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03-2023 > HP > Flashcards

HP Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Epithelial tissue arises from
  2. Connective and muscular tissue arise from
  3. Nervous tissue arises from
A
  1. Any of the 3 germ layers (Ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm)
  2. The mesoderm
  3. The ectoderm
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2
Q

Epithelial cells seen in the digestive tract from stomach to anus

A

Simple columnar

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3
Q

Epithelial cell seen in the trachea

A

Pseudostratified columnar

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4
Q

Endocrine glads are often called as

A

Ductless glands

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5
Q

Type IV collagen fibers

A

Basement membrane

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6
Q

What is the staining technique used for the demonstration of the glomerular basement membrane?

A

Periodic Acid Shift (PAS) - a special stain for CHO
Azocarmine - collagenic stain

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7
Q

Simplest method for collagen differential staining
Collagen color:

A

Van Gieson’s Stain
Collagen: Pink/Deep Red color

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8
Q

Stains used for Elastic Fibers

A

Verhoeff’s
Weigert’s
Orcein (Taenzer Unna Orcein)

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9
Q

Intercalated disks of the cardiac muscle may be demonstrated by

A

Helly’s fixative

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10
Q

Staining technique for demonstration of nervous tissue

A

Bielschowsky’s technique

Silver staining technique for neurons, neurofibrils, axons, and dendrites
Black color on a grayish background

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11
Q

Pathology: Study of
pathos =
logos =

A

pathos = suffering
logos = study

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12
Q

Father of Modern Pathology

A

Sir Ludwig Carl Virchow
“cellular pathology”
Modern Pathology: Study of cellular abnormalities

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13
Q

Characterized by the Five Cardinal Signs

A

Acute Inflammation

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14
Q

Central necrosis surrounded by multiple Langhans giant cells (activated macrophages) , epithelioid cells (activated macrophages resembling epithelial cells), and lymphocytes

A

Tuberculous granuloma

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15
Q

Connective tissue cells responsible for repair processes - produce collagen

A

Fibroblast

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16
Q

Acquired decrease in size of a normally developed or mature tissue organ

A

Atrophy

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17
Q

This is used as a criterion for malignancy (hallmark)

a. Metaplasia
b. Dysplasia
c. Anaplasia
d. Neoplasia

A

C. Anaplasia

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18
Q

Benign epithelial neoplasms producing microscopically or macroscopically visible finger-like or warty projections from epithelial surfaces are referred to as

A

Papillomas

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19
Q
  1. Injury to cells –> Accumulation of metabolites
  2. Accumulation of metabolites –> Injury
  3. Organ most commonly affected by FATTY DEGENERATION
A
  1. Degeneration
  2. Infiltration
  3. Liver
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20
Q

Cell death due to ischemia is manifested by a characteristic histologic appearance called “COAGULATIVE NECROSIS”

A

Infarction

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21
Q

What is the temperature of the wax bath in the automatic tissue processor?

A

3C above the melting point of the wax used

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22
Q

Highest possible concentration of formaldehyde

A

40%

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23
Q

Fixative for Smears (3)

A

Schaudinn’s
Ether alcohol
Methanol

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24
Q

‘Tolerant fixative’
Fixative recommended for nervous tissue demonstration, restoration of natural colors of the tissue, and frozen section

A

10% Formalin

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25
Q
  1. Preservative to Formalin
  2. Buffer to Formalin
A
  1. Methanol
  2. 10% neutral PHOSPHATE buffered formalin
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26
Q

Removal of Formalin Pigments
1. Saturated alcoholic solution
2. Ethyl alcohol, Ammonia water
3. Acetone, Hydrogen peroxide, Ammonia water

A
  1. Picric acid method
  2. Kardasewitsch’s method
  3. Lillie’s method
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26
Q

Best fixative for tissues containing iron pigments

A

10% Neutral buffered formalin/ Phosphate Buffered formalin (pH 7)

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27
Q

Fixative used for electron microscopy preparation

A

Paraformaldehyde

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28
Q

Tissues fixed with mixtures containing mercury chloride contain black precipitates of mercury except

A

Susa

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29
Q

Routine fixative of choice for preservation of CELL DETAIL IN TISSUE PHOTOGRAPHY;
Causes marked SHRINKAGE of cells

A

Mercuric Chloride Fixative

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30
Q

Recommended for fixing small pieces of liver, spleen, connective tissue fibers, and nuclei

A

Zenker’s fluid

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31
Q

Excellent for bone marrow, extramedullary hematopoiesis, and intercalated discs of the cardiac muscle
Excellent for microanatomic fixative for pituitary gland, bone marrow, and blood-containing organs such as spleen and liver

A

Zenker-Formol (Helly’s solution)

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32
Q

Recommended for demonstration of chromatin, Golgi bodies, mitochondria, mitotic figures, RBC, and colloid containing tissues

A

Chromate fixative: Regaud’s (Muller’s fluid)

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33
Q

Recommended for the study of early degenerative processes and tissue necrosis; Demonstration of RICKETTSIA and other bacteria

A

Chromate fixative: Orth’s fluid

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34
Q

Recommended for Acid Mucopolysaccharides

A

Lead Fixative

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35
Q

Can be a fixative, decalcifying agent, and cytoplasmic stain
Excellent for glycogen demonstration
Yellow stain prevents small fragments to be overlooked - Fragmentary biopsies
Highly explosive when dry

A

Picric Acid

Excellent for glycogen demonstration: Picric acid and Alcohol Fixatives
Highly explosive when dry: Picric acid and Formaldehyde

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36
Q

Recommended for fixation of embryos and pituitary biopsies
Excellent in preserving soft and delicate structure (ENDOMETRIAL CURETTINGS) - fragmentary biopsies
Preserves glycogen

Composition:
Not suitable for:

A

Bouin’s solution

Saturated solution of picric acid
40% Formaldehyde
Glacial acetic acid

Not suitable for fixing kidney structures, lipid, and mucus

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36
Q

Precipitating, Dehydrating, and Non-additive fixation
Concentrations ranging from 70-100% - less concentrated solution will produce cell lysis
Dissolves fats and lipids

Used to fix and preserve:

A

Alcohol Fixative
Used to fix and preserve GLYCOGEN, PIGMENTS, BLOOD TISSUE FILMS, AND SMEARS

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37
Q
  1. Excellent in fixing dry and wet smears, blood smears, and bone marrow tissues
  2. Used in fixing touch preparations
  3. If lower concentrations are used, RBCs become hemolyzed and WBCs are inadequately preserved; Used for histochemistry, esp. for enzyme studies
A
  1. 100% Methyl Alcohol
  2. 95% Isopropyl Alcohol
  3. 70-80% Ethyl alcohol
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38
Q
  1. Most rapid fixative
  2. Act as both nuclear and histochemical fixative
  3. Alcoholic version of Bouin’s; fixes sputum, preserves glycogen
A
  1. Carnoy’s fixative
  2. Newcomer’s fixative
  3. Gendre’s fluid
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39
Q
  1. Most common Chrom-Osmium Acetic Acid Fixative
  2. Recommended for cytoplasmic structures particularly the mitochondria
  3. Recommended for water-diffusable enzymes; diagnosis of rabies; ice cold
A
  1. Flemming’s solution (with GAA)
  2. Flemming’s solution (without GAA)
  3. Acetone
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40
Q
  1. What is the CHIEF ADVANTAGE of microwave fixation?
  2. Disadvantage of Fixation
A
  1. Tissue is heated right through the block in a very short time
  2. Microwaves generated by commercial ovens only penetrate tissue to a thickness of 10-15mm
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41
Q
  1. Most common and fastest acid decalcifying agent
  2. Decalcifying agent and tissue softener at the same time
  3. Most rapid nitric acid decalcifying agent
A
  1. 5-10% Nitric Acid
  2. Perenyi’s fluid
  3. Phloroglucin-Nitric Acid
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42
Q
  1. Recommended for surface decalcification of tissue block
  2. Which decalcifying agent has Hydrochloric acid in its composition?
A
  1. Hydrochloric acid
  2. Von Ebner’s (NaCl, HCl, distilled H2O)
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43
Q

The amount of dehydrating agent should not be _____ the volume of the tissue

A

The amount of dehydrating agent should not be LESS THAN 10 TIMES the volume of the tissue

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44
Q
  1. Most common and Best dehydrating agent
  2. Toxic dehydrating agent
  3. For plant and animal microtechnique
  4. Microwave processing schedules
A
  1. Ethyl alcohol
  2. Methyl alcohol
  3. Butyl alcohol
  4. Isopropyl alcohol (IPA)
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45
Q
  1. Excellent dehydrating and clearing agent
  2. Dehydrates and Clears tissue at the same time
A
  1. Dioxane
  2. THF

Both Dioxane and Tetrahydrofuran (THF) Dehydrate and Clears tissue

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46
Q

Clearing
1. Most commonly used and rapid clearing agent
2. Clearing agent for tough tissues, (skin, fibrinoid, decalcified tissues), nervous tissues, lymph nodes, and embryos
3. Clearing agent: toxic, carcinogenic, aplastic anemia

A
  1. Xylene
  2. Chloroform
  3. Benzene
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47
Q

Clearing
1. Substitute for xylene or benzene
2. Clear both paraffin and celloidin; Recommended for CNS tissues and cytological studies, particularly of smooth muscles and skin
3. Recommended for clearing embryos, insects, and very delicate specimens

A
  1. Toluene
  2. Cedarwood oil
  3. Aniline ooil
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48
Q
  1. Most important step in embedding
  2. Simplest, Most Common, and Best Embedding Medium
A
  1. Orientation
  2. Paraffin Wax
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49
Q

Substitutes for Paraffin Wax
1. MP 56-57
2. MP 56-58
3. For embedding Eyes
4. Contains Rubber

A
  1. Paraplast
  2. Embeddol
  3. Bioloid
  4. Tissue Mat
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50
Q

Substitutes for Paraffin Wax
1. MP 46-48
2. Most commonly used water-soluble wax

A
  1. Ester wax
  2. Carbowax
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51
Q

Celloidin
1. Preferred for processing whole eye section
2. Added to #1 (Chloroform + Cedarwood)
3. For bones, teeth, large brain sections, whole organs

A
  1. Dry
  2. Gilson’s mixture
  3. Wet
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52
Q

Double Embedding Method
“ICEP”

A

Tissue is first infiltrated with celloidin and subsequently embeded in paraffin

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53
Q

Section thickness
1. Paraffin section
2. Celloidin section

A
  1. 4-6 mcira
  2. 10-15 micra
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54
Q
  1. Temp. of Flotation water bath
  2. Most commonly used adhesive
  3. Preservative; prevent the growth of molds
A
  1. 45-50C
  2. Mayer’s egg albumin
  3. Thymol Crystal
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55
Q
  1. Adhesive widely used as a section adhesive for Immunohistochemistry
  2. Utilized for cytology, particularly for cytospin preparations of proteinaceous or bloody material
A
  1. Poly-L-Lysine
  2. APES (3-aminopropylthriethoxysilane)
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56
Q
  1. Serves as a link or bridge between tissue and the dye to make staining reaction possible
  2. Accelerates or hastens the speed of the staining reaction
A
  1. Mordant
  2. Accentuator
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56
Q

Mordants for Hematoxylin
1. Mayer’s, ehrlichs, delafields, coles, gills, harris
2. Loyez, verhoeffs, heidenhains, weigerts
3. Tungsten hematoxylin
4. Solcia
5. Weigert-Pal
6. Thomas

A
  1. Aluminum
  2. Iron
  3. Phosphotungstic acid
  4. Lead
  5. Copper
  6. Molybdenum
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57
Q

Method of Staining
1. No decolorization step (ex. frozen h&e)
2. Excess stain is removed or decolorized
3. Selective removal of excess stain
4. Most common decolorizing agent

A
  1. Direct staining
  2. Indirect staining
  3. Differentiation/ Decolorization
  4. Acid Alcohol (HCl + 80% ETOH)
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58
Q
  1. Intravital stains
  2. Supravital staining: best vital dye
  3. Supravital staining: recommended for mitochondria
A
  1. Lithium, India ink, Carmine
  2. Neutral red
  3. Janus green
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59
Q

Cytoplasmic Stains
1. Red
2. Yellow
3. Green

A
  1. Phloxine B, Eosin B, Eosin Y
  2. Picric acid, Orange G, Rose bengal
  3. Light green SF, Lissamine green
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60
Q

Nuclear stains
1. Red
2. Blue

A
  1. Neutral red, Safranin O, Carmine, Hematoxylin
  2. Methylene blue, Toluidine blue, Celestine blue
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61
Q

Active coloring agent formed from hematoxylin oxidation aka ripening

A

Hematein

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62
Q

Natural Dyes
1. Mexican tree (Haematoxylon campechianum)
2. Female cochineal bug (Dactylopius coccus/ Coccus cacti)
3. Vegetable dye (Lichens/ Moss)
4. Dried stigma (Crocus sativus)

A
  1. Hematoxylin
  2. Cochineal dye
  3. Orcein
  4. Saffron
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63
Q
  1. Stain utilized for the study of spermatogenesis
  2. Collagen color after staining with acid fuschin-picric acid
  3. Color of DNA and RNA for acridine orange
A
  1. Copper Hematoxylin
  2. Collagen: pink or deep red
  3. DNA: Yellow-green;
    RNA: Brick to Orange red
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64
Q
  1. Stain for demonstration of amyloid
  2. Oldest of all stains
  3. Elastic Fiber stain
  4. Stain for mitochondria
A
  1. Congo Red
  2. Iodine
  3. Orcein (Tanzer Unna Orcein)
  4. Janus Green B
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65
Q

Carbohydrate Stains
1. PAS-positive stain color
2. Best Carmine stain for glycogen
3. Langhan’s iodine method for glycogen (Carleton’s method)

A
  1. Red or magenta red
  2. Bright red granules
  3. Mahogany brown
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66
Q

Fats/Lipids stain
1. Sudan IV - lipid color
2. Oil red O in dextrin - fat color
3. Osmic acid - fat

A
  1. Mainly TAG = Red
  2. Fat = Brillant red
  3. Fat = Black
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67
Q
  1. Protein Stain - Alkaline fast color for Histones and proteins
  2. Nucleic Acid stain
    a. Feulgen technique for nuclear DNA (Nuclear reaction)
    b. Methyl green - pyronin method for DNA and RNA
    c. Acridine orange for DNA and RNA
A
  1. Histones and proteins: Green
    2a. DNA: Red-purple
    2b. DNA (chromatin): green/ blue-green; RNA (nucleoli): rose-red
    2c. DNA: yellow-green fluorescence; RNA: brick to orange-red
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68
Q

Connective Tissue stain
1. For reticulin
2. For collagen
3. For elastic tissue
4. For elastic fibers

A
  1. Gomori’s silver impregnation - black
  2. Van Gieson - pink or deep red
  3. Weigert’s - dark blue
  4. Orcein - dark brown
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69
Q
  1. Stain for CNS
  2. Tissue pigment and deposit
    a. For hemosiderin
    b. Dark blue Argentaffin cells
    c. Melanin and black argentaffin cells
A
  1. Bielschowsky’s technique: black on gray bg
    2a. Perl’s prussian blue
    2b. Schmorl’s ferric-ferricyanide
    2c. Masson-Fontana
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70
Q

Tissue pigment and deposit stain
1. For calcium - black
2. For copper-associated protein - red to orange-red

A
  1. Von Kossa’s silver nitrate
  2. Linquist’s mod. rhodamine technique
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71
Q

Microorganisms stains
1. For Helicobacter
2. For Leprosy bacilli and Nocardia
3. For spirochetes
4. For fungi

A
  1. Toluidine blue - Dark blue
  2. Wade-Fite - Red
  3. Levatidis, Warthin-Starry, Mod. Steiner and Steiner - Black
  4. Grocott methenamine silver stain - Black
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72
Q

This type of epithelium lines most of the respiratory tract:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium

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73
Q

Thyroid follicles are lined by this type of epithelium:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

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74
Q

Thyroid follicles are lined by this type of epithelium:

Simple squamous epithelium
Simple cuboidal epithelium
Simple columnar epithelium
Transitional epithelium

A

Simple cuboidal epithelium

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75
Q

It forms the linings of the urinary bladder, the ureters and part of the urethra (organs which are subject to considerable stretching):
*

Stratified squamous epithelium
Transitional epithelium
Stratified cuboidal epithelium
Stratified columnar epithelium

A

Transitional epithelium

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76
Q

Long, cylindrical and multinucleate, they have obvious striations, and can be controlled voluntarily:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Skeletal muscle

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77
Q

Uninucleate branching cells that fight tightly together at junctions called intercalated disks:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Cardiac muscle

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78
Q

With single nucleus and are spindle-shaped, no striations are visible:

Skeletal muscle
Visceral muscle
Cardiac muscle

A

Visceral muscle

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79
Q

What is the stem cell precursor of most connective tissues?

Macrophage
Mesenchymal
Adipocytes
Plasma cells

A

Mesenchymal

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80
Q

Elastic cartilage EXCEPT:
*

Intervertebral discs
External ear
Walls of the Eustachian tubes
Epiglottis

A

Intervertebral discs: FIBROCARTILAGE

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81
Q

Which one of the listed statements is the best histologic definition of an abscess?
*

A circumscribed collection of neutrophils with necrotic cellular debris
A localized defect that results from the sloughing of necrotic inflammatory tissue from the surface of an organ
A localized proliferation of fibroblasts and small blood vessels
An aggregate of two or more activated macrophages
The excessive secretion of mucus from a mucosal surface

A

An abscess is a localized collection of neutrophils and necrotic debris. It is basically a localized form of suppurative (purulent) inflammation, which is associated with pyogenic bacteria and is characterized by edema fluid admixed with neutrophils and necrotic cells (liquefactive necrosis or pus).

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82
Q

Cells provide a structural framework for the skin and play a critical role in WOUND HEALING:
*

Basophils
Fibroblasts
Lymphocytes
Monocytes and macrophages

A

Fibroblasts

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83
Q

The cardinal sign of inflammation called rubor is mainly the result of:
*

Decreased interstitial hydrostatic pressure
Decreased vascular permeability of capillaries
Increased vascular permeability of venules
Vasoconstriction of muscular arteries
Vasodilation of arterioles

A

Vasodilation of arterioles

Inflammation can be defined as the reaction of vascularized living tissue to local injury. Celsus originally described four cardinal signs of inflammation: rubor (redness), tumor (swelling), calor (heat), and dolor (pain). Virchow later added a fifth sign, loss of function (functio laesa).

Redness (rubor) and heat (calor) are primarily the result of increased blood flow secondary to vasodilation of arterioles.

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84
Q

During acute inflammation, histamine-induced increased vascular permeability causes the formation of exudates (inflammatory edema).Which one of the listed cell types is the most likely source of the histamine that causes the increased vascular permeability?
*

Endothelial cells
Fibroblast
Lymphocytes
Mast cells
Neutrophils

A

Mast cells

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85
Q

Inflammation characterized by the presence of large amount of pus:
*

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

A

Suppurative or purulent

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86
Q

Inflammation characterized by extensive outpouring of a watery, low-protein fluid from blood:
*

Serous
Fibrinous
Hemorrhagic
Suppurative or purulent

A

Serous

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87
Q

It is usually observed in skeletal muscles, heart, kidneys, endocrine organs and smooth muscles of hollow viscera due to increased workload and endocrine stimulation (e.g. during exercise and pregnancy)
*

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

A

True hypertrophy

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88
Q

It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation (e.g. in cirrhosis and chronic hypertrophic salphingitis or appendicitis):
*

True hypertrophy
False hypertrophy
Compensatory hypertrophy
None of these

A

False hypertrophy

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89
Q

An increase in size of tissues or organs due to increase in size of the individual cells:
*

Anaplasia
Hypoplasia
Hyperplasia
Hypertrophy

A

Hypertrophy

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90
Q

Incomplete or defective development of tissue or organ represented only by a mass of fatty or fibrous tissue, bearing no resemblance to the adult structure.

*

Aplasia
Agenesia
Hypoplasia
Atresia

A

Aplasia

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91
Q

It refers to the failure of an organ to reach or achieve its full mature or adult size due to incomplete development.

*

Aplasia
Agenesia
Hypoplasia
Atresia

A

Hypoplasia

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92
Q

It refers to the complete non-appearance of an organ.
*

Aplasia
Agenesia
Hypoplasia
Atresia

A

Agenesia

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93
Q

It is the failure of an organ to form an opening.

Aplasia
Agenesia
Hypoplasia
Atresia

A

Atresia

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94
Q

A reversible change involving the transformation of one type of cell to another:
*

Anaplasia
Dysplasia
Metaplasia
Neoplasia

A

Metaplasia

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95
Q

Microscopically, the hallmark of this type necrosis is the conversion of normal cells into ‘TOMBSTONES’ :

Caseous necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Liquefaction necrosis

A

Coagulation necrosis

Outlines of the cells are retained so that the cell type can still be recognized but their cytoplasmic and nuclear details are lost.

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96
Q

A 49-year-old man develops an acute myocardial infarction because of the sudden occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The areas of myocardial necrosis within the ventricle can best be described as:
*

Coagulative necrosis
Liquefactive necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis
Fibrinoid necrosis

A

Coagulative necrosis

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97
Q

A special form of cell death produced by the tubercle bacillus:
*

Liquefaction necrosis
Coagulation necrosis
Fat necrosis
Caseous necrosis

A

Caseous necrosis

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98
Q

Organ most commonly affected by FATTY DEGENERATION:
*

Heart
Liver
Lungs
Kidney

A

Liver

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99
Q

Cytological picture suggestive but not conclusive of malignancy:
*

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

A

Class III

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100
Q

Cytological picture strongly suggestive of malignancy:
*

Class II
Class III
Class IV
Class V

A

Class IV

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101
Q

Malignant tumors of epithelial tissue origin, which have less tendency to produce supporting tissue or stroma.
*

Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Polyps or papillomas
Adenoma

A

Carcinoma

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102
Q

Malignant tumors of connective tissue origin, characterized by abundant intercellular tissue framework.
*

Carcinoma
Sarcoma
Polyps or papillomas
Adenoma

A

Sarcoma

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103
Q

A 57-year-old male presents with signs of fatigue that are the result of anemia. Workup reveals that his anemia is the result of bleeding from a colon cancer located in the sigmoid colon. The lesion is resected and at the time of surgery no metastatic disease is found. Which of the listed markers would be most useful for future follow-up of this patient for the evaluation of possible metastatic disease from his colon cancer?
*

α fetoprotein (AFP)
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Chloroacetate esterase (CAE)
Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
Prostate-specific antigen (PSA)

A

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)

Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein associated with many cancers including adenocarcinomas of the colon, pancreas, lung, stomach, and breast.

It is used clinically to follow up patients with certain malignancies, such as colon cancer, and to evaluate them for recurrence or metastases.

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104
Q

A 23-year-old female presents with the recent onset of vaginal discharge. Physical examination reveals multiple clear vesicles on her vulva and vagina. A smear of material obtained from one of these vesicles reveals several multinucleated giant cells with intranuclear inclusions and ground-glass nuclei. These vesicles are most likely the result of an infection with
*

Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Herpes simplex virus (HSV)
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
Candida albicans
Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Herpes simplex virus (HSV)

Infection by herpes simplex virus (HSV) or varicella-zoster virus (VZV) is recognized by nuclear homogenization (ground-glass nuclei), intranuclear inclusions (Cowdry type A bodies), and the formation of multinucleated cells.

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105
Q

Programmed cell death is called:
*

Necrosis
Apoptosis
Cellular senescence
Terminal differentiation

A

Apoptosis

106
Q

Physiologic death of cells, indicating the death of a group of cells with immediate regeneration of cells of the same type.
*

Hyaline degeneration
Fatty metamorphosis
Necrosis
Necrobiosis

A

Necrobiosis

107
Q

A postmortem clot is most likely to:
*

Grossly display features of recanalization
Grossly have lines of Zahn
Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly”
Microscopically appear attached to the wall of the blood vessel
Microscopically have alternating layers of cells and platelets

A

Grossly have the appearance of “chicken fat” overlying “currant jelly”

The postmortem clot is usually rubbery, gelatinous, and lacks fibrin strands and attachments to the vessel wall.

Large postmortem clots may have a “chicken fat” appearance overlying a dark “currant jelly” base.

108
Q

This autopsy technique is characterized by in situ dissection:
*

Virchow
Rokitansky
Ghon
Letulle

A

Rokitansky

109
Q

A person died of unknown disease, the physician would like to know the final diagnosis. Who is authorized to give consent for autopsy?
*

The deceased himself
Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased
The attending physician
NBI must perform autopsy

A

Next of kin or the nearest relative of the deceased

110
Q

Father of Pathology:
*

George Nicholas Papanicolaou
Rudolf Carl Virchow
Hippocrates
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

A

Rudolf Carl Virchow

111
Q

Father of Cytopathology:
*

George Nicholas Papanicolaou
Rudolf Carl Virchow
Hippocrates
Anton van Leeuwenhoek

A

George Nicholas Papanicolaou

112
Q

It is generally used in histochemistry and during operative procedures, and is the most rapid of the commonly available freezing agents:
*

Liquid nitrogen
Isopentane
Carbon dioxide gas
Aerosol spray

A

Liquid nitrogen

113
Q

Freeze-drying is a special way of preserving tissues by rapid freezing (quenching) of fresh tissue and subsequently removing ice water molecules (desiccation) by a physical process of transferring the still frozen tissue block in a vacuum at a higher temperature (sublimation). Which of the following is the correct procedure?
*

Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –160C
Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –160C
Quenching at –40C, sublimation at –40C
Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C

A

Quenching at –160C, sublimation at –40C

114
Q

The first and most critical step in histotechnology?
*

Fixation
Clearing
Infiltration
Embedding

A

Fixation

115
Q

Which of the following organ should be fixed before “grossing” or sectioning?
*

Liver
Lungs
Heart
Brain

A

Brain

116
Q

The primary aim of fixation:
*

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
Act as mordant or accentuators
Inhibit bacterial decomposition

A

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell

117
Q

The secondary goal of fixation:
*

Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
Act as mordant or accentuators
Inhibit bacterial decomposition

A

Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling

118
Q

Traditionally, the amount of fixative used has been 10 to 25 times the volume of tissue to be fixed. Recently the maximum effectiveness of fixation is noted to be ____ times the tissue volume.
*

10
12
15
20

A

20

119
Q

Immersing the specimen in the fixative (immersion fixation) or, in the case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung, by perfusing the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation):
*

Heat fixation
Microwave fixation
Cryopreservation (freeze drying)
Physical fixation
Chemical fixation

A

Chemical fixation

Fixation of tissues can be achieved by chemical or physical means.

Physical methods include heating, micro-waving and cryo-preservation (freeze drying).

Chemical fixation is usually achieved by immersing the specimen in the fixative (immersion fixation) or, in the case of small animals or some whole organs such as a lung, by perfusing the vascular system with fixative (perfusion fixation).

120
Q

Cytoplasmic fixatives, EXCEPT:
*

Zenker’s fluid
Helly’s fluid
Orth’s fluid
Regaud’s fluid

A

Zenker’s fluid

121
Q

Simplest aldehyde:
*

Formaldehyde (methanal)
Acetaldehyde (ethanal)
Propionaldehyde (propanal)
Butyraldehyde (butanal)

A

Formaldehyde (methanal)

122
Q

Commercial formalin is buffered with _______ at a pH of 7.
*

Citrate
EDTA
Phosphate
Any of these

A

Phosphate

Commercial formalin is buffered with phosphate at a pH of 7.

123
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains picric acid, formalin, and acetic acid?
*

Zenker
Helly
Bouin
Zamboni

A

Bouin

124
Q

Which of the following fixatives contains formalin, potassium dichromate, and mercuric chloride?
*

Zenker
Helly
Carnoy
Orth

A

Helly

125
Q

Commercial stock formaldehyde solutions contain:
*

4% formaldehyde
10% formaldehyde
37% to 40% formaldehyde
98% to 100% formaldehyde

A

37% to 40% formaldehyde

126
Q

Formalin pigment may be removed from tissue by:
*

Running water
Alcoholic iodine
Alcoholic picric acid
Potassium permanganate

A

Alcoholic picric acid

127
Q

Generally, an increase in the temperature of the fixative solution:
*

Decreases the tissue autolysis
Decreases the fixative penetration
Increases the speed of fixation
Increases the volume of fixative needed

A

Increases the speed of fixation

128
Q

To prevent polymerization of formaldehyde, which of the following is added to the commercial stock solutions?
*

Methyl alcohol
Formic acid
Paraformaldehyde
Sodium phosphate

A

Methyl alcohol

129
Q

All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
*

Saturated solution of iodine
Sodium thiosulfate
Distilled water
Saturated solution of picric acid

A

Saturated solution of iodine

130
Q

All fixative contains picric acid, EXCEPT:
*

Bouin’s
Brasil’s
Carnoy’s
Gendre’s

A

Carnoy’s

131
Q

An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most likely:
*

Melanin
Hemosiderin
Formalin pigment
Mercurial pigment

A

Formalin pigment

132
Q

All of the following statements are true for Carnoy’s fluid, EXCEPT:
*

It is considered to be the most rapid fixative
It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide
Recommended for chromosome, lymph glands and urgent biopsies
It fixes and dehydrates at the same time

A

It contains chromic acid and osmium tetroxide

133
Q

It is considered to be the most rapid fixative:
*

Carnoy’s fluid
Helly’s solution
Orth’s fluid
Regaud’s fluid

A

Carnoy’s fluid

134
Q

Fixative recommended mainly for tumor biopsies especially the skin:
*

Moller’s fluid
Newcomer’s fluid
Orth’s fluid
Heidenhain’s Susa solution

A

Heidenhain’s Susa solution

135
Q

Fixative recommended for the study of early degenerative processes and tissue necrosis/ demonstrate Rickettsiae and other bacteria:
*

Acetone
Orth’s fluid
Ethyl alcohol
Bouin’s solution

A

Orth’s fluid

136
Q

Fixative used in preserving brain tissues for diagnosis of rabies:
*

Methyl alcohol
Acetone
Osmic acid
Flemming’s solution without acetic acid

A

Acetone

137
Q

HEATING, MICROWAVING and CRYOPRESERVATION:
*

Physical method of fixation
Chemical method of fixation

A

Physical method of fixation

138
Q

IMMERSION fixation and PERFUSION fixation:
*

Physical method of fixation
Chemical method of fixation

A

Chemical method of fixation

139
Q

Test to differentiate mesothelioma from adenocarcinoma

A

CEA
(+) adenocarcinoma
(-) mesothelioma

140
Q
  1. Fine needle aspiration gauge number
  2. Gauge needle for connective tissue specimen (mesenchymal cell)
A
  1. Gauge 25
  2. Gauge 22-23
141
Q

Father of Exfoliative Cytology

A

George N. Papanicolau

142
Q

Cytologic Smear Fixative
1. Best fixative
2. Most commonly used
3. Used for bloody specimen

A
  1. Ether alcohol
  2. 95% Ethyl alcohol
  3. Carnoy’s fixative
143
Q
  1. Screen for cervical cancer
  2. Staining method of choice for exfoliative cytology
  3. Second best choice for routine cytologic examination
A
  1. Pap’s smear
  2. Pap’s smear (Gold standard)
  3. Phase-contrast microscopy
144
Q

Components of Pap’s stain
1. Harris hematoxylin
2. OG 6 (6 is for conc. of phosphotungstic acid)
3. EA 50 (50 is for light green solution conc.)

A
  1. Nucleus
  2. Cytoplasm of mature cells
  3. Cytoplasm of immature cells
145
Q

Equipment Used for Endometrial and Endocervical Aspiration
1. For vaginal aspiration
2. For swab smear
3. For endocervical or endometrial aspiration

A
  1. Glass pipette and rubber bulb
  2. Ayre’s Spatula
  3. Laryngeal Cannula attached to a 10cc syringe
146
Q
  1. The cytological collection used for hormonal evaluation
  2. Estrogen effect increase
  3. Progesterone effect increase
A
  1. Lateral Vaginal Scrape
  2. Superficial cells
  3. Intermediate cells
147
Q
  1. Where do you collect specimens for vaginal hormonal cytology
  2. Basis for diagnosis of early pregnancy
A
  1. UPPER Lateral third of the vaginal wall
  2. Ferning (Arborization)
148
Q

CLASS System
1. Suggestive but not conclusive
2. Strongly suggestive
3. Absence atypical or abnormal cells
4. No evidence of malignancy
5. Conclusive of malignancy

A
  1. Class III
  2. Class IV
  3. Class I
  4. Class II
  5. Class V
149
Q

Neutral formalin may be prepared from 40% formaldehyde by adding:
*
10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water
10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 30 mL water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 39 parts water
1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

A

1 part 40% formaldehyde to 9 parts water

150
Q

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:
*

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete fixation

151
Q

Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it:
*
Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete dehydration

152
Q

Tissue is opaque, section cutting is difficult due to the presence of alcohol.
*
Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Insufficient clearing

153
Q

Air holes found during trimming:
*
Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete impregnation

154
Q

An 87-year-old male develops worsening heart failure. Workup reveals decreased left ventricular filling due to decreased compliance of the left ventricle. Two months later the patient dies, and postmortem sections reveal deposits of eosinophilic, CONGO RED-POSITIVE material in the interstitium of his heart. When viewed under polarized light, this material displays an apple-green birefringence. What is the correct diagnosis?
*

Amyloidosis
Glycogenosis
Hemochromatosis
Sarcoidosis
Senile atrophy

A

Amyloidosis

The histologic diagnosis of amyloid is based solely on its special staining characteristics. It stains pink with the routine hematoxylin and eosin stain, but, with Congo red stain, amyloid stains dark red and has an apple-green birefringence when viewed under polarized light.

155
Q

The most common and fastest decalcifying agent used as simple solution or combines with other reagents.
*

Hydrochloric acid
Nitric acid
Formic acid
Sulfurous acid

A

Nitric acid

156
Q

Composition of von Ebner’s fluid:
*
Nitric acid, chromic acid, absolute ethyl alcohol
Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water
Trichloroacetic acid, formol saline
Chromic acid, osmium tetroxide, acetic acid

A

Sodium chloride, hydrochloric acid, water

157
Q

Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
*

Physical test
Chemical test
X-ray or radiological test
All of these

A

X-ray or radiological test

158
Q

Which of the following is a dehydrating agent?
*
Formalin
Xylene
Benzene
Alcohol

A

Alcohol

159
Q

Dioxane is a reagent that can be used:
*

For both fixing and dehydrating tissues
For both dehydrating and clearing tissues
In very small volume ratios
For long periods without changing

A

For both dehydrating and clearing tissues

160
Q

All of the following are CLEARING AGENTS, EXCEPT:
*

Chloroform
Dioxane
Ethanol
Xylene

A

Ethanol

161
Q

It is the most rapid clearing agent, suitable for urgent biopsies and clears within 15 to 30 minutes.
*

Xylene
Toluene
Benzene
Chloroform

A

Xylene

162
Q

Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
*

Xylene
Toluene
Benzene
Chloroform

A

Benzene

163
Q

It is especially recommended for cutting extremely hard and rough tissue blocks.
*
Rocking microtome
Rotary microtome
Sliding microtome
Freezing microtome

A

Sliding microtome

164
Q

Celloidin embedded tissues are usually cut by means of:
*

Rocking microtome
Rotary microtome
Sliding microtome
Freezing microtome

A

Sliding microtome

165
Q

This type of hone usually gives the best result. It is used for manual sharpening when cutting edge has been rendered blunt or nicked.
*

Fine carborundum
Arkansas
Belgium yellow

A

Belgium yellow

166
Q

The knife is first fitted with the appropriate knife back, then laid obliquely on the strop and with the cutting edge behind (edge last) is pushed backward and drawn forward in a toe to heel direction.
*

Honing
Stropping

A

Stropping

167
Q

During microtomy, it is noted that most of the tissue is very hard and shrunken. One of the first things to check to prevent its happening in the future is the:
*

Presence of water in the clearing agent
pH of the fixative
Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin
Freshness of the reagents on the processor

A

Temperature of the infiltrating paraffin

168
Q

When the magnification can be changed without the need to refocus, the microscope objectives are said to be:
*

Parfocal
Binocular
Achromatic
Apochromatic

A

Parfocal

169
Q

A semi-synthetic wax used for embedding the eyes:
*

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Bioloid

170
Q

It has a lower melting point of 46 to 48C, but it is harder than paraffin.
*

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Ester wax

171
Q

It is a product of paraffin, containing rubber, with the same property as paraplast.
*

Embeddol
Bioloid
Tissue mat
Ester wax

A

Tissue mat

172
Q

The DRY celloidin embedding method is employed chiefly for the:
*

Bones and teeth
Large brain blocks
Whole organs
Eyes

A

Eyes

173
Q

“Dip and dunk” machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed:
*

Tissue transfer
Fluid transfer
Heat transfer
Linear transport

A

Tissue transfer

TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS
1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed
2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required

174
Q

Tissues are subjected to a series of different reagents in an ENCLOSED PROCESSOR by:
*

Tissue transfer
Fluid transfer
Heat transfer
Linear transport

A

Fluid transfer

TWO MAIN TYPES OF PROCESSORS
1. TISSUE-TRANSFER (or “dip and dunk”) machines where specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed
2. FLUID-TRANSFER (or “enclosed”) types where specimens are held in a single process chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required

175
Q

“Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated with a suitable ______ paraffin wax and can be embedded ready for section cutting on the microtome.
*

Commercial wax
Analytical wax
Technical wax
Histological wax

A

Histological wax

“Tissue processing” describes the steps required to take animal or human tissue from fixation to the state where it is completely infiltrated with a suitable histological wax and can be embedded ready for section cutting on the microtome.

176
Q

Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:
*

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete fixation

177
Q

Xylene turns milky as soon as tissue is placed in it:
*

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Incomplete clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete dehydration

178
Q

Airholes found on tissue during trimming:
*

Incomplete fixation
Incomplete dehydration
Insufficient clearing
Incomplete impregnation

A

Incomplete impregnation

179
Q

Harris hematoxylin is used on tissue sections to stain:
*

Fat
Glycogen
Nuclei
Cytoplasm

A

Nuclei

180
Q

Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the nucleus with:
*

Acidified hematoxylin
Non-acidified hematoxylin
Acidified eosin
Non-acidified eosin

A

Non-acidified hematoxylin

Using the regressive staining method, one deliberately overstains the NUCLEUS with a NON-ACIDIFIED HEMATOXYLIN such as Harris’s.

181
Q

The action of the dye is intensified by adding another agent or mordant:
*

Direct staining
Indirect staining
Progressive staining
Regressive staining

A

Indirect staining

182
Q

Mordants are used to:
*

Change the refractive index of the tissue
Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye
Help differentiate stains
Oxidize staining solutions

A

Link tissue constituents more closely to the dye

183
Q

It involves a differentiation or decolorization step:
*

Direct staining
Indirect staining
Progressive staining
Regressive staining

A

Regressive staining

184
Q

Acetic acid is added to Harris hematoxylin to:
*

Keep heterochromatin from staining
Make nuclear staining more specific
Ripen the hematoxylin
Form a dye lake

A

Make nuclear staining more specific

185
Q

Possible correction when hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows UNEVEN NUCLEAR STAINING and “BLUE BLOBS” lacking distinct chromatin patterns:
*

Restain with H & E stain
Change paraffin and reprocess tissue
Change reagents and reprocess tissue
No correction

A

Change reagents and reprocess tissue

Hematoxylin and eosin (H&E) stained tissue section shows uneven nuclear staining and “blue blobs” lacking distinct chromatin patterns

POSSIBLE CAUSE: If tissue was fixed properly, then sample was improperly dehydrated and infiltrated with paraffin

CORRECTION: Change reagents and reprocess tissue on proper processing protocol

186
Q

Vital dye especially recommended for mitochondria:
*

Nile blue
Neutral red
Janus green
Toluidine blue

A

Janus green

187
Q

Oldest stain:
*
Hematoxylin
Orcein
Carmine
Iodine

A

Iodine

188
Q

It is the most common method used for the demonstration of basement membrane, particularly the glomerular basement membrane of the kidney, due to their CHO content.
*

Gomori’s stain
Mallory’s PTAH
Periodic acid Schiff
Congo red

A

Periodic acid Schiff

189
Q

A commonly used connective tissue procedure that stains collagen blue:
*

Masson trichrome
van Gieson
Best carmine
Aldehyde fuchsin

A

Masson trichrome

190
Q

The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:
*

Edema fluid
Muscle striations
Ground substance
Reticulin network

A

Muscle striations

191
Q

DNA can be demonstrated with:
*

Eosin
Pyronin
Feulgen reaction
Fast green

A

Feulgen reaction

192
Q

Toluidine blue is used to demonstrate which of the following cells?
*

Plasma cells
Mast cells
Fibroblasts
Macrophages

A

Mast cells

193
Q

Most sensitive lipid stain known:
*

Sudan Black B
Sudan III
Sudan IV
Oil red O

A

Sudan Black B

194
Q

A copper phthalocyanine dye that is used for MYELIN STAINING of paraffin processed tissue:
*

Perl’s Prussian blue
Luxol fast blue
Gmelin technique
Sodium alizarin red S

A

Luxol fast blue

195
Q

Astrocytes are demonstrated by which of the following procedures?
*

Luxol fast blue
Cresyl violet
Weil’s
Cajal’s

A

Cajal’s

Cajal’s gold sublimate method for astrocytes
Mod. Holzer’s method for astrocytic process

196
Q

A stain that may be used to demonstrate calcium is the:
*

Fontana silver nitrate
Congo red
von Kossa silver nitrate
Schmorl method

A

von Kossa silver nitrate

197
Q

Rhodanine is used to demonstrate:
*

Ferric iron
Copper
Calcium
Urate crystals

A

Copper

Rhodanine stain is used in histology to identify copper deposits.

198
Q

In the Masson-Fontana ammoniacal silver reaction, melanin and argentaffin cell granules are stained:

Brown
Red
Black
Blue

A

Black

199
Q

The recommended stain for all parasitic blood work:
*
Giemsa
Wright
Jenner
May-Grunwald

A

Giemsa

200
Q

Malarial parasites appear bright green and yellow under a fluorescent microscope in the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method. This method uses capillary tube coated with:
*

Auramine-rhodamine
Methyl green- pyronine
Acridine orange
Fluoresceine isothiocyanate

A

Acridine orange

201
Q

Microscope used for the Quantitative Buffy Coat (QBC) method for demonstration of malarial parasite:
*

Brightfield microscope
Fluorescent microscope
Polarizing microscope
Phase-contrast microscope

A

Fluorescent microscope

202
Q

The routine stain for surgical tissue section is:
*

Gram’s stain
Wright’s stain
H and E stain
Pap’s stain

A

H and E stain

203
Q

Stain of choice for staining in exfoliative cytology:

Gram’s stain
Wright’s stain
H and E stain
Pap’s stain

A

Pap’s stain

204
Q

Organisms found in the normal vaginal flora that stain BLUE to lavander with Pap’s method:

Trichomonas vaginalis
Streptococci
Doderlein bacilli
Acid-fast bacilli

A

Doderlein bacilli

205
Q

Clue cells are diagnostic of what infection:

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Gardnerella vaginalis
HSV-2
Candida albicans

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

206
Q

When an antibody labeled with a chromogen is reacted with tissue from a patient, the immunohistochemical technique is called:

Direct
Indirect
Avidin-biotin-complex
Soluble enzyme immune complex

A

Direct

207
Q

This system is designed to: (1) Provide routine and consistent checks to ensure data integrity, correctness, and completeness; (2) Identify and address errors and omissions; (3) Document and archive inventory material and record all these activities.
*

Quality assurance
Quality control
Continuous quality improvement
Total quality management

A

Quality control

Quality Control (QC) is a system of routine technical activities to assess and maintain the quality of the inventory as it is being compiled. It is performed by personnel compiling the inventory.

The QC system is designed to:
1. Provide routine and consistent checks to ensure data integrity, correctness, and completeness;
2. Identify and address errors and omissions;
3. Document and archive inventory material and record all QC activities.

QC activities include general methods such as accuracy checks on data acquisition and calculations, and the use of approved standardized procedures for emission and removal calculations, measurements, estimating uncertainties, archiving information and reporting. QC activities also include technical reviews of categories, activity data, emission factors, other estimation parameters, and methods.

Quality Assurance (QA) is a planned system of review procedures conducted by personnel not directly involved in the inventory compilation/development process. Reviews, preferably by independent third parties, are performed upon a completed inventory following the implementation of QC procedures.

208
Q

The traditional model for infectious disease. It consists of an external AGENT, a susceptible HOST, and an ENVIRONMENT that brings the host and agent together.

Chain of infection
Chain of custody
Epidemiological triad
Universal health

A

Epidemiological triad

EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD
REMEMBER “AHE” - Agent, Host and Environment

A number of models of disease causation have been proposed. Among the simplest of these is the EPIDEMIOLOGICAL TRIAD OR TRIANGLE, the traditional model for infectious disease.

The triad consists of an external agent, a susceptible host, and an environment that brings the host and agent together. In this model, disease results from the interaction between the agent and the susceptible host in an environment that supports the transmission of the agent from a source to that host.

209
Q

Turnaround time is of value in
a. Routine Paraffin Method
b. Exfoliative Cytology
c. Frozen Section

A

C. Frozen Section

210
Q
  1. Commercially available solution of formaldehyde:
  2. Fixing solution
  3. Dilution
A
  1. 35-40% Formaldehyde
  2. 10% Formalin
  3. 1:10

1 part 40% formaldehyde
9 parts water
TV:10

211
Q

Fixative and Stain at the same time

A

Picric Acid = Yellow

212
Q

All fixatives can be used for H&E staining except?

A

Those with osmic acid (flemming’s fluid)

213
Q

Air-filled lungs float in fixative should be
1. Healthy lungs
2. Diseased lungs
3. Blebs

A

Covered with layers of gauze
1. Float
2. Sink
3. Emphysema

214
Q

Not part of routine autopsy unless specified by the physician

a. Eyes
b. Heart
c. Reproductive organs

A

a. Eyes

215
Q

Picric acid removed brown or black crystallin from

A

Formalin deposit

216
Q

Bone that houses the pituitary gland
a. Temporal bone
b. Occipital bone
c. Sphenoid bone

A

C. Sphenoid bone

217
Q
  1. Most rapid fixative - fixes and dehydrates
  2. Nuclear and histochemical fixative
A
  1. Carnoy’s fluid
  2. Newcomer’s fluid
218
Q

Faults
1. Tissue is soft
2. Milky xylol
3. Tissue is opaque
4. Presence of holes and spaces

A
  1. Incomplete fixation
  2. Incomplete dehydration
  3. Incomplete clearing
  4. Incomplete impregnation
219
Q
  1. Toxic associated with aplastic anemia
  2. Antibiotic associated with aplastic anemia
A
  1. Benzene
  2. Chloramphenicol - antibiotic of last resort (contains nitrobenzene)
220
Q

Autotechnicon
Station 1-2
Station 11-12

A

1-2: 10% Hot Formalin
11-12: 2 changes of liquid paraffin

221
Q
  1. Enclosed tissue processor
  2. Dip and Dunk tissue processor
A
  1. Fluid transfer
  2. Tissue transfer
222
Q

Where are carbowax specimens floated

A

Floated with Pearse solution and blank McCarthy solution

223
Q

Part of Rotary microtome that can be automated

A

Handwheel

224
Q

Section Cutting
1. Paraffin section, 4-6 micra
2. Celloidin section, 10-15 micra
3. Frozen section

A
  1. Rocking and rotary microtome
  2. Sliding microtome
  3. Freezing (CO2) microtome and cryostat
225
Q

Relationship between clearance angle and section thickness

A

Inverse

226
Q

Range and Average temp. of cryostat rotary microtome

A

Range: -5 to -30C
Average: -20C

227
Q
  1. Paraffin wax oven temp.
  2. Flotation water bath temp.
A
  1. 55-60C or 2-5C above MP wax
  2. 45-50C or 6-10C below MP wax
228
Q

Differentiation of Manual H&E

A

Regressive using acid alcohol

229
Q

Harris Hematoxylin
1. Mordant:
2. Ripening agent:

Ehrlich’s Hematoxylin
1. Mordant:
2. Ripening agent:

A

Harris Hematoxylin
1. Mordant: Alum
2. Ripening agent: Mercuric oxide (toxic) or Sodium or potassium iodate

Ehrlich’s Hematoxylin
1. Mordant: Alum
2. Ripening agent: Sodium iodate

230
Q
  1. Basic solution of hematoxylin
  2. Acidic solution of hematoxylin
A
  1. More rapid
  2. Slower oxidizing process
231
Q

Oldest stain
Color of glycogen on langhan’s iodine

A

Iodine
Mahogany brown

232
Q

3Fs

A

Fats, Formalin, Frozen section

233
Q

Most sensitive stain for lipids

A

Sudan Black B

234
Q

Red cell inclusion that is Feulgen positive

A

Howell-Jolly bodies

235
Q

Stain for reticulin fibers

A

Gomori’s silver impregnation stain

236
Q
  1. Staining method of choice for exfoliative cytology
  2. Staining method of choice for paraffin, surgical tissue
  3. Ratio of nuclear to cytoplasmic stain
A
  1. Original Paps
  2. H&E
  3. 1:2
237
Q

Mordants of Pap stain
1. Hematoxylin
2. OG6
3. Eosin Azure

A
  1. Alum
  2. Phosphotungstic acid
  3. Phosphotungstic acid
238
Q
  1. Staining method of choice for exfoliative cytology
  2. Staining method of choice for paraffin, surgical tissue
  3. Ratio of nuclear to cytoplasmic stain
A
  1. Original Paps
  2. H&E
  3. 1:2
239
Q

Not included in Pap’s staining
a. Fixation
b. Staining with hematoxylin
c. Staining with eosin
d. Alcohol

A

A. Fixation

240
Q

______ are raised against specific cellular _____ and then conjugated with a _________

A

Antibodies, Antigen, Visual marker

‘alphabetical’

241
Q

Which of the following produces hormones?
a. Thyroid
b. Anterior pituitary gland
c. Posterior pituitary gland

A

A, B

242
Q

What type of muscle is seen in the uterus?

A

Smooth muscle

243
Q

Progressive change of uterus during pregnancy

A

Physiologic hyperplasia

244
Q

Death of fetus prior to complete expulsion of products of conception, irrespective of the period of pregnancy- meaning all intrauterine deaths regardless of the age of the fetus

The fetus must reach ____ weeks

Scenario:
7 months, died stillborn
5 months, died stillborn

Fill up ____

________ - if fetus did not reach 20 weeks, no certificate
________ - fetus is born, gasping admitted in NICU, died, infant death, this is filled up

A

Fetal Death

The fetus must reach 20 weeks
Fill up Fetal Death Certificate

Miscarriage - if the fetus did not reach 20 weeks, no certificate
Usual death certificate - the fetus is born, gasping admitted to NICU, died, infant death, this is filled up

245
Q

The person who makes dissections for anatomic demonstrations

A

Prosector (Pathologist)

246
Q
  1. Aim to determine, clarify, or confirm a medical diagnosis that remained unknown or unclear prior to the patient’s death
  2. Generally performed, as prescribed by applicable law, in cases of violent, suspicious or sudden deaths, deaths without medical assistance, or during surgical procedures
  3. Performed by students of anatomy for study purposes only
  4. Performed utilizing imaging technology only, primarily magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) and computed tomography (CT)
A
  1. Clinical autopsies
  2. Medico-legal or Forensic autopsies
  3. Academic autopsies
  4. Virtual or medical imaging autopsies
247
Q

What is autopsy?

A

Special surgical procedure

248
Q

What type of autopsy is done on fatalities caused by dengvaxia?

A

Medico-legal or Forensic autopsies

249
Q

Not to be examined by a pathologist
a. Gangrenous finger
b. Necrotic bowel
c. Pacemaker and lead
d. Ruptured spleen

A

C. Pacemaker and lead

250
Q

Not submitted in the histopathology section after surgery:
a. Breast implant
b. Fingernails
c. Eyes
d. Orthopedic metals

A

D. Orthopedic metals - recycled and not submitted to histopathology

251
Q

The ____ is the professional licensure examination for lawyers in the Philippines

The exam is exclusively administered by the ___

A

Philippine Bar Examination, Supreme Court of the Philippines

252
Q

In the hierarchy of control, what is the most effective at reducing hazards?

A

ELIMINATION > Substitution > Engineering controls > Administrative controls > PPE

(‘ESEAP’)

253
Q

Gendre’s composition aka Alcoholic Bouin’s

A

95% ethanol saturated with picric acid
Strong formaldehyde solution
Glacial acetic acid

254
Q

Technique to highlight various individual tissue component:

a. Giemsa staining
b. H and E staining
c. Immunohistochemistry
d. Special staining

A

D. Special Staining

255
Q

Microscope for Immunohistochemistry
1. Light microscope
2. Fluorescent microscope
3. Electron microscope

a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. 1 and 2
d. 1, 2, and 3

A

D. 1, 2, and 3 - depending on the label
1. Light = enzyme label
2. Fluorescent = fluorophore label
3. Electron = electron-dense label
4. Light, Fluorescent, Electron = biotin label

256
Q

Enzyme histochemistry by chromogenic reaction can be visualized using:
a. Light microscope
b. Fluorescent microscope
c. Electron microscope
d. Any of these

A

A. Light microscope

257
Q

If the cell or tissue antigen of interest is detected by direct binding a labeled primary antibody specific for that antigen:

Reagent: Primary labeled Ab

a. Direct immunohistochemistry
b. Indirect immunohistochemistry
c. Both of these
d. None of these

A

A. Direct immunohistochemistry

258
Q

Uses an unlabeled primary antibody that is detected bound to its antigen with labeled secondary antibodies:

(AHG reagent binds to Fc portion of Ab)

Reagent: Secondary labeled Ab

a. Direct immunohistochemistry
b. indirect immunohistochemistry
c. Both of these
d. None of these

A

B. Indirect immunohistochemistry

259
Q

Labeling in histopathology
a. Water-proof
b. Solvent-proof
c. Chemical-proof
d. Fool-proof

A

D. Fool-proof = Free of Error

260
Q

Standard precaution state:
a. handle only known HBV-positive or HIV-positive specimens as infectious
b. Personal protective equipment is required for only direct patient contact
c. Blood and body fluid precautions must be observed for all patient’s blood and body fluid specimens
d. Infectious specimens must be labeled with the biohazard symbol

A

C. Blood and body fluid precautions must be observed for all patient’s blood and body fluid specimens

261
Q

All post-mortem procedures require adherence to:
a. Isolation techniques
b. Isolation precautions
c. Standard precautions
d. None of these

A

C. Standard precautions

262
Q

All electrical equipment must be grounded with

A

Three-pronged plugs

263
Q

The first step to take when attempting to repair electronic equipment is to:
a. Check all electronic connections
b. Turn instrument off and unplug it
c. Reset all the printed circuit boards
d. Review instrument manual

A

B. Turn instrument off and unplug it

264
Q

When a person is receiving an electrical shock, all of the following should be done EXCEPT:
a. Pull the person away from the electrical source
b. Turn off the circuit breaker
c. Move the electrical source using a glass object
d. Move the electrical source using a wooden object

A

A. Pull the person away from the electrical source

265
Q

Waste container for sharp materials like needles, syringe, and scalpel blades:
a. Yellow
b. Yellow with black band
c. Red
d. Orange

Pharmaceutical and chemical wastes:
a. Yellow
b. Yellow with black band
c. Red
d. Orange

Infectious and pathological wastes such as used test strips, used swabs, gloves, masks
a. Yellow
b. Yellow with black band
c. Red
d. Orange

A

C. Red - for sharps and pressurized container
Symbol for sharps: syringe with a stop sign

B. Yellow with black band

A. Yellow

266
Q

Biodegradable wastes like leftover food, used cooking oil, fish entrails, scale, fins, fruits, vegetable peelings, rotten fruits, and vegetables:
a. Orange
b. Red
c. Green
d. Black

Nonbiodegradable wastes like paper or paper products, bottles, and packaging materials
a. Orange
b. Red
c. Green
d. Black

Radioactive wastes or medical equipment contaminated or exposed in radioactivity
a. Orange
b. Red
c. Green
d. Black

A

C. Green

D. Black

A. Orange

03-2023 (14 decks)

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