. RFMM/ hpf
d. RFMM/lpf

A

C. RFMM/hpf

ROWR = Average/hpf
CastCrAb = Average/lpf
TTBAYN = RFMM/hpf
MucuSecs = RFMM/lpf

104
Q

Which of the following indicates serious hazard?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

A

C. 3

Degree of Hazard
“NoSMSex”

0 = No or minimal
1 = Slight
2 = Moderate
3 = Serious
4 = Extreme

105
Q

Glucose, amino acids, and some salts are actively reabsorbed in which tubule

a. Proximal CT
b. Distal CT
c. Collecting tubule
d. Ascending LH

A

A. Proximal CT

Tubular Reabsorption - Water can be reabsorbed in all areas except ASCENDING LOOP OF HENLE - Highly Impermeable to water

106
Q

Tubular reabsorption (Active or Passive, Location)
1. Glucose, Amino acids, Salts
2. Chloride
3. Sodium

A
  1. Active, PCT
  2. Active, ASC LH
  3. Active, PCT, DCT
107
Q

Tubular reabsorption (Active or Passive, Location)
1. Water
2. Urea
3. Sodium

A
  1. Passive, PCT, DES LH, CD
  2. Passive, PCT, ASC LH
  3. Passive, ASC LH
108
Q

What clarity will you give if the print is blurred through the urine?

a. Hazy
b. Cloudy
c. Turbid
d. Milky

A

B. Cloudy

109
Q

Physical Examination of urine
1. Few particulates. print easily seen
2. Print cannot be seen
3. No visible particulates, tranparent
4. May precipitate or be clotted
5. Many particulates, print blurred through urine

A
  1. Hazy
  2. Turbid
  3. Clear
  4. Milky
  5. Cloudy
110
Q

Cabbage or hops urine odor maybe observed in which condition?

a. Isovaleric acidemia
b. Hawkinsinuria
c. Phenylketonuria
d. Methionine malabsorption

A

D. Methionine malabsorption

111
Q
  1. Aromatic odor
  2. Burnt sugar odor
  3. Sweaty feet odor
  4. Mousy odor
  5. Odorless urine
A
  1. Normal urine odor
  2. Maple syrup urine disease (MSUD)
  3. Isovaleric acidemia
  4. Phenylketonuria
  5. Acute tubular necrosis
112
Q
  1. Ammoniacal odor
  2. Rotten egg odor
  3. Swimming pool/ bleach-like/ chlorine odor
  4. Fishy odor
A
  1. UTI or bacterial infection
  2. Cystinuria
  3. Hawkinsinuria
  4. Trimethylaminuria
113
Q

What is being used for the acid protein precipitation test?

a. 3%SSA
b. 3%TCA
c. 5%SSA
d. 5%TCA

A

A. 3% SSA (sulfosalicylic acid)

Test to measure all fractions of protein and made used to detect globulin (in cases of multiple myeloma)

Px with multiple myeloma have urine containing Bence Jones protein (globulins)

114
Q

What are oval fat bodies?

a. Squamous cells
b. Fatty casts
c. WBC
d. RTE

A

D. RTE (with reabsorbed lipid)

OVAL FAT BODIES
Seen in cases of lipiduria
1. Nephrotic syndrome - a group of symptoms that are characterized by heavy proteinuria, hyperlipidemia, and lipiduria
2. Lab. Dx:
a. Hypoalbuminemia
b. Increased BUN, Creatinine, Uric acid
c. Hyperlipidemia
d. Proteinuria, Lipiduria (Oval fat bodies, Fatty casts, Cholesterol crystals)

115
Q

RTE with non-lipid vacuole

Seen in cases of ACUTE TUBULAR NECROSIS (odorless urine)
ATN - one of the most common causes of acute kidney injury
Classification
a. Toxic ATN - caused by free Hgb/ myoglobin, medications (Aminoglycosides, statins)
b. Ischemic ATN - low blood pressure, poor perfusion of blood to kidneys

A

Bubble Cells

Note:
Aminoglycosides - nephro-ototoxic
Statin - anti-cholesterol lowering drug; rhabdomyolysis

116
Q

Weddelite
Envelope/ pyramidal shape
Most common component of renal calculi
Calculi: dark color, very hard, rough surface

A

Calcium oxalate dihydrate

117
Q

Whewellite
Dumbbell shaped
Seen in ethylene glycol (antifreeze) poisoning

A

Calcium oxalate monohydrate

118
Q

Dumbbell shaped similar with CaOx monohydrate
Not clinically significant

A

Calcium carbonate

Acid: Calcium oxalate monohydrate
Alk: Calcium carbonate

119
Q

Apatite
Colorless, flat rectangular plates or prisms in rosette
Calculi: Pale and friable

A

Calcium phosphate

‘phlat, phlate, phrism, phale, phriable phosphate’

120
Q

Yellow-brown pleomorphic (wedges, whetstone, rhombic, 4/6-sided plates) crystals; lemon-shaped
Calculi: yellow to brownish red, mod. hard

A

Uric Acid

121
Q

Hexagonal plates
Non-birefringent
Confirmed by Cyanide-nitroprusside test
Calculi: yellow-brown resembling an old soap, somewhat greasy
Seen in Fanconi’s syndrome

A

Cystine

122
Q

Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Struvite
Coffin-lid appearance
Can be seen in infections by urea-splitting organism like Proteus spp.

A

Triple Phosphate

123
Q

Colorless-yellow or brown needle
- Rhombic
- Whetstones
- SHEAVES OF WHEAT
Confirmed by DIAZO reaction

A

Sulfonamide crystals

124
Q

What is/are the test that may be used to detect urinary mucopolysaccharides?

a. Acid-albumin
b. CTAB
c. Metachromatic spot test
d. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

mucopolysaccharidoses - a disease that results from the accumulation of mucopolysaccharides

(+) result
A, B = white turbidity
C = spot

125
Q

Which tube is used to obtain gastric fluid by inserting it through the nose?

a. Levin tube
b. Rehfuss tube
c. Diagnex
d. None of the above

A

A. Levin tube (nasogastric tube)

B. inserted to the mouth
C. tubeless test - spx: urine (+) blue

126
Q

What color is the positive result for Guaiac-based FOBT?

a. Yellow
b. Red
c. Blue
d. Green

A

B. Blue

Principle: Pseudoperoxidase activity
Reagent: Color developer - NaOH

127
Q

What are these clusters of columnar cells that are seen in patients with bronchial asthma?

a. Curschmann’s spirals
b. Charcot-Leyden crystals
c. Dittrich plugs
d. Creola bodies

A

D. Creola bodies

A, B, D - 3C’s of bronchial asthma
C. - gray-colored foul smelling mass formerly regarded as sign of TB

128
Q

Cluster of columnar ciliated bronchial epithelium seen in BRONCHIAL ASTHMA

a. Curschmann’s spirals
b. Charcot-Leyden crystals
c. Creola bodies

A

C. Creola bodies

129
Q

Darkly stained, elongated mucus plugs seen in BRONCHIAL ASTHMA (mucus = sign of irritation)

a. Curschmann’s spirals
b. Charcot-Leyden crystals
c. Creola bodies

A

A. Curschmann’s spirals

130
Q

Remnants of infiltrated eosinophil (allergy)
Seen in BRONCHIAL ASTHMA

a. Curschmann’s spirals
b. Charcot-Leyden crystals
c. Creola bodies

A

B. Charcot-Leyden crystals

131
Q

What is the color of the health hazard in NFPA chart

a. White
b. Blue
c. Red
d. Yellow

A

B. Blue

NFPA Reference Chart
‘You Were Born Right’ - Yellow White Blue Red

132
Q

In flow cytometry, this cell marker can be used to identify pluripotential hematopoietic stem cells?

a. CD56
b. CD71
c. CD34
d. CD59

A

C. CD34

133
Q

Flow cytometry markers

  • CD34, CD38, HLA-DR, CD117, CD13, CD33, CD59
  • CD15, CD11b, CD16, CD56, CD64, CD71, Glycophorin A
  • CD61(GpIIIa), CD42 (GpIb), Tdt, CD19, CD22, CD79, CD55
  1. HEMATOPOIETIC STEM CELLS:
  2. Granulocytic myeloblast:
  3. Panmyeloid markers:
A
  1. Hematopoietic stem cells: CD34
  2. Granulocytic myeloblast: CD34, CD38, HLA-DR, CD117
  3. Panmyeloid markers: CD13, CD33
134
Q

Flow cytometry markers

  • CD34, CD38, HLA-DR, CD117, CD13, CD33, CD59
  • CD15, CD11b, CD16, CD56, CD64, CD71, Glycophorin A
  • CD61(GpIIIa), CD42 (GpIb), Tdt, CD19, CD22, CD79, CD55
  1. Myelocyte
  2. Band
  3. NK CELLS
A
  1. Myelocyte: CD11b
  2. Band: CD16, CD13
  3. NK cells: CD16, CD56
135
Q

Flow cytometry markers

  • CD34, CD38, HLA-DR, CD117, CD13, CD33, CD59
  • CD15, CD11b, CD16, CD56, CD64, CD71, Glycophorin A
  • CD41 (gpIIb), CD61(GpIIIa), CD42 (GpIb), Tdt, CD19, CD22, CD79, CD55
  1. Monocytic
  2. ERYTHROID
  3. MEGAKARYOCYTIC
  4. Lymphoid
A
  1. Monocytic: CD13, CD33, CD11b, CD64, HLA-DR
  2. Erythroid: CD71 (transferrin receptor), glycophorin A
  3. Megakaryocytic: CD41 (gpIIb), CD61(GpIIIa), CD42 (GpIb)
  4. Lymphoid B&T: CD34, Tdt, HLA-DR
  5. Erythroid = M6
  6. Megakaryocytic = M7

CD41 (gpIIb), CD61(GpIIIa) = Glanzmann’s thrombasthenia
CD42 (GpIb) = von Willebrand factor - BSS

136
Q

Flow cytometry markers

  • CD34, CD38, HLA-DR, CD117, CD13, CD33, CD59
  • CD15, CD11b, CD16, CD56, CD64, CD71, Glycophorin A
  • CD41 (gpIIb), CD61(GpIIIa), CD42 (GpIb), Tdt, CD19, CD22, CD79, CD55
  1. Earliest B cell marker
  2. Immature T
  3. DECAY-ACCELERATING FACTOR
  4. MEMBRANE INHIBITOR OF REACTIVE LYSIS
A
  1. Earliest B cell marker: CD19, CD22, CD79
  2. Immature T: CD34, Tdt
  3. Decay-accelerating Factor: CD55
  4. Membrane inhibitor of Reactive lysis: CD59

CD55, CD59 - deficiency - Dx for Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria

137
Q

Flow cytometry markers

  • CD34, CD38, HLA-DR, CD117, CD13, CD33, CD59
  • CD15, CD11b, CD16, CD56, CD64, CD71, Glycophorin A
  • CD41 (gpIIb), CD61(GpIIIa), CD42 (GpIb), Tdt, CD19, CD22, CD79, CD55
  1. Earliest B cell marker
  2. Immature T
  3. Decay-accelerating Factor
  4. Membrane inhibitor of Reactive lysis
A
  1. Earliest B cell marker: CD19, CD22, CD79
  2. Immature T: CD34, Tdt
  3. Decay-accelerating Factor: CD55
  4. Membrane inhibitor of Reactive lysis: CD59
138
Q

Which erythrocyte metabolic pathway produces a protein necessary for oxygen delivery to tissues?

a. Embden-Meyerhoff Pathway
b. Rapoport-Leubering Pathway
c. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
d. Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway

A

B. Rapoport-Leubering Pathway

139
Q

RBC Metabolic Pathway

  1. ATP
  2. Reduced NADPH
    a. Reduced NADPH is necessary to convert oxidized glutathione into reduced glutathione
    b. Globin will denature, forming HEINZ bodies that will eventually cause membrane damage
  3. 2,3 DPG
  4. Maintenance of iron in the ferrous state Fe2+ (active state)
A
  1. Embden-Meyerhoff Pathway
  2. Hexose Monophosphate Shunt
  3. Rapoport-Leubering Pathway
  4. Methemoglobin Reductase Pathway

Glutathione - important for the maintenance of Hgb
Heinz bodies - forms in decreased level of HMS

140
Q

Which protein is necessary for clot retraction?

a. ADP
b. Thrombopoietin
c. Thrombosthenin
d. Thromboxane A2

A

C. Thrombosthenin (actomyosin complex)

A, D, - produced by platelets necessary for plt. activation and plt. aggregation
B. - platelet production

141
Q

Platelet Ultrastructure

  1. What zone contains:
    Glycocalyx - external surface of platelet
    Plasma membrane - phospholipids (coagulation factor)
  2. What zone contains:
    Microfilaments
    Microtubules
    Thrombosthenin/ actomyosin complex
  3. What zone contains:
    Granules (alpha and delta)
    Mitochondria
  4. What zone contains:
    Surface-connected canalicular system/ Open canalicular system
    Dense tubular system (“Control center”) - for platelet activation
    • sequesters calcium, enzyme location necessary for plt. activation and aggregation
A
  1. Peripheral zone - outermost
  2. Sol-Gel zone
  3. Organelle zone
  4. Membranous zone - innermost

Majority of coagulation factors = Serine protease
Delta granules = “CAMPAS” calcium, ADP, magnesium, pyrophosphate, ATP, serotonin

142
Q

According to WHO, AML is characterized as having how many blasts?

a. 20%
b. 30%
c. 40%
d. 50%

A

A. 20% - WHO

B. 30% - FAB

143
Q

Coagulation Studies

Simplest
1. Visual detection of fibrin clot

Automated
2. Electromechanical detection of fibrin clot
3. Photo-optical detection of fibrin clot

A
  1. Tilt tube technique
  2. Fibrometer
  3. Electra, Ortho-koagulab, Coag-A-Mate, Sysmex
144
Q

This part of cell cycle is responsible for assembling proteins necessary for mitosis as well as checking the DNA for the presence of damage

a. G0
b. G1
c. S phase
d. G2

A

D. G2

145
Q

What is this genetic T lymphocyte abnormality that results to the absence or underdevelopment of the thymus gland?

a. Bruton’s agammaglobulinemia
b. DiGeorge syndrome
c. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
d. Severe combined immunodeficiency

A

B. DiGeorge syndrome

A. B-lymphocyte genetic abnormality
1. low level of Abs
2. recurrent infections

C, D. - combined T and B lymphocyte abnormality

D. Severe combined most common = sex-linked immunodeficiency

C. WAS triad
- immunodeficiency or current infection
-eczema
-thrombocytopenia

WAS = smallest plt.
BSS = largest plt.

146
Q

What is the most specific antibody for SLE?

a. ANA
b. Anti-dsDNA
c. Anti-mitochondrial Ab
d. Anti-CCP

A

B. Anti-dsDNA

A. Patterns determined; nonspecific
C. Primary biliary cirrhosis or cholangitis
D. Most specific Ab for RA

RF - nonspecific AutoAb (anti-IgG)

147
Q

Anti-smooth muscle

“ASMA-CAH”

A

Chronic Autoimmune Hepatitis

148
Q

Primary cause for Primary Hyperthyroidism
Anti-microsomal (anti-peroxidase)
Anti-thyroglobulin

A

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis

149
Q

Autoimmune disease charcaterized in having drying mouth and dry eyes

Anti SS-A (anti-Ro)
Anti SS-B (anti-La)

A

Sjogren’s syndromeq

150
Q

DAT was requested, what anticoagulant will be needed?

a. EDTA
b. None/ not needed
c. Citrate
d. Heparin

A

A. EDTA (Lav or Pink)
Lav = Hema
Pink = BB

DAT detects in vivo sensitization (red cell)

IAT detects in vitro sensitization (serum)
no anticoagulant needed

151
Q

Dolichos biflorus will agglutinate which of the following cells?

a. A cells
b. B cells
c. O cells
d. D cells

A

A. A cells

B cells = Bandeiraea simplicifolia
O cells = Ulex europaeus

152
Q

Which antibody is associated with Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection?

a. Anti-i
b. Anti-I
c. Anti-P1
d. Anti-P

A

B. Anti-I

B. associated with cold agglutinin disease
- M. pneumonia causes Primary atypical pneumonia/ walking pneumonia
- ‘malaking I - marunong maglakad’

A. associated with EBV infection (infectious mononucleosis)
C. associated with patients infected with E. granulosus
D. associated with Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria - Donath Landsteiner antibody (Biphasic Ab; Attaches when cold, lyse when hot)

153
Q

What are the requirement for Autologous donation?

a. Hgb > = 11g/dl
b. Hgb > = 12.5g/dl
c. Hgb > = 11g/dl with Ab screen
d. Hgb > = 13g/dl

A

A. Hgb > = 11g/dl

Autologous donation
- No minimum or maximum age requirement
- Minimum Hgb and Hct = 11g/dl, 33%
- SAFEST BLOOD A RECIPIENT CAN RECEIVE
- No necessary test needed except for;
- Preoperative collection:
a. Collected 5-6 weeks before surgical procedure
b. Collecting facility and Transfusing facility: Blood typing

154
Q

CPD-A1 will preserve blood for how long?

a. 35 days
b. 21 days
c. 42 days
d. 25 days

A

A. 35 days

ACD = 21 days
CPD = 21 days
CP2D = 21 days
CPD-A1 = 35 days
CPD-A2 = 42 days

155
Q

Which of the following is indicated for patients with transfusion hemosiderosis (iron overload) ?

a. Washed RBCs
b. Leukoreduced RBCs
c. Cryoprecipitate
d. Neocytes

A

D. Neocytes - younger RBCs (longer life span)

Iron overload - seen in pxs with frequent transfusions (HA, hemoglobinopathies)

Administer: alkalyting agent, Deferoxamine to prevent iron overload

A. for febril hemolytic transfusion reaction, anaphylatic
B. anaphylatic transfusion reaction, TRALI
C. vWD disease, FVIII or Fibrinogen deficiency

156
Q

CA-125 can be used to monitor:

a. Breast CA
b. Pancreatic CA
c. Ovarian CA
d. Colon CA

A

C. Ovarian CA

Tumor markers: measurable biochemical molcule present in serum/plasma that are associated with malignancy
- Tumor-derived: malignancy is the tumor marker itself
- Tumor-associated: produced by the body in response to the malignant cell

Purpose: testing for recurrence

157
Q

Chemical spilled on skin:

a. Flush with sodium bicarbonate for 5 mins.
b. Wash with water for 15 mins.
c. Cry for help
d. Pray

A

B. Wash with water for 15 mins.

158
Q

Which of the following is not done by an automated tissue processor?

a. Clearing
b. Dehydration
c. Mounting
d. Fixation

A

C. Mounting

159
Q

Picric acid fixative
Excellent fixative for preserving soft and delicate structures (e.g. endometrial curetting, embryo)
NOT ADVISED FOR KIDNEY STRUCTURES

A

Bouin’s Solution

“Baby Boing”
fixative for embryo

160
Q

Double embedding involves which of the following?

a. Infiltrated with Paraffin, Embedded with Celloidin
b. Infiltrated with Celloidin, Embedded with Paraffin
c. Infiltrated with Celloidin, Embedded with Plastic
d. Infiltrated with Paraffin, Embedded with Plastic

A

B. Infiltrated with Celloidin, Embedded with Paraffin

“ICEP - wag na mag-isip isip”

161
Q

It is considered as the simplest microtome

a. Rotary
b. Rocking
c. Freezing
d. Sliding

A

B. Rocking

A. Most common, MINOT
B. Simplest, Paldwall Trefall
C. Releases CO2, Queckett; Rush frozen
D. Most dangerous, Adams

162
Q

H&E staining

Regressive staining, it involves a differentiation step (acid-alcohol)

A

Differentiation = decolorizing

163
Q

Autopsy Method

  1. Organs are removed one by one; Time consuming
  2. In situ dissection
  3. En bloc
  4. En masse; quick method
A
  1. Virchow
  2. Rokitansky
  3. Ghon - bloc
  4. Letulle - LL = SS
164
Q

Revocation of certificate of registration can only be achieved by:

a. Unanimous vote
b. Majority vote
c. Any of the above
d. None of the above

A

A. Unanimous vote = 3/3 board members

Reprimand or suspension = 2/3 votes (majority vote)

165
Q

Conversion factor of Hgb to SI

Henry:
Turgeon:

A

Henry = 10
(gm/dl to g/L)

Turgeon = 0.155
(gm/dl to mmol/L)

166
Q

When preparing a patient for an oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT), which of the following conditions will lead to erroneous result?

a. The patient remains ambulatory for 3 days prior to the test
b. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150g/day for 3 days prior to test
c. No food, coffee, tea, or smoking is allowed 8 hours before and during the test
d. Administration of 75g of glucose is given to an adult patient following a 10-12 hour fast

A

B. Carbohydrate intake is restricted to below 150g/day for 3 days prior to test

Correct: minimum of 150g/day for 3 days, not restricted

167
Q
  1. Increased Cortisol, Decreased ACTH
  2. Increased Cortisol, Increased ACTH
A
  1. Adrenal Cushing’s Syndrome (Primary)
  2. Pituitary Cushing’s Syndrome or Cushing’s Disease (Secondary)
168
Q
  1. Increased T3 T4, Decreased TBG, Increased T3 Uptake
  2. Decreased T3 T4, Increased TBG, Decreased T3 Uptake
A
  1. Hyperthyroidism
  2. Hypothyroidism
169
Q

All of the following are appropriate when attempting to isolate N. gonorrhoeae from a genital specimen except:

a. Transport the genital swab in charcoal transport medium
b. Plate the specimen on Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium
c. Plate the specimen on New York City or Martin-Lewis agar
d. Culture specimens in ambient oxygen at 37C

A

D. Culture specimens in ambient oxygen at 37C

N. gonorrhoeae require 5-10% CO2 not 0.03% CO2

169
Q

All of the following are appropriate when attempting to isolate N. gonorrhoeae from a genital specimen except:

a. Transport the genital swab in charcoal transport medium
b. Plate the specimen on Modified Thayer-Martin (MTM) medium
c. Plate the specimen on New York City or Martin-Lewis agar
d. Culture specimens in ambient oxygen at 37C

A

D. Culture specimens in ambient oxygen at 37C

N. gonorrhoeae require 5-10% CO2 not 0.03% CO2

170
Q

In the urinalysis laboratory, the primary source in the chain of infection would be:

a. Patients
b. Needlesticks
c. Specimens
d. Biohazardous wastes

A

C. Specimens

171
Q

Which order of events should be followed at the conclusion of a laboratory worker’s shift in order to prevent the spread of bloodborne pathogens?

a. Disinfect area, remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat
b. Remove gloves, wash hands, remove lab coat, disinfect area
c. Remove gloves, disinfect area, wash hands, remove lab coat
d. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

A

D. Disinfect area, remove gloves, remove lab coat, wash hands

172
Q

Qualitative test for seminal fluid fructose?
Positive:

A

Resorcinol
(+) Orange

173
Q

How will you differentiate bacterial peritonitis from cirrhosis?

Both have increased WBC in peritoneal fluid (>500 WBCs/uL)

A

Absolute Neutrophil Count
Higher in bacterial peritonitis > Cirrhosis

Bacterial peritonitis - commonly caused by aerobic bacteria

174
Q

Charcot Leyden Crystal
Curshmann spiral
Creola bodies

A

Bronchial Asthma

175
Q

What is the best fire extinguisher?

a. Water
b. Dry chemical
c. CO2

A

B. Dry Chemical

The type to use depends on the type of fire
Because it is impractical to have several types of fire extinguishers present in every area, DRY CHEMICAL fire extinguishers are among the best all-purpose extinguishes for laboratory areas.

176
Q

Solubility test

Reagents:
Detection of:
Positive result:

A

White background with black lines
Reagents: Sodium hydrosulfite (dithionate), Saponin (lysing detergent)
Detection of: Hemoglobin S
Positive result: Turbidity; no black lines seen

177
Q

First appearance of DMS:
Characterized by:

A

First appearance of DMS: MK-1 (megakaryoblast)
Characterized by: MK-I, MK-II, and MK-III

MK-I megakaryoblast
MK-II promegakayocyte
MK-III megakayocyte

178
Q

Screening or Confirmatory?

Clotting test:
Immunologic:

A

Clotting test: Screening
Immunologic: Confirmatory

179
Q

RBC Histogram

X-axis:
Y-axis:
Shift to the left:
Shift to the right:

A

X-axis: size of the cell
Y-axis: number of the cell
Shift to the left: Increasing number of microcytic RBC (smaller than normal)
Shift to the right: Increasing number of macrocytic RBC (larger than normal)

180
Q

A small, flat, bilobed organ found in the thorax, or chest cavity, right below the thyroid gland and overlying the heart

A

Thymus - located near the heart

181
Q

The gold standard test for malaria

A

Thick and thin blood smear

182
Q

Direct or Indirect phagocytosis

  1. Primitive pattern recognition receptors (PPRP); Recognize a wide array of molecules present on the surface of microorganisms
  2. Via opsonin deposited on the microbial cell surface
A
  1. Direct phagocytosis
  2. Indirect phagocytosis
183
Q

Most common disinfectant
Ratio:
Dilution:

A

Sodium hypochlorite (household bleach)
Ratio of Sodium hypochlorite to water: 1:9
Ratio of Water to sodium hypochlorite: 9:1 (TV = 10)
Dilution: 1:10 (Total volume)

184
Q

ISBT SYSTEM NAME
001
004
030

A

001 = ABO
004 = Rh
030 = Rh-associated glycoprotein - newest RHAG

185
Q

Platelets must be kept in constant motion for which of the following reasons?

a. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion
b. Keep the platelets in suspension and prevent clumping of the platelets
c. Mimic what is going on in the blood vessels
d. Preserve the coagulation factors and platelet viability

A

A. Maintain the pH so the platelets will be alive before transfusion

Agitation - for oxygen exchange between platelet bag and platelets
Platelets must be gently agitated during storage by the use of a rotator to prevent the pH from decreasing below 6.2

186
Q

Occurs most frequently when donor LEUKOCYTE ANTIBODIES react with the WBCs in the recipients’ lung vasculature, damaging the endothelium and causing NONCARDIOGENIC PULMONARY EDEMA

Focus is on prevention achieved by using only MALE PLASMA components or plasma components collected from WBC ANTIBODY-NEGATIVE FEMALE DONORS

A

TRALI/ NCPE

187
Q

Most common method of staining for microanatomical studies of tissues; regressive staining

  1. Primary stain, Basic dye, Nuclear stain (blue to blue-black)
  2. Secondary stain, counterstain, Acid dye, Cytoplasmic stain (pink)
  3. Stain for nucleus
A

H&E staining
1. Hematoxylin
2. Eosin
3. Non-acidified hematoxylin

188
Q

Positive Feulgen Technique

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

189
Q

Which of the following would be most adversely affected by a nonfasting sample?

a. HDL
b. LDL
c. Cholesterol
d. Triglycerides

A

D. Triglycerides - 12 hours fasting

190
Q

Which of the following lipid tests is LEAST affected by the fasting status of the patient?

a. Cholesterol
b. Triglycerides
c. Fatty acid
d. Lipoprotein

A

A. Cholesterol - can be done for non-fasting sample

191
Q

In most circumstances, when two controls within a run are both greater than +-2s from the mean, what action should be taken first?

a. Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by selected patient samples if quality control is acceptable
b. Repeat the controls before taking any corrective action
c. Change the reagent lot, then recalibrate
d. Prepare fresh standards and recalibrate

A

A. Recalibrate, then repeat controls followed by selected patient samples if quality control is acceptable

2:2SD

192
Q
  1. In the investigation of Hyponatremia, what to do next?
  2. In the investigation of Hypernatremia, what to do next?
A
  1. Measure serum or plasma osmolality
  2. Measure urine osmolality
193
Q

Difference between the measured osmolality and the calculated osmolality
Indirectly indicates the presence of osmotically active substances OTHER THAN NA+, UREA, or GLUCOSE, such as ethanol, methanol, ethylene glycol, lactate, or B-hydroxybutyrate

A

Osmolal gap

194
Q

Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?

a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

A

A. Metabolic acidosis

195
Q

Tumor Markers and Disease

  1. Elevation of AFP
  2. Elevation of HCG
  3. Elevation of both AFP and HCG
A
  1. Hepatocellular carcinoma
  2. Choriocarcinoma
  3. Germ cell carcinoma, testicular cancer, pregnancy

03-2023 (14 decks)

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