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03-2023 > ALL > Flashcards

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1
Q

ALKALI OR ACID BURNS IN THE EYE: Wash out eye thoroughly with running water for a minimum of 15 minutes. Help the victim by holding the eyelid open so water can make contact with the eye. An eye fountain is recommended for this purpose, but any running water will suffice. Use of an eyecup is discouraged. A physician should be notified immediately, while the eye is being washed.

A

Continuation EYE ACCIDENTS: Alternatively, hold the eye under the running tap. After thorough washing, put a few drop of 2% aqueous SODIUM BICARBONATE into the eye in case of acid-splash or several drops of saturated BORIC ACID solution in case of alkali splash.

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2
Q

Most analgesics, such as salicylates, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen, do not require TDM because physicians and pharmacists are able to achieve and maintain therapeutic levels with standardized dosing intervals. There is generally a fairly wide therapeutic window for these over-the-counter analgesics.

A

STEM CELL MOBILIZATION (RODAK): GM-CSF, G-CSF and IL -3. (RODAK PAGES 91 to 92)

TURGEON: Hemoglobin appears for the FIRST TIME in the THIRD MATURATIONAL STAGE, THE RUBRICYTE OR POLYCHROMATIC NORMOBLAST.

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3
Q

While IgE appears to be a nuisance antibody, it may serve a protective role by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that recruits neutrophils and eosinophils to the area to help destroy invading antigens that have penetrated IgA defenses.

A

All results of HIV/AIDS testing shall be confidential and shall be released only to the following persons: 1. Person who submitted himself/herself to such test; 2. EITHER PARENT of a minor child who has been tested; 3. Legal guardian in the case of insane persons or orphans; 4. Person authorized to receive such results in conjunction with the AIDSWATCH program; 5. Justice of the Court of Appeals or the Supreme Court

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4
Q

Conversion factor for glucose:

88.40
0.357
0.05551
0.05948

A

0.05551

88.40 - CREATININE
0.357 - UREA
0.05551 - GLUCOSE
0.05948 - URIC ACID

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5
Q

Very short wavelengths:

Infrared
Ultraviolet
Visible
None of these

A

Ultraviolet

Ultraviolet (UV) light has very short wavelengths and infrared (IR) light has very long wavelengths. When all visible wavelengths of light (400-700 nm) are combined, WHITE light results.

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6
Q

A fluorescent substance absorbs light of one wavelength and emits light of:

Longer wavelength and lower energy
Shorter wavelength and lower energy
Longer wavelength and higher energy
Shorter wavelength and higher energy

A

Longer wavelength and lower energy

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7
Q

The process by which fluorescence of an analyte is reduced due to the excited molecule losing some of its energy by interacting with other substances in a solution is known as:

Ionization
Quenching
Phosphorescence
Self-absorption

A

Quenching

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8
Q

Random error:

Deterioration of reagents
Sample instability
Improper calibration
Pipetting error

A

Pipetting error

RANDOM ERRORS
Mislabeling a sample
Pipetting errors
Improper mixing of sample and reagent Voltage fluctuations
Temperature fluctuations

SYSTEMATIC ERRORS
Improper calibration
Deterioration of reagents
Sample instability
Instrument drift
Changes in standard materials

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9
Q

Plasma glucose level increases rapidly after a carbohydrate-rich meal, returning to normal ____ hours after eating (postprandial level).

1 ½ to 2 hours
3 to 4 hours
8 to 12 hours
12 to 14 hours

A

1 ½ to 2 hours

The plasma glucose level increases rapidly after a carbohydrate-rich meal, returning to normal 1½ to 2 hours after eating (postprandial level).

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10
Q

E + S = ES = E + P

Catalytic mechanism
Michaelis-Menten hypothesis
Lineweaver-Burk plot
First-order kinetics

A

Catalytic mechanism

FROM HUBBARD:
The catalytic mechanism is stated as: E + S = ES = E + P
The transition state for the ES complex has a lower energy of activation than S alone, so the reaction proceeds after the ES complex is formed.

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11
Q

Enzymes affected by low temperature storage:

Increased ALP and LD
Decreased ALP and LD
Increased ALP, decreased LD
Decreased ALP, increased LD

A

Increased ALP, decreased LD

ALP (Increases), LD4 and LD5 (Decreases)

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12
Q

Routinely measured electrolytes:

Sodium and chloride
Sodium and potassium
Sodium, potassium and chloride
Sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate

A

Sodium, potassium, chloride and bicarbonate

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13
Q

The major anion that counterbalances the major cation, sodium:

Bicarbonate
Chloride
Phosphate
Potassium

A

Chloride

The chloride ion (Cl−) is the most important anion of the extracellular fluids in the body. It is the major anion that counterbalances the major cation, sodium. This means that the sum of all the cations equals the sum of all the anions.

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14
Q

Do not require therapeutic drug monitoring (TDM):

Salicylates, ibuprofen
Salicylates, acetaminophen
Acetaminophen, ibuprofen
Salicylates, acetaminophen and ibuprofen

A

Salicylates, acetaminophen and ibuprofen

Most analgesics, such as salicylates, acetaminophen, and ibuprofen, do not require TDM because physicians and pharmacists are able to achieve and maintain therapeutic levels with standardized dosing intervals. There is generally a fairly wide therapeutic window for these over-the-counter analgesics.

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15
Q

Biological safety cabinet (BSC) wherein 30% air is recirculated, 70% exhausted:

BSC Class I
BSC Class II A1
BSC Class II B1
BSC Class II B2

A

BSC Class II B1

BSC I: In at front through HEPA to the outside or into the room through HEPA

BSC II A1: 70% recirculated to the cabinet work area through HEPA; 30% balance can be exhausted through HEPA back into the room or to outside through a canopy unit

BSC II B1: 30% recirculated, 70% exhausted. Exhaust cabinet air must pass through a dedicated duct to the outside through a HEPA filter

BSC II B2: No recirculation; total exhaust to the outside through a HEPA filter

BSC II A2: Similar to II, A1, but has 100 Ifm intake air velocity and plenums are under negative pressure to room; exhaust air can be ducted to the outside through a canopy unit; when exhausted outdoors (formally “B3”) (minute amounts)

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16
Q

The order used to put on PPE is:

Gloves, gown, mask
Mask, gown, gloves
Gown, mask, gloves
Gloves, mask, gown

A

Gown, mask, gloves

DONNING (PUTTING ON PPE)
Gown → Mask or respirator → goggle or face shield → gloves

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17
Q

N95 mask:

Covers mouth
Covers nose
Snug-fit
Moist

A

Snug-fit

A protective N95 mask, if worn properly, is effective against toxin aerosols. However, it is important that a tight fit be achieved because even a small leak could result in significant exposure.

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18
Q

Plating media for CSF collected from shunt:

BAP
CAP
BAP, CAP
BAP, CAP, Thio

A

BAP, CAP, Thio

CSF
1. Routine: BAP, CAP
2. From shunt: BAP, CAP and Thio
Add thio for CSF collected from shunt.

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19
Q

Susceptible to bacitracin (TAXO A)

Any zone of inhibition
Any zone of inhibition greater than 10 mm
Any zone of inhibition greater than 14 mm
Any zone of inhibition greater than 16 mm

A

Any zone of inhibition greater than 10 mm

Bacitracin Susceptibility
This test is used for presumptive identification and differentiation of beta-hemolytic group A streptococci (Streptococcus pyogenes– susceptible) from other beta-hemolytic streptococci. It is also used to distinguish staphylococci species (resistant) from micrococci
(susceptible).

Positive: Any zone of inhibition greater than 10 mm; susceptible
Negative: No zone of inhibition; resistant

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20
Q

Susceptible to optochin (TAXO P):

Any zone of inhibition
Zone of inhibition ≥ 10 mm in diameter
Zone of inhibition ≥ 14 mm in diameter
Zone of inhibition ≥ 16 mm in diameter

A

Zone of inhibition ≥ 14 mm in diameter

Optochin (P disk) Susceptibility Test
This test is used to determine the effect of Optochin (ethyl hydrocupreine hydrochloride) on an organism. Optochin lyses pneumococci (positive test), but alpha-streptococci are resistant (negative test).

Expected Results
Positive: Zone of inhibition ≥ 14 mm in diameter with 6-mm disk
Negative: No zone of inhibition

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21
Q

Which of the following organisms is often confused with the Salmonella species biochemically and on plated media?

E. coli
Citrobacter freundii
Enterobacter cloacae
Shigella dysenteriae

A

Citrobacter freundii

CITROBACTER: H2S +, KCN +
SALMONELLA: H2S +, KCN -

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22
Q

All of the following bacterial cell walls CONTAINS MYCOLIC ACID, EXCEPT:

Nocardia
Rhodococcus
Streptomyces
Corynebacteria

A

Streptomyces

CELL WALLS CONTAINING MYCOLIC ACID

PRESENT IN: Mycobacterium, Nocardia, Rhodococcus, Gordonia, Tsukamurella and Corynebacterium

ABSENT IN: Streptomyces, Actinomadura, Dermatophilus, Nocardiopsis and Oerskovia

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23
Q

Specimen for Epstein-Barr Virus PCR amplification:

Nasopharyngeal swab
Bronchial washing
Pleural fluid
5 mL EDTA whole blood

A

5 mL EDTA whole blood

Epstein-Barr Virus PCR Amplification
Specimen:
* 5 mL ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA) whole blood
* Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

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24
Q

Lymphatic vessel involvement within the RETROPERITONEAL REGION is associated with:

Brugia malayi
Loa loa
Onchocerca volvulus
Wuchereria bancrofti

A

Wuchereria bancrofti

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25
Q

Scabies - SARCOPTES SCABIEI:

Endoparasite, infection
Ectoparasite, infestation

A

Ectoparasite, infestation

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26
Q

Following an abnormal sperm motility test with a normal sperm count, what additional test might be ordered?

Fructose level
Zinc level
Mixed agglutination reaction (MAR) test
Eosin-nigrosin stain

A

Eosin-nigrosin stain

Normal vitality requires 50% or more living cells and should correspond to the previously evaluated motility.

LIVING CELLS: Remain bluish white
DEAD CELLS: Red against the purple background

27
Q

Seminal fluid for fructose level determination should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _____ to prevent fructolysis:

Refrigerated
Frozen
Maintained at 37C
Room temperature

A

Frozen

28
Q

Required tube for synovial fluid glucose determination:

SPS
EDTA
Heparin
Sodium fluoride

A

Sodium fluoride

REQUIRED TUBE TYPES FOR SYNOVIAL FLUID TESTS
GRAM STAIN AND CULTURE: Sterile heparinized or SPS
CELL COUNTS: Heparin or liquid EDTA
GLUCOSE ANALYSIS: Sodium fluoride
ALL OTHER TESTS: Nonanticoagulated

29
Q

Select the needle most commonly used in standard venipuncture in an adult:

One inch, 18 gauge
One inch, 21 gauge
One-half inch, 23 gauge
One-half inch, 25 gauge

A

One inch, 21 gauge

30
Q

Cytokine(s) that function for STEM CELL MOBILIZATION:

Interleukin-2 and interleukin-3
Interleukin-2 and GM-CSF
Interleukin-3 and GM-CSF
Interleukin-3, G-CSF and GM-CSF

A

Interleukin-3, G-CSF and GM-CSF

Rodak pages 91 to 92:
Stem cell mobilization:
1. Interleukin-3
2. G-CSF
3. GM-CSF

31
Q

The nuclear chromatin is condensed and chunky throughout the nucleus. No nucleoli are seen. The cytoplasm is a muddy, blue-pink color.

Reticulocyte
Pronormoblast
Orthochromic normoblast
Polychromatic normoblast

A

Polychromatic normoblast

32
Q

The difference between the total cells counted on each side should be less than ___.

Less than 10%
Less than 15%
Less than 20%
Less than 25%

A

Less than 10%

The difference between the total cells counted on each side should be less than 10%. A greater variation could indicate an uneven distribution, which requires that the procedure be repeated.

33
Q

Common dilution for manual platelet count:

1:10
1:20
1:100
1:200

A

1:100

34
Q

If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to:

1:10
1:20
1:100
1:200

A

1:20

If fewer than 50 platelets are counted on each side, the procedure should be repeated by diluting the blood to 1:20. If more than 500 platelets are counted on each side, a 1:200 dilution should be made.

35
Q

If more than 500 platelets are counted on each side, a _____ dilution should be made.

1:10
1:20
1:100
1:200

A

1:200

36
Q

For manual WBC count, allow the dilution to sit for ___ minutes to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed.

1 minute
3 minutes
5 minutes
10 minutes

A

10 minutes

Allow the dilution to sit for 10 minutes to ensure that the red blood cells have lysed. The solution will be clear once lysis has occurred. WBC counts should be performed within 3 hours of dilution.

37
Q

After charging the hemacytometer, place it in a moist chamber for ___ minutes before counting the WBCs to give them time to settle. (RODAK)

1 minute
5 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes

A

10 minutes

After charging the hemacytometer, place it in a moist chamber for 10 minutes before counting the WBCs to give them time to settle. Care should be taken not to disturb the coverslip.

38
Q

The recommended type of microscopy for the performance of manual platelet counts is

Electron
Dark field
Light
Phase contrast

A

Phase contrast

Phase microscopy is currently recommended for manual platelet counts. This allows satisfactory discrimination between platelets and debris, a major problem in manual counts.

39
Q

To evaluate normal platelet numbers in an appropriate area of a blood smear, approximately how many platelets should be observed per oil immersion field?

1 to 4
4 to 10
8 to 20
20 to 50

A

8 to 20

Approximately 8 to 20 platelets per oil immersion field will represent a normal platelet concentration of approximately 160 to 400 X 10 9th/L. This method assumes the red blood cell count is normal.

40
Q

To increase accuracy, it is advisable to count at least ___ cells when the WBC count is higher than 40 x 10 9th/L.

50
100
200
300

A

200

41
Q

If the WBC count is ____ x 10 9th/L or greater, it would be more precise and accurate to count 300 or 400 cells.

10 x 10 9th/L
20 x 10 9th/L
40 x 10 9th/L
100 x 10 9th/L

A

100 x 10 9th/L

42
Q

Place the charged hemacytometer in a moist chamber for ____ minutes to allow the platelets to settle.

5 minutes
8 minutes
10 minutes
15 minutes

A

15 minutes

Place the charged hemacytometer in a moist chamber for 15 minutes to allow the platelets to settle.

43
Q

The values of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within:

1%
2%
5%
10%

A

1%

The values of the duplicate hematocrits should agree within 1% (0.01 L/L).

44
Q

Deeply and variably condensed chromatin:

MK-I (Megakaryblast)
MK-II (Promegakayocyte)
MK-III (Megakaryocyte)

A

MK-III (Megakaryocyte)

MK-I (Megakaryblast) HOMOGENOUS
MK-II (Promegakayocyte) MODERATE
MK-III (Megakaryocyte) DEEPLY, VARIABLY

45
Q

A target INR range of _______ is recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction).

1.0 to 2.0
2.0 to 3.0
2.5 to 3.5
3.0 to 4.0

A

2.0 to 3.0

A target INR range of 2.0 to 3.0 is recommended for most indications (e.g., treatment or prophylaxis of deep venous thrombosis [DVT], or prevention of further clotting in patients who have had a myocardial infarction).

46
Q

An INR of ______ is recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves.

1.0 to 2.0
2.0 to 3.0
2.5 to 3.5
3.0 to 4.0

A

2.5 to 3.5

An INR of 2.5 to 3.5 is recommended for patients with prosthetic heart valves.

When the INR is used to guide anticoagulant therapy, there are fewer bleeding events.

47
Q

The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is ___ for the duration of anticoagulation.

INR of 1.0
INR of 2.0
INR of 3.0
INR of 4.0

A

INR of 3.0

The target INR for pulmonary embolism (PE) treatment is 3.0 for the duration of anticoagulation.

48
Q

Cells are LARGE AND HOMOGENEOUS in size; nuclear shape is round or oval; one to three prominent nucleoli; cytoplasm is deeply basophilic with VACUOLES OFTEN PROMINENT:

L1
L2
L3

A

L3

L1 HOMOGENOUS
One population of cells within the case; small cells predominant; nuclear shape is regular with an occasional cleft; chromatin pattern is homogeneous and nucleoli are rarely visible; cytoplasm is moderately basophilic

L2 HETEROGENOUS
Large cells with an irregular nuclear shape; clefts in the nucleus are common; one or more large nucleoli are visible; cytoplasm varies in color

L3 BURKITT’S LYMPHOMA
Cells are large and homogeneous in size; nuclear shape is round or oval; one to three prominent nucleoli; cytoplasm is deeply basophilic with vacuoles often prominent

49
Q

Which antibody is best at agglutination and complement fixation?

IgA
IgG
IgD
IgM

A

IgM

50
Q

All of the following are true of IgE except that it:

Fails to fix complement.
Is heat stable
Attaches to tissue mast cells.
Is found in the serum of allergic persons.

A

Is heat stable

IgE is the most heat-labile of all immunoglobulins; heating to 56ºC for between 30 minutes and 3 hours results in conformational changes and loss of ability to bind to target cells.

51
Q

IgE appears to be a nuisance antibody; however, it may serve a PROTECTIVE ROLE by triggering an acute inflammatory reaction that RECRUITS _______to the area to help destroy invading antigens that have penetrated IgA defenses.

B cells
T cells
T and B cells
Eosinophils and neutrophils

A

Eosinophils and neutrophils

EOSINOPHILS, especially, play a major part in the destruction of large antigens such as parasitic worms that cannot be easily phagocytized.

52
Q

To qualify as a donor for autologous transfusion a patient’s hemoglobin should be at least:

8 g/dL
11 g/dL
13 g/dL
15 g/dL

A

11 g/dL

53
Q

Prospective donors with a history of SYPHILIS or GONORRHEA, of treatment for either, or of a reactive screening test for syphilis, or where no confirmatory test was performed, should be deferred for ___months AFTER COMPLETION OF THERAPY.

4 weeks
3 months
6 months
12 months

A

12 months

AABB: SYPHILIS, GONORRHEA (12 MONTHS)
DOH: SEXUALLY TRANSMITTED INFECTIONS (PERMANENT)

54
Q

If the donor has received a live attenuated vaccine for GERMAN MEASLES (RUBELLA) or chickenpox, there is _____ deferral.

2 weeks
4 weeks
12 months
No deferral, if donor is symptom - free and afebrile

A

4 weeks

55
Q

If a potential donor has received a live attenuated or bacterial vaccine such as MEASLES (RUBEOLA), MUMPS, oral polio, typhoid, or yellow fever, there is ____ deferral.

2 weeks
4 weeks
12 months
No deferral, if donor is symptom - free and afebrile

A

2 weeks

56
Q

Formaldehyde is commercially supplied as:

5% solution
10% solution
20% solution
37 to 40% solution

A

37 to 40% solution

COMMERCIALLY AVAILABLE, STOCK SOLUTION: 37 to 40%
FOR TISSUE FIXATION: 10% formalin

57
Q

A standard 5 panel drug urine test is the drug test most frequently used by government agencies and private employees. A 5 panel drug test typically test for:

TOPCA

A

THC
Opiates
PCP
Cocaine
Amphetamines

58
Q

Relative weight of histopathology and MT laws in the MT Board examination

10%
20%
30%
40%

A

10%

59
Q

National Reference Laboratory for Biochemistry

EAMC
NKTI
SLH
LCP
SLH-SACCL

A

LCP

60
Q

An individual who can head the clinical laboratory:

Medical Technologist
Pathologist
Clinician
Medical technicians

A

Pathologist

61
Q

Administrative investigations shall be conducted by:

At least one member of the board
At least two members of the board with one legal officer
At least one member of the board with one legal officer
Three memebrs of the board

A

At least two members of the board with one legal officer

62
Q

Most sensitive of the lipid stain known:

sudan black b
sudan III
sudan IV
oil red o

A

Sudan black B

63
Q

Toluidine blue stain:

Helicobacter
Legionella
Spirochetes
Chlamydia

A

Helicobacter

64
Q
  1. Anti-E is for
  2. Storage FIX
  3. Immunodeficient patients
A
  1. Antibody E (IgE) active against parasites
  2. Factor IX conc 1=6C
  3. ISG: immune serum globulin

03-2023 (14 decks)

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