MOVIE, COFFEE Flashcards
Which of the following bacteria is able to hydrolyze urea via urease production, which results in an increase in urine pH that is toxic to kidney cells and stimulates the formation of kidney stones?
A. E. coli
B. Proteus
C. S. aureus
D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B
Incubation of which organism at 25°C produces a characteristic yellow pigment?
A. Cronobacter (Enterobacter) sakazakii
B. Plesiomonas shigelloides
C. Enterobacter aerogenes
D. Hafnia alvei
A
Which of the following Haemophilus species is an agent of a sexually transmitted disease?
A. H. parainfluenzae
B. H. influenzae
C. H. ducreyi
D. H. segnis
C
Campylobacter species should be grown at what optimum temperature?
A. 25° C
B. 37°
C C. 42° C
D. None of the above
C
Which organisms are plump coccobacilli that may resist decolorization and may be mistaken for Neisseria spp?
A. Acinetobacter spp.
B. Bordetella spp.
C. Stenotrophomonas sp.
D. Burkholderia sp.
A
Which of the following has been recognized in postinfectious complications of a Campylobacter jejuni infection?
A. Guillain-Barré syndrome
B. Chronic pulmonary disease
C. Encephalitis
D. Endocarditis
A
Which encapsulated type of H. influenzae is most common?
A. Type a
B. Type b
C. Type c
D. Type d
B
All of the following organisms require X and V factors, except:
A. H. influenzae
B. H. haemolyticus
C. H. influenzae biotype aegyptius
D. Aggregatibacter aphrophilus
D
A patient presents to the physician with pain and frequency of urination. The urine culture reveals a non–lactose fermenting, gram-negative rod with characteristic swarming on blood agar. The biochemical test that would specifically distinguish this organism from other Enterobacteriaceae is:
A. Lactose fermentation
B. Oxidase
C. Phenylalanine deaminase and H2S
D. Triple sugar iron agar
C
What is the specimen of choice for culturing B. pertussis?
A. Throat
B. NP swab
C. Sputum
D. Anterior nose
B
Campylobacter are:
A. Small, curved, motile, gram-positive bacilli
B. Small, curved, motile gram-negative bacilli
C. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-positive bacilli
D. Small, curved, nonmotile, gram-negative bacilli
B
A 25-year-old man who had recently worked as a steward on a transoceanic gram ship presented to the emergency room with high fever, diarrhea and prostration. Axilliary lymph nodes were hemorrhagic and enlarged. A Wayson stain of the aspirate showed bacilli that were bipolar, resembling safety pins. The most likely identification of this organism is:
A. Brucella melitensis
B. Streptobacillus moniliformis
C. Spirillum minus
D. Yersinia pestis
D
Which of the following organisms can grow in the small bowel and cause diarrhea in children, traveler’s diarrhea, or a severe cholera-like syndrome through the production of enterotoxins?
A. Yersinia enterocolitica
B. Escherichia coli
C. Salmonella typhi
D. Shigella dysenteriae
B
A sputum culture from an alcoholic seen in the ER grows gray, mucoid, stringy colonies on sheep blood agar. The isolate grows readily on MacConkey agar and forms mucoid, dark pink colonies. The colonies yield the following test results: ONPG: + Indole: - Glucose: + Oxidase: - Citrate: + VP: + The organism is most likely:
A. Edwardsiella tarda
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae
C. Escherichia coli
D. Proteus vulgaris
B
A gram-positive coccus isolated from a blood culture has the following characteristics: Optochin susceptibility: negative Bacitracin (0.04 U) susceptibility: negative Bile esculin hydrolysis: negative Hippurate hydrolysis: positive Catalase: negative This organism is most likely:
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Streptococcus pneumoniae
C. Streptococcus pyogenes
D. Streptococcus agalactiae
D
The best medium for culture of Bordetella pertussis is:
A. Regan-Lowe agar
B. Cystine blood agar
C. Martin Lewis agar
D. Ashdown agar
A
An antibiotic that inhibits cell wall synthesis is:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Penicillin
C. Sulfamethoxazole
D. Colistin
B
In order to isolate Campylobacter coli/jejuni, the fecal specimen should be:
A. Inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated in reduced oxygen with added CO2 at 42°C
B. Stored in tryptic soy broth before plating to ensure growth of the organism
C. Inoculated onto selective plating media and incubated at both 35°C and at room temperature
D. Incubated at 35°C for 2 hours in Cary-Blair media before inoculating onto selective plating media
A
All of the following bacterial cell walls contains mycolic acid, EXCEPT:
A. Nocardia
B. Rhodococcus
C. Streptomyces
D. Corynebacterium
C
When performing a stool culture, a colony type typical of an enteric pathogen is subcultured on a blood agar plate. The resulting pure culture is screened with several tests to obtain the following results: TSI: acid butt, alkaline slant, no gas, no H2S Phenylalanine deaminase: negative Motility: positive Serological typing:Shigella flexneri (Shigella subgroup-B) The serological typing is verified with new kit and controls. The best course of action would be to:
A. Report the organism as Shigella flexneri without further testing
B. Verity reactivity of motility medium with positive and negative controls
C. Verify reactivity of the TSI slants with positive and negative controls for H2S production
D. Verify reactivity of phenylalanine deaminase with positive and negative controls
B
BAILEY
Which family of viruses produces one of the most lethal hemorrhagic fevers?
A. Bunyaviridae
B. Filoviridae
C. Flaviviridae
D. Arenaviridae
B
BAILEY
Which actinomycete is partial acid-fast, has extensive aerial hyphae, and is lysozyme resistant?
A. Nocardia sp.
B. Rhodococcus sp.
C. Gordonia sp.
D. Tsukamurella sp.
A
BAILEY
Sulfur granules in a clinical specimen indicate the presence of:
A. Clostridium spp.
B. Fusobacterium spp.
C. Actinomyces spp.
D. Peptostreptococcus spp.
C
BAILEY
Adding specimen scrapings to 10% KOH to show the presence of sclerotic bodies that resemble copper pennies is useful in the diagnosis of:
A. Chromoblastomycosis
B. Phaeohyphomycosis
C. Mycetomas
D. Zygomycosis
A
BAILEY
Bartonella quintana has been known to cause:
A. Carrion’s disease
B. Trench fever
C. Cat-scratch disease
D. Lyme disease
B
BAILEY
Which serovar of Chlamydia trachomatis causes lymphogranuloma venereum?
A. A
B. C
C. H
D. L1
D
BAILEY
Which organism causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever?
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Ehrlichia chaffeensis
C. Rickettsia rickettsii
D. Coxiella burnetti
C
BAILEY
Pulmonary anthrax is also known as:
A. Black eschar
B. Woolsorters’ disease
C. Legionnaires’ disease
D. Plague
B
BAILEY
Which of the following culture characteristics alert the microbiologist to a possible infection resulting from Eikenella corrodens?
A. Rapid growth on 5% sheep blood, chocolate, and MacConkey agar
B. Pitting of the agar and a characteristic chlorine bleach smell
C. Growth with alpha hemolysis on the 5% sheep blood agar and no growth on MAC agar
D. Limited growth on 5% sheep blood, chocolate, and MacConkey agar, but improved growth using BYCE media
B
BAILEY
Which of the following organisms is acquired via exposure to infected birds?
A. Coxiella burnetii
B. Chlamydia psittaci
C. Anaplasma phagocytophilum
D. Tropheryma whipplei
B
BAILEY
Which fungus is most often acquired by traumatic implantation into the skin?
A. Histoplasma capsulatum
B. Sporothrix schenckii
C. Coccidioides immitis
D. Penicillium marneffei
B
BAILEY
A large, aerobic, gram-positive, spore-forming rod is isolated from a blood culture. It can be further confirmed as B. anthracis if it is:
A. Hemolytic and motile
B. Hemolytic and nonmotile
C. Nonhemolytic and motile
D. Nonhemolytic and nonmotile
D
BAILEY
Which test can be used to differentiate T. mentagrophytes from T. rubrum?
A. Fluorescence using a Wood’s lamp
B. In vitro hair perforation
C. Red color on reverse side of colony
D. Pyriform microconidia
B
BAILEY
Infection caused by non–acid-fast aerobic actinomycetes is usually chronic, granulomatous lesions of the skin referred to as:
A. Mycelium
B. Necrosis
C. Impetigo
D. Mycetoma
D
BAILEY
Pregnant women and immunocompromised patients should avoid eating which of the following foods to prevent Listeria infection?
A. Feta cheese
B. Peanuts
C. Pickles
D. Ice cream
A
BAILEY
Spirillum minus also causes rat-bite fever in humans and is referred to as:
A. Haverhill fever
B. Legionnaire’s disease
C. Hantavirus
D. Sodoku
D
BAILEY
Loeffler’s agar slant is a special culture medium used to recover which organism?
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
C. Bordetella pertussis
D. Neisseria meningitidis
B
Germ tube formation is seen with which two yeasts?
A. C. albicans, C. neoformans
B. C. albicans, C. parapsilosis
C. C. glabrata, C. parapsilosis
D. C. albicans, C. dubliniensis
E. C. glabrata, C. dubliniensis
D
Clinical Laboratory Standard Institute (CLSI) recommends that:
A. Bands should be included within the eosinophil count
B. Bands should be included within the basophil count
C. Bands should not be included within the neutrophil count, and reported as separate category
D. Bands should be included within the neutrophil count and not reported as separate category
D
Clinical signs and symptoms commonly include low birth weight (<2,500 g), skin hyperpigmentation (café au lait spots), and short stature.
Other manifestations can include skeletal disorders (aplasia or hypoplasia of the thumb), renal malformations, microcephaly, hypogonadism, mental retardation, and strabismus.
A. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
B. Fanconi anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Thalassemia
B
- Which Brucella species may require CO2 for growth, is urea positive in 2 hours, and is inhibited by thionine dye?
A. Brucella abortus
B. Brucella melitensis
C. Brucella suis
D. Brucella canis - Brucella isolate that does not produce H2S, does not require CO2, and is not inhibited by thionine and basic fuchsin is probably which species of Brucella?
A. Brucella canis
B. Brucella abortus
C. Brucella suis
D. Brucella melitensis
A, D
- Access to the laboratory is limited or restricted, and there must be a biohazard sign posted at the entrance of the laboratory:
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4 - Access to the laboratory is limited when work is being conducted. The laboratory director is ultimately responsible for determining who may enter or work in the laboratory.
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4 - Laboratory should be separated from the other parts of the building and be accessed through two self-closing doors. An ANTEROOM may be used for access.
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4 - The BSL facility either is located in a separate building or is in an isolated zone within a building.
A. BSL-1
B. BSL-2
C. BSL-3
D. BSL-4
A, B, C, D
- In the laboratory, a program that monitors the total testing process with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment/assurance - A system that verifies the reliability of analytical test results through the use of standards, controls, and statistical analysis:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance - In an institution, a comprehensive program in which all areas of operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
A. Quality systems
B. Quality control
C. Quality assessment
D. Quality assurance
C, B, A
Which animals were immunized that led to the discovery of the Rh blood group?
A. Rhesus macaque monkeys
B. Mice and rats
C. Frogs
D. Guinea pigs and rabbits
D
- A solution used to clean the site before routine venipuncture is:
A. 5.25% sodium hypochlorite
B. 70% isopropyl alcohol
C. 70% methanol
D. Povidone–iodine - This antiseptic has been traditionally used to obtain the high degree of skin antisepsis required when BLOOD CULTURES are being collected:
A. 70% Ethyl alcohol
B. 70% Isopropanol
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Povidone–iodine
B, D
BOC
A Gram-negative bacillus with bipolar staining was isolated from a wound infection caused by a bite from a pet cat. The following characteristic reactions were seen:
Oxidase: positive
Glucose OF: fermentative
Motility: negative
MacConkey agar: no growth
Which of the following is the most likely organism?
A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Aeromonas hydrophila
D. Vibrio cholerae
B
BOC
The microscopic structures that are MOST useful in the identification of DERMATOPHYTES are:
A. Septate and branching hyphae
B. Racquet and pectinate hyphae
C. Chlamydospores and microconidia
D. Macroconidia and microconidia
D
Which of the following Mycobacterium is most noted for being associated with patients with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome?
A. M. avium-intracellulare complex
B. M. marinum
C. M. kansasii
D. M. bovis
A
- Fluorescence on Wood’s lamp, growth in rice medium:
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum - Fluorescence on Wood’s lamp, no growth in rice medium:
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum
A, C
BOC
TAKE NOTE ORGANISM IS OXIDASE POSITIVE
While swimming in a lake near his home, a young boy cut his foot, and an infection developed. The culture grew a nonfastidious gram-negative, oxidase positive, beta hemolytic, motile bacilli that produced deoxyribonuclease.
The most likely identification is:
A. Enterobacter cloacae
B. Serratia marcescens
C. Aeromonas hydrophila
D. Escherichia coli
C
BOC
Fluid from a cutaneous black lesion was submitted for routine bacterial culture. After 18 hours of incubation at 35°C there was no growth on MacConkey agar, but 3+ growth on sheep blood agar. The colonies were nonhemolytic, nonmotile, 4-5 mm in diameter and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony had an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stood up like “beaten egg whites” when gently lifted with an inoculating needle. A Gram stain of a typical colony showed large, gram-positve rectangular bacilli. The organism is most likely:
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Aeromonas hydrophila
C. Bacillus anthracis
D. Mycobacterium marinum
C
BOC
A young girl cuts her foot on a rock while swimming at the ocean. Her foot begins to show signs of infection and her parents take her to the ER. A culture grows a non-lactose fermenting gram-negative rod that produces copious amounts of hydrogen sulfide and gas, is indole positive and motile. The organism most likely isolated is:
A. Shigella spp.
B. Escherichia spp.
C. Edwardsiella spp.
D. Klebsiella spp.
C
BOC
The Gram stain of drainage from a pulmonary sinus tract shows many WBCs and 3+ branching gram-positive bacilli. Colonies grow only on anaerobic media after 3 days incubation. They are yellow-tan and have a molar tooth appearance. The most likely genus is:
A. Actinomyces
B. Bacteroides
C. Fusobacterium
D. Nocardia
A
A patient with a Wood’s lamp positive, dermatophytic infection has a skin scraping taken for culture. The organism grows on SDA agar with a light-tan front and salmon-colored reverse. Microscopically the organism produces rare distorted macroconidia and rare microconidia. Additionally, there was no growth on sterile rice medium.What is themost likely organism?
A. Microsporum canis
B. Microsporum gypseum
C. Microsporum audouinii
D. Epidermophyton floccosum
C
BAILEY
Repression of normal flora by the intake of antimicrobials often results in a gastrointestinal infection with:
A. Enteropathogenic E. coli
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Candida albicans
C
Yellow ground-glass colonies on cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA):
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium perfringens
C
A stool sample is sent to the laboratory for culture to rule out Clostridium difficile. What media should the microbiologist use and what is the appearance of the organisms on this media?
A. CTBA: black colonies
B. Brucella agar: red pigmented colonies
C. CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies
D. CNA: double zone hemolytic colonies
C
A gram-positive bacillus was isolated from a wound specimen and had the following characteristics: double zone of β hemolysis, lecithinase positive, lipase negative, spot indole negative. What is the most likely identification of this organism?
A. Clostridium perfringens
B. Clostridium ramosum
C. Clostridium septicum
D. Clostridium tetani
A
Acid-fast staining of a smear prepared from a digested sputum showed slender, slightly curved, beaded red mycobacterial rods. Growth on Middlebrook 7H10 slants produced buff-colored microcolonies with a serpentine pattern after 14 days at 37C. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests were positive. What is the most probable presumptive identification?
A. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B. Mycobacterium kansasii
C. Mycobacterium ulcerans
D. Mycobacterium avium complex
A
- Which of the following tumor markers is used to monitor persons with breast cancer for recurrence of disease?
A. Cathepsin-D
B. CA-15-3
C. Retinoblastoma gene
D. Estrogen receptor (ER) - Which tumor marker is used to determine the usefulness of TRASTUZUMAB (HERCEPTIN) therapy for breast cancer?
A. PR
B. CEA
C. HER-2/neu
D. Myc
B, C
An elevated anion gap may be caused by all of the following except:
A. Uremia/renal failure
B. Ketoacidosis in case of starvation or diabetes
C. Alcohol or salicylate poisoning
D. Hypoalbuminemia
D
Identify the result that is NOT electrolyte balanced. (compute the anion gap, results are in mmol/L)
A. Na+ 125, K+ 4.5, Cl- 100, CO2 content 10
B. Na+ 135, K+ 3.5, Cl- 95, CO2 content 28
C. Na+ 145, K+ 4.0, Cl- 90, CO2 content 15
D. Na+ 150, K+ 5.0, Cl- 110, CO2 content 30
C
An order for blood products for a recent recipient of a bone marrow graft was received in the transfusion service. Because these patients are especially susceptible to GVHD from a transfusion, which blood product would best prevent GVHD?
A. Leukocyte reduction of the unit
B. Washing the unit with normal saline
C. Irradiation of the blood product
D. Providing HLA-matched blood products
C
CHECK YOUR HARMENING
ISBT BEGINNING WITH 030:
A. ABO
B. Scianna
C. John Milton Hagen
D. Rh-associated glycoprotein (RHAG)
D
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
A. Mumps
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Varicocele
D. Malignancy
C
The crystal associated with ETHYLENE GLYCOL poisoning has which characteristic appearance:
A. Envelope, pyramidal
B. Dumbbell
C. Thorny apple
D. Lemon-shaped
B
RENAL STONE yellow-brown resembling an old soap and feel somewhat greasy:
A. Phosphate
B. Urate
C. Cystine
D. Calcium oxalate
C
Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria is characterized by flow cytometry results that are:
A. Negative for CD55 and CD59
B. Positive for CD55 and CD59
C. Negative for CD4 and CD8
D. Positive for all normal CD markers
A
This T cell defect is a congenital anomaly that represents faulty embryogenesis, which results in aplasia of the parathyroid and thymus glands:
A. DiGeorge syndrome
B. Ataxia telangiectasia
C. Bruton agammaglobulinemia
D. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome
A
- Major structural protein in VLDL and LDL:
A.Apo-A1
B.Apo-A2
C.Apo-B48
D.Apo-B100 - Structural protein in chylomicrons:
A.Apo-A1
B.Apo-A2
C.Apo-B48
D. Apo-B100
D, C
A 1-month-old infant underwent a spinal tap to rule out bacterial meningitis. The CSF was cloudy, and the smear showed many pus cells and short gram-positive rods. After 18 hours, many colonies appeared on blood agar that resembled Streptococcus spp. or L. monocytogenes. Which of the following preliminary tests should be performed on the colonies to best differentiate L. monocytogenes from Streptococcus spp.?
A. Hanging-drop motility (25°C) and catalase
B. PYR and bacitracin
C. Oxidase and glucose
D. Coagulase and catalase
A
- What is MOST SERIOUS complement deficiency?
A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4 - What is the MOST COMMON complement component deficiency?
A. C1
B. C2
C. C3
D. C4
C, B
Individuals with a _________ are prone to developing severe, recurrent life-threatening infections with encapsulated bacteria such as Streptococcus pneumoniae and may also be subject to immune complex diseases; such complexes can lodge in the kidney and result in glomerulonephritis:
A. C1 deficiency
B. C2 deficiency
C. C3 deficiency
D. C5 deficiency
C
Stains the nucleus:
A. Acidified eosin
B. Non-acidified eosin
C. Acidified hematoxylin
D. Non-acidified hematoxylin
D
First step in automated tissue processor:
A. Cold formalin
B. Hot formalin
C. Cold ethanol
D. Hot ethanol
B
Convert 9.5 µg/dL thyroxine to SI unit:
A. 123 µmol/L
B. 123 nmol/L
C. 125 nmol/L
D. 145 µmol/L
B
- Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule - Which part of the renal tubule is HIGHLY PERMEABLE to water and does not reabsorb sodium and chloride?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
C, B
- Hyponatremia can be classified according to:
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality - Which of the following measurements is necessary to evaluate the cause of hypernatremia?
A. Chloride
B. Glucose
C. Plasma/serum osmolality
D. Urine osmolality
C, D
The ETHANOL SHOCK procedure is used to differentiate:
A. Actinomyces and Bifidobacterium spp.
B. Prevotella and Porphyromonas spp.
C. Clostridium and Bacteroides spp.
D. Bacteroides and Actinomyces spp.
C
Rapid antigen detection for HISTIDINE-RICH PROTEIN II (HRP-II) is specific for:
A. Plasmodium falciparum
B. Plasmodium malariae
C. Plasmodium ovale
D. Plasmodium vivax
A
The intestinal nematode considered capable of vertical transmission and the potential cause for congenital infections is:
A. Ascaris lumbricoides
B. Enterobius vermicularis
C. Trichuris trichiura
D. Ancylostoma duodenale
D
For each degree of fever in the patient, pO2 will ____ and pCO2 will ______.
A. pO2 and pCO2 will fall 7% and 3% respectively
B. pO2 and pCO2 will rise 3% and 7% respectively
C. pO2 will rise 7% and pCO2 will fall 3%
D. pO2 will fall 7% and pCO2 will rise 3%
D
In an iodine preparation of feces, an amebic cyst appears to have a basket nucleus and a large glycogen mass that stains reddish-brown. The most probable identity of the cyst is:
A. Entamoeba histolytica
B. Iodamoeba butschlii
C. Naegleria fowleri
D. Entamoeba hartmanni
B
AUTOFLUORESCENCE requires no stain and is recommended for the identification of:
A. Entamoeba histolytica cysts
B. Toxoplasma gondii tachyzoites
C. Dientamoeba fragilis trophozoites
D. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts
D
Critical to ovum penetration is the enzyme-containing acrosomal cap located at the tip of the sperm head. The acrosomal cap encompasses approximately:
A. Half of the head and cover approximately two-thirds of the sperm nucleus
B. Half of the head and cover approximately one-half of the sperm nucleus
C. Two-thirds of the head and cover approximately one-half of the sperm nucleus
D. Two-thirds of the head and cover approximately two-thirds of the sperm nucleus
A
Normal sperm morphology, EXCEPT:
A. Oval-shaped head
B. Head approximately 5 μm long and 3 μm wide
C. Flagellar tail approximately 45 μm long
D. Acrosomal cap should encompass one-fourth of the head
D
Normal stool pH
A. pH 6 to 7
B. pH 7 to 8
C. pH 8 to 9
D. pH 9 to 10
B
Smudge cells are seen in increased proportions in:
A. AML
B. ALL
C. CML
D. CLL
D
Antigens are related to human leukocyte antigens (HLA) on RBCs:
A. Bg
B. Di
C. Sd
D. Xg
A
Which of the following blood gas disorders is most commonly associated with an abnormal anion gap?
A. Respiratory acidosis
B. Respiratory alkalosis
C. Metabolic acidosis
D. Metabolic alkalosis
C
Type of necrosis resulting from release of activated PANCREATIC LIPASES into the substance of the pancreas and the peritoneal cavity:
A. Coagulation necrosis
B. Liquefaction necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
C
A special form of cell death produced by the tubercle bacillus:
A. Liquefaction necrosis
B. Coagulation necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
D
A 49-year-old man develops an acute myocardial infarction because of the sudden occlusion of the left anterior descending coronary artery. The areas of myocardial necrosis within the ventricle can best be described as:
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Fat necrosis
D. Caseous necrosis
E. Fibrinoid necrosis
A
A universal fixative used for routine purposes:
A. Zenker fluid
B. Zamboni PAF
C. 10% neutral buffered formalin
D. Carnoy’s fluid
C
The first and most critical step in histotechnology?
A. Fixation
B. Clearing
C. Infiltration
D. Embedding
A
- The primary aim of fixation:
A. Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
B. Act as mordant or accentuators
C. Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
D. Inhibit bacterial decomposition - The secondary goal of fixation:
A. Preserve the morphologic and chemical integrity of the cell
B. Act as mordant or accentuators
C. Harden and protect the tissue from trauma of further handling
D. Inhibit bacterial decomposition
A, C
To maintain an adequate fixation time of 4 to 6 hours, the recommended size of the tissue is:
A. 2 cm2, and no more than 2 mm. thick
B. 2 cm2, and no more than 4 mm. thick
C. 2 cm2, and no more than 6 mm. thick
D. 2 cm2, and no more than 8 mm. thick
B
The connective tissue cells actively involved in wound healing are:
A. Plasma cells
B. Macrophages
C. Mast cells
D. Fibroblasts
D
Malignant tumors of connective tissue are known as:
A. Carcinomas
B. Sarcomas
C. Lipomas
D. Fibromas
B
What type of leukocyte actively participates in acute inflammatory processes and contains myeloperoxidase within its primary (azurophilic) granules and alkaline phosphatase in its secondary (specific) granules?
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Monocytes
D. Lymphocytes
E. Plasma cells
A
There is a strong association between ankylosing spondylitis and:
A. HLA-B27
B. HLA-DR3
C. HLA-DR4
D. HLA-A3
E. HLA-BW47
A
A 52-year-old male presents with symptoms of gastric pain after eat- ing. During workup, a 3-cm mass is found in the wall of the stomach. This mass is resected and histologic examination reveals a tumor composed of cells having elongated, spindle-shaped nuclei. The tumor does not connect to the overlying epithelium and is found only in the wall of the stomach. This tumor most likely originated from
A. Adipocytes
B. Endothelial cells
C. Glandular epithelial cells
D. Smooth muscle cells
E. Squamous epithelial cells
D
- Demonstration of neuron, axons and neurofibrils:
A. Bielchowsky’s technique
B. Luxol fast blue
C. Cajal’s gold sublimate
D. Modified Holzer’s method - Demonstration of myelin:
A. Bielchowsky’s technique
B. Luxol fast blue
C. Cajal’s gold sublimate
D. Modified Holzer’s method
A, B
Rhodanine is used to demonstrate:
A. Ferric iron
B. Copper
C. Calcium
D. Urate crystals
B
Excessive exposure to this clearing agent may be extremely toxic to man and may become carcinogenic or it may damage the bone marrow resulting to APLASTIC ANEMIA:
A. Xylene
B. Toluene
C. Benzene
D. Chloroform
C
Most ideal and most reliable method of determining extent of decalcification:
A. Physical test
B. Chemical test
C. X-ray or radiological test
D. Adsorption test
C
- Angle formed between the cutting edge of the microtome knife (27 to 32 degree angle):
A. Bevel angle
B. Clearance angle
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these - Angle formed between the surface of the block and the cutting edge of the knife (0 to 15 degree angle):
A. Bevel angle
B. Clearance angle
C. Both of these
D. Neither of these
A, B
Oldest stain:
A. Orcein
B. Iodine
C. Eosin
D. Hematoxylin
B
- Probably the best vital:
A. Nile blue
B. Neutral red
C. Janus green
D. Toluidine blue - Vital dye especially recommended for mitochondria:
A. Nile blue
B. Neutral red
C. Janus green
D. Toluidine blue
B, C
It is an excellent stain for elastic fibers and is especially recommended in dermatological studies due to its ability to demonstrate the finest and most delicate fibers in the skin.
A. Janus green B
B. Malachite green
C. Night blue
D. Orcein
D
The phosphotungstic acid hematoxylin (PTAH) is useful for demonstrating:
A. Edema fluid
B. Muscle striations
C. Ground substance
D. Reticulin network
B
CHECK YOUR GREGORIOS BEFORE ANSWERING
What is the most sensitive lipid stain?
A. Oil red O
B. Sudan III
C. Sudan IV
D. Sudan Black B
D
During the morning rush, your laboratory manager comes into the laboratory and starts explaining a new policy regarding vacation requests. Word spreads of the change throughout the day, and the message has changed somewhat. Several in the laboratory are upset and complain to the laboratory manager. Which of the following actions is the most appropriate way to handle such a situation?
A. Nothing should be changed, it was handled appropriately
B. The manager should have posted the change on the bulletin board in the break room
C. The manager should have announced the policyon each shift
D. The manager should have discussed and distributed the policy at a laboratory meeting, or several laboratory meetings, so that all employees heard the policy from the manager
D
What is the most important role of the manager in charge?
A. Independent decision making
B. Communication
C. Informal discussions
D. None of the above
B
The four essential functions of a manager are:
A. Staffing, decision making, cost analysis, evaluating
B. Directing, leading, forecasting, implementing
C. Planning, organizing, directing, controlling
D. Innovating, designing, coordinating, problemsolving
C
Point-of-care testing (POCT) refers to:
A. All testing done to the patient to save time
B. All lab testing done in the central lab
C. Any clinical lab testing done at the patient’s bedside
D. Satellite lab testing
C
- Papanicolaou staining consists of how many stains?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4 - Ratio of nuclear to cytoplasmic stains in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1 - Ratio of cytoplasmic to nuclear stain in Papanicolaou staining:
A. 1:2
B. 1:3
C. 2:1
D. 3:1 - What is the second stain in Papanicolaou staining procedure?
A. Sudan III
B. Harris hematoxylin
C. OG-6
D. Eosin azure
C, A, C, C
An unknown pigment in tissue section that can be bleached with a saturated alcoholic solution of picric acid is most likely:
A. Melanin pigment
B. Hemosiderin
C. Formalin pigment
D. Mercury pigment
C
All mercurial fixing solutions lead to the formation in tissues of diffuse BLACK granules and these mercury deposits must be removed BEFORE STAINING. Removal of mercuric chloride deposit is accomplished by:
A. Saturated solution of iodine
B. Sodium thiosulfate
C. Distilled water
D. Saturated solution of picric acid
A
Acridine orange demonstrates:
A. Cell wall
B. Mitochondria
C. Nucleic acid
D. Flagella
C
- AMINOETHYLCARBAZOLE (AEC), which is __________ in color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases.
A. Red
B. Brown
C. Orange
D. Pink - DIAMINOBENZIDINE (DAB), which is __________ in color, is a common chromogen for peroxidases.
A. Red
B. Brown
C. Orange
D. Pink
A, B
- If the cell or tissue antigen of interest is detected by directly binding a labeled primary antibody specific for that antigen:
A. Direct immunohistochemistry
B. Indirect immunohistochemistry
C. Both of these
D. None of these - Uses an unlabeled primary antibody that is detected bound to its antigen with labeled secondary antibodies:
A. Direct immunohistochemistry
B. Indirect immunohistochemistry
C. Both of these
D. None of these
A, B
In immunohistochemistry:
______ are raised against specific cellular _____ and then conjugated with a _______.
A. Antigen, antibody, visual marker
B. Antibody, antigen, visual marker
C. Visual marker, antigen, antibody
D. Antigen, visual marker, antibody
B
Elastic cartilage except:
A. External ear
B. Epiglottis
C. Walls of the Eustachian tubes
D. Intervertebral discs
D
Thyroid follicles are lined by this type of epithelium:
A. Simple squamous epithelium
B. Simple cuboidal epithelium
C. Simple columnar epithelium
D. Transitional epithelium
B
Molecular death:
A. Flat ECG
B. Flat EEG
C. Absent breath sounds
D. Rigor mortis
D
Ripening of hematoxylin is a process of:
A. Hydrolysis
B. Oxidation
C. Mordanting
D. Reduction
B
In the ripening of hematoxylin, alkaline (basic) solutions will affect for a _______ oxidizing process
A. Slower oxidizing process
B. More rapid oxidizing process
C. Few hours
D. None of these
B
- Dip and dunk tissue processor:
A. Fluid-transfer
B. Tissue-transfer
C. Specimens are held in a single process chamber or retort and fluids are pumped in and out as required
D. All of these - Enclosed tissue processor:
A. Fluid-transfer
B. Tissue-transfer
C. Specimens are transferred from container to container to be processed
D. All of these
B, A
Frozen sections are stained by hand because:
A. Staining is more accurate
B. Prevent overstaining
C. Faster for one or a few individual sections
D. Predictable colors
C
Stain for demonstration of Helicobacter pylori:
A. Dieterle method
B. Grocott methamine silver (GMS) stain
C. Toluidine blue, cresyl violet acetate
D. Congo red
C
Warthin-Starry method:
A. Mycobacterium
B. Nocardia
C. Spirochetes
D. None of these
C
- These knives are used to cut block for ELECTRON MICROSCOPY (EM):
A. Disposal blades
B. Steel knives
C. Diamond or glass knives
D. Magnetic blades - Microtome knives for PARAFFIN SECTIONING are usually made of:
A. Carbon steel
B. Diamond
C. Glass
D. Iron
C, A
Tissue is soft when block is trimmed:
A.Incomplete fixation
B.Incomplete dehydration
C.Incomplete clearing
D.Incomplete impregnation
A
Tissue is opaque, section cutting is difficult due to the presence of alcohol.
A.Incomplete fixation
B.Incomplete dehydration
C.Insufficient clearing
D. Incomplete impregnation
C
MSDS information includes:
A. General and emergency information.
B. Highly technical chemical formulas.
C. Information on competitor products.
D. Product manufacturing conditions.
A
When the chain of infection is broken, an:
A. Individual is immune to that microbe.
B. Individual is susceptible to infection.
C. Infection is prevented from happening.
D. Infection will most likely be the result.
C
Class C fires involve:
A. Combustible metals.
B. Electrical equipment.
C. Flammable liquids.
D. Ordinary materials.
B
This equipment is required when one is collecting a specimen from a patient in airborne isolation.
A. Eye protection
B. Full face shield
C. Mask and goggles
D. N95 respirator
D
What is the proper order for putting on protective clothing?
A. Gloves first, then gown, mask last
B. Gown first, then gloves, mask last
C. Gown first, then mask, gloves last
D. Mask first, then gown, gloves last
C
The blue quadrant of the NFPA diamond-shaped symbol for hazardous materials indicates a:
A. Fire hazard.
B. Health hazard.
C. Reactivity hazard.
D. Specific hazard.
B
Which class of fire occurs with combustible metals?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
D
What is the correct order for removing protective clothing?
A. Gloves, gown, mask
B. Gown, gloves, mask
C. Gown, mask, gloves
D. Mask, gown, gloves
A
Alcohol-based antiseptic hand cleaners can be used in place of hand washing if:
A. Gloves were worn during the prior activity.
B. Hands are first cleaned with detergent wipes.
C. Hands were washed after the prior activity.
D. No dirt or organic matter is seen on the hands.
D
Which of the following is a disinfectant?
A. Benzalkonium chloride
B. Chlorhexidine gluconate
C. Household bleach
D. Hydrogen peroxide
C
Going without food or drink except water for 8 to 12 hours is defined as:
A. Fasting.
B. NPO.
C. Routine.
D. TDM.
A
A patient who is NPO:
A. Cannot have any food or drink.
B. Cannot have anything but water.
C. Is in critical but stable condition.
D. Is recovering from minor surgery.
A
Which specimen has priority over all other specimens during processing and testing?
A. ASAP
B. Fasting
C. STAT
D. Timed
C
At 0730, the phlebotomist receives requests for a cortisol level on Unit 4B, a fasting blood sugar (FBS) on Unit 4A, and a stat crossmatch in the ER. In which order should the phlebotomist collect these samples?
A. Cortisol, FBS, crossmatch
B. FBS, cortisol, crossmatch
C. Crossmatch, FBS, cortisol
D. FBS, crossmatch, cortisol
C
Mixed respiratory and nonrespiratory disorders ________ arise from more than one pathologic process and represent the most serious of medical conditions as compensation for the primary disorder is failing.
A. Mostly
B. Frequently
C. Occasionally
D. Rarely
C
If left unprotected from light, bilirubin values may reduce by _____ per hour.
A. 10 to 30%
B. 30 to 50%
C. 50 to 70%
D. 70 to 90%
B
Which statement CORRECTLY describes the mode of action of the antibiotic listed for modified Thayer-Martin medium?
A. Colistin inhibits gram positive bacteria
B. Nystatin inhibits fungi and molds
C. Vancomycin inhibits gram negative bacteria
D. Trimethoprim lactate inhibits gram positive bacteria
B
Which of the following is associated with GRANULOMATOUS DISEASE IN ANIMALS and have been associated with SOFT TISSUE INFECTION IN HUMANS FOLLOWING ANIMAL BITES?
A. Actinobacillus
B. Cardiobacterium
C. Haemophilus
D. Vibrio
A
Which of the following tests helps identify certain species of Enterobacteriaceae, such as Proteus spp., and other important bacteria such as Corynebacterium urealyticum and Helicobacter pylori?
A. Indole test
B. Hippurate hydrolysis test
C. Oxidase test
D. Urease test
D
Which of the following diseases is BEST diagnosed by serologic means?
A. Q fever
B. Pulmonary tuberculosis
C. Gonorrhea
D. Actinomycosis
A
Which mycobacterium is associated with Crohn’s disease?
A. M. marinum
B. M. paratuberculosis
C. M. avium
D. M. gordonae
B
Microscopically, numerous smooth, thin-walled, club-shaped, multiseptate (2 to 4 μm) macroconidia are seen. They are rounded at the tip and are borne singly on a conidiophore or in groups of two or three. MICROCONIDIA ARE ABSENT, spiral hyphae are rare, and chlamydoconidia are usually numerous.
A. Epidermophyton floccosum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
D. Trichophyton rubrum
A
Acid-fast positive bacilli were recovered from the sputum of a 79-year-old man who had been treated for pneumonia. Which of the following test reactions after 3 weeks of incubation on Löwenstein–Jensen agar are consistent with Mycobacterium tuberculosis?
A. Niacin +, Nitrate reduction +, Photochromogen negative
B. Niacin negative, Optochin +, Catalase +
C. PYR +, Urease +, Bacitracin +
D. Ampicillin resistant, Penicillin resistant
A
Clinical signs and symptoms commonly include low birth weight (<2,500 g), skin hyperpigmentation (café au lait spots), and short stature.
Other manifestations can include skeletal disorders (aplasia or hypoplasia of the thumb), renal malformations, microcephaly, hypogonadism, mental retardation, and strabismus.
A. Diamond-Blackfan anemia
B. Fanconi anemia
C. Sideroblastic anemia
D. Thalassemia
B
In pharmacokinetics, the concentration ________ as the rate of elimination and distribution exceeds absorption.
A. Rises
B. Spuriously rises
C. Declines
D. Spuriously declines
C
SIX SIGMA ROLES
1. Black belts dedicate _______ of their time to quality improvement projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
- Green belts contribute ______ of their time to improvement projects while delivering their normal job functions.
A. 10%
B. 20%
C. 70%
D. 100%
D, B
- Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine competes with patient thyroxine for antibody in homogeneous system. Antibody-bound labeled thyroxine rotates slowly, emitting lower energy light.
A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA) - Fluorogenic substrate–labeled TSH is competing with patient TSH for antibody in this homogeneous assay. Only unbound (leftover) labeled TSH reacts with the enzyme to form fluorescent product. There is a direct relationship between fluorescence and the amount of TSH present in the test sample.
A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA) - Peroxidase-labeled antibody binds with patient hormone (antigen) to form complex (similar to ELISA). Addition of luminol or acridium esters substrate forms an oxidized product that emits light for short time.
A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA) - Similar to ELISA in that there is a double-antibody system that forms a “sandwich” with the hormone:
A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
B. Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
C. Chemiluminescence
D. Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)
A, B, C, D
Diluted bleach will inactivate HBV in __ minutes and HIV in ___ minutes.
A. 2 minutes, 8 minutes
B. 8 minutes, 4 minutes
C. 10 minutes, 2 minutes
D. 8 minutes, 2 minutes
C
Most frequently used test in the identification of Gardnerella vaginalis, Streptococcus agalactiae, Campylobacter jejuni, and Listeria monocytogenes:
A. Indole test
B. Hippurate hydrolysis test
C. Oxidase test
D. Urease test
B
- Which of the following tests is most helpful in differentiating C.jejuni from the other Campylobacter spp.?
A. Nitrate reduction
B. Urease activity
C. Hippurate hydrolysis
D. Susceptibility to nalidixic acid - A positive hippurate hydrolysis is a characteristic of:
A. Campylobacter coli
B. Campylobacter jejuni
C. Campylobacter lari
D. Campylobacter fetus
C, B
Which group of tests best differentiates Helicobacter pylori from C. jejuni?
A. Catalase, oxidase, and Gram stain
B. Catalase, oxidase, and nalidixic acid sensitivity
C. Catalase, oxidase, and cephalothin sensitivity
D. Urease, nitrate, and hippurate hydrolysis
D
Ethanol concentration associated with coma and possible death:
A. 0.09 to 0.25%
B. 0.18 to 0.30%
C. 0.27 to 0.40%
D. 0.35 to 0.50%
D
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is differentiated from Mycobacterium bovis by:
A. Growth rate
B. Hydrolysis of Tween 80
C. Niacin and nitrate reduction tests
D. Catalase test at 68°C
C
LATEX AGGLUTINATION for cryptococcal _____ is now recommended test for Cryptococcus neoformans.
A. Polysaccharide capsule
B. Antigen
C. Antibody
D. Nucleic acids
B
Most common cause of ASEPTIC MENINGITIS, an inflammation of the brain parenchyma:
A. Arenavirus
B. Cytomegalovirus
C. Enterovirus
D. Herpes simplex virus 2
C
Which of the following fungal organisms is best diagnosed by an ANTIGEN detection test as opposed to an antibody detection assay?
A. Histoplasma
B. Cryptococcus
C. Candida
D. Aspergillus
B
Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples:
A. Bordetella
B. Candida
C. Cryptococcus
D. Mycobacterium
B
All of the following are metallic fixatives except:
A. Carnoy’s fluid
B. Zenker’s fluid
C. Orth’s fluid
D. Regaud’s fluid
A
RETICULIN FIBERS IN GOMORI’S silver impregnation stain:
A. Pink
B. Black
C. Blue
D. Red
B
COCCIDIANS
Cryptosporidium and Isospora species are difficult to detect without special staining. Which of the following stains may be used to demonstrate these organisms?
A. Trichrome stain
B. Chlorazol-black E stain
C. Iron hematoxylin stain
D. Modified acid-fast stain
D
The CDC recommends that “standard precautions” be exercised by all healthcare workers to prevent transmission of hepatitis B virus, HIV, and other bloodborne pathogens. What do these precautions include?
A. Wearing protective clothing when testing blood specimens from patients in specific areas
B. Using special precautionary methods when testing blood specimens with a biohazard label
C. Handling every patient blood specimen as if it were infectious
D. Carefully recapping needles before discarding
C
CONGO RED
An 87-year-old male develops worsening heart failure. Workup reveals decreased left ventricular filling due to decreased compliance of the left ventricle. Two months later the patient dies, and postmortem sections reveal deposits of eosinophilic, Congo red–positive material in the interstitium of his heart. When viewed under polarized light, this material displays an apple-green birefringence. What is the correct diagnosis?
A. Amyloidosis
B. Glycogenosis
C. Hemochromatosis
D. Sarcoidosis
E. Senile atrophy
A
Which of the following organs must be fixed before “grossing” or sectioning:
A. Brain
B. Heart
C. Liver
D. Lungs
A
It is due to edema fluid and connective tissue proliferation:
A. True hypertrophy
B. False hypertrophy
C. Physiological hyperplasia
D. Pathological hyperplasia
B
The first and most critical step in histotechnology:
A. Fixation
B. Dehydration
C. Clearing
D. Infiltration
A
The independent variable is plotted along the:
A. Horizontal axis
B. Vertical axis
C. Y-axis
D. Ordinate
A
Which one of the following viruses is the leading cause of congenital malformations?
A. Rabies
B. Rhinovirus
C. Cytomegalovirus
D. Respiratory syncytial virus
E. Mumps
C
This virus is the most important cause of gastroenteritis in infants and young children. It causes infections that are often severe and may be life threatening, especially in infants.
A. Echovirus
B. Norwalk virus
C. Rotavirus
D. Orbivirus
E. Parvovirus
C
HAND, FOOT & MOUTH DISEASE
Several children in a day care center for preschoolers developed fever, irritability, lack of appetite, and a vesicular rash found on their hands, feet, and mouth . With which virus were these children most likely infected?
A. Coronavirus
B. Coxsackievirus
C. Respiratory syncytial virus
D. Rhinovirus
B
The Von Kossa’s stain is used to demonstrate:
A. Calcium
B. Amyloid
C. Glycogen
D. Fats
A
First clinical laboratory in the Philippines:
A. San Lazaro Hospital
B. Manila Public Health Laboratory
C. Research Institute for Tropical Medicine
D. National Reference Laboratory
B
Introduced medical technology practice in the Philippines after World War II:
A. Dr. Pio de Roda
B. Dr. Mariano Icasiano
C. Dr. Prudencia Sta. Ana
D. 26th Medical Laboratory of the 6th US Army
D
Which of the ff. published standards for GOOD LABORATORY PRACTICE (GLP)?
A. CDC
B. DOH
C. WHO
D. OSHA
C
Which of the following ISO standard applies to the clinical laboratory?
A. ISO 9000
B. ISO 7000
C. ISO 15189
D. ISO 15436
C
- Specimens from patients receiving treatment for urinary tract infections frequently appear:
A. Clear and red
B. Viscous and orange
C. Dilute and pale yellow
D. Cloudy and red - Specimens containing _________ produce a yellow foam when shaken, which could be mistaken for bilirubin.
A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
B. Phenindione
C. Methyldopa
D. Metronidazole (Flagyl) - PLEASE REFER TO STRASINGER
Anticoagulant, orange in alkaline urine, colorless in acid urine.
A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
B. Phenindione
C. Methyldopa
D. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B, A, B
LABORATORY CORRELATION OF URINE COLOR
Argyrol an antiseptic, black urine color disappears with:
A. Acetic acid
B. Ethanol
C. Ferric chloride
D. Sodium hydroxide
C
- NRL for Dengue, Influenza, Tuberculosis and other Mycobacteria, Malaria and other parasites, Bacterial enteric diseases, Measles and other Viral exanthems, Mycology, Enteroviruses, Antimicrobial resistance and Emerging Diseases; NRL for confirmatory testing of blood units.
A. RITM
B. EAMC
C. NKTI
D. SLH - NRL for HIV/AIDS, Hepatitis, Syphilis and other Sexually Transmitted Infections (STls)
A. RITM
B. EAMC
C. NKTI
D. SLH - NRL for Hematology including Immunohematology, Immunopathology and Anatomic Pathology:
A. RITM
B. EAMC
C. NKTI
D. SLH - NRL for Biochemistry:
A. EAMC
B. NKTI
C. SLH
D. LCP
A, D, C, D
National Reference Laboratory for Environmental and Occupational Health; Toxicology and Micronutrient Assay
A. RITM
B. San Lazaro Hospital
C. East Avenue Medical Center
D. Lung Center of the Philippines
C
It refers to the individual from whom a specimen for drug testing is collected.
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor/client
D
According to RA 9165, a person who knowingly and willfully consents to the unlawful acts and uses his/her influence, power or position in shielding, harboring, screening or facilitating the escape of any person he/she knows, or has reasonable grounds to believe on or suspects:
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor
C
Any person who sells, trades, administers, dispenses, delivers or gives away to another, on any terms whatsoever, or distributes, dispatches in transit or transports dangerous drugs or who acts as a broker in any of such transactions.
A. Practitioner
B. Pusher
C. Protector/coddler
D. Donor
B
Methylenedioxymethamphetamine (MDMA) or commonly known as:
A. Cannabis
B. Shabu
C. Meth
D. Ecstasy
D
- A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – Center for Health Development (CHD), whose main function is to collect blood from volunteer non-renumerated blood donors:
A. Blood Bank (BB)
B. Blood center (BC)
C. Blood collection unit (BCU)
D. Blood station (BS) - A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – CHD, whose main function is the storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and packed red cells:
A. Blood Bank (BB)
B. Blood center (BC)
C. Blood collection unit (BCU)
D. Blood station (BS) - A non-hospital-based blood service facility, licensed by DOH Bureau of Health Facilities and Services (BHFS), whose main function is to process blood units into blood components and testing these units for five (5) infectious disease markers:
A. Blood Bank (BB)
B. Blood center (BC)
C. Blood collection unit (BCU)
D. Blood station (BS)
C, D, B
- An Act Regulating the Collection, Processing and Sale of Human Blood, and the Establishment and Operation of Blood Banks and Blood Processing Laboratories
A. RA 5527
B. RA 1517
C. RA 7719
D. RA 8504 - AN ACT PROMOTING VOLUNTARY BLOOD DONATION, PROVIDING FOR AN ADEQUATE SUPPLY OF SAFE BLOOD, REGULATING BLOOD BANKS
A. RA 5527
B. RA 1517
C. RA 7719
D. RA 8504
B, C
A drug test is valid for _________.
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
C
Whenever the drug testing laboratory result is challenged, _______ shall make the final decision.
A. Crime laboratory of PNP
B. Crime laboratory of NBI
C. East Avenue Medical Center
D. San Lazaro Hospital
C
Primum non nocere comes from the Hippocratic Oath and means:
A. Do first things first.
B. First do no harm.
C. Quality is foremost.
D. Ready to serve.
B
- Aspects of this principle:
Providing benefits
Balancing benefits and risks/harms
This principle supports the following moral rules or obligations:
Protect and defend the rights of others
Prevent harm from occurring to others
Remove conditions that will cause harm
Help persons with disabilities
Rescue persons in danger
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice - This principle holds that there is an obligation not to inflict harm on others. It is closely associated with the maxim primum non nocere (first do no harm). This principle supports the following rules:
Do not kill
Do not cause pain or suffering
Do not incapacitate
Do not cause offense
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice
B, C
RESPECT the decisions (self-determination) of individuals who have decision-making capacity.
A. Autonomy
B. Beneficence
C. Non-maleficence
D. Justice
A
Subject to RANDOM drug test:
A. Applicants for firearm’s license
B. Officers and members of the military, police and other law enforcers
C. Candidates for public office whether appointed or elected both in the national or local government
D. Students of secondary and tertiary schools
D
- A hormone which regulates water reabsorption in the collecting duct:
A. Aldosterone
B. Antidiuretic hormone
C. Growth hormone
D. Prolactin - A system that stimulates water reabsorption by the collecting tubules:
A. ADH
B. RAAS
C. Growth hormone
D. Thyroid hormone
B, B
Part of the nephron that functions as SIEVE:
A. Glomerulus
B. Proximal convoluted tubule
C. Loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule
A
The test most commonly associated with tubular secretion and renal blood flow is the:
A. Creatinine clearance
B. Inulin clearance
C. Fishberg and Mosenthal test
D. p-aminohippuric acid (PAH) test
D
- Specific gravity of 1.022 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose - Specific gravity of 1.034 ± 0.001:
A. Distilled water
B. 3% NaCl
C. 5% NaCl
D. 9% sucrose
C, D
Phenol derivatives found in certain intravenous medications produce ______urine on oxidation.
A. Yellow
B. Orange
C. Green
D. Purple
C
In three-glass urine collection to detect the presence of prostatitis, which tube(s) serves as control for bladder and kidney infection:
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. First and third
B
All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:
A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable lab coats
D. Blood collection tubes
A
First function affected in renal disease:
A. Glomerular filtration
B. Tubular reabsorption
C. Tubular secretion
D. None of these
B
A lack of any urine odor may indicate:
A. Acute tubular necrosis
B. Isovaleric acidemia
C. Methionine malabsorption
D. Phenylketonuria
A
In the urinalysis laboratory the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste
C
The primary chemical affected by the renin-angiotensin- aldosterone system is:
A. Chloride
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Hydrogen
B
Antidiuretic hormone regulates the reabsorption of
A. Water in the collecting tubules
B. Sodium in the collecting tubules
C. Sodium in the distal convoluted tubule
D. Water and sodium in the loop of Henle
A
All of the following are reabsorbed by active transport in the tubules except:
A. Urea
B. Glucose
C. Sodium
D. Chloride
A
Urine clarity grading: “few particulates, print easily seen through urine”
A. Clear
B. Hazy
C. Cloudy
D. Turbid
B
SSA turbidity: “Turbidity with granulation and flocculation”
A. 1+
B. 2+
C. 3+
D. 4+
C
REAGENT PAD reading time: 30 seconds
A. Bilirubin
B. Ketones
C. Specific gravity
D. pH
A
Alkaline urine:
A. Meat
B. Cranberry
C. Vegetables
D. All of these
C
A urine specimen with a pH of 9:
A. Indicates metabolic acidosis
B. Should be recollected
C. May contain calcium oxalate crystals
D. Is seen after drinking cranberry juice
B
Drug associated with rhabdomyolysis:
A. Chloramphenicol
B. Penicillin
C. Statins
D. Aspirin
C
Chemical test in urine that requires patients on diet that contains green vegetables:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Urobilinogen
D. Nitrite
D
- The most frequent parasite encountered in the urine:
A. Schistosoma haematobium
B. Trichomonas vaginalis
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. Giardia lamblia - Fecal contamination of a urine specimen can also result in the presence of ova from intestinal parasites in the urine sediment. The most common contaminant is:
A. Schistosoma japonicum ovum
B. Schistosoma haematobium ovum
C. Enterobius vermicularis ovum
D. Giardia lamblia trophozoite
B, C
- Precursor cell of oval fat bodies:
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Transitional epithelial cells
D. Renal tubular epithelial cells - Precursor cell of bubble cells:
Bubble cells appear to represent injured cells in which the endoplasmic reticulum has dilated prior to cell death.
A. Neutrophils
B. Eosinophils
C. Transitional epithelial cells
D. Renal tubular epithelial cells - Oval fat bodies are associated with:
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis - Bubble cells are associated with:
A. Liver cirrhosis
B. Nephrotic syndrome
C. Acute pyelonephritis
D. Acute tubular necrosis
D, D, B, D
Pathologically, these casts are increased in congestive heart failure:
A. Hyaline cast
B. Granular cast
C. Cellular cast
D. Waxy cast
A
- Glitter cells in KOVA stain (Sternheimer-Malbin)
A. Cannot be stained
B. Pink
C. Purple
D. Light blue - Sternheimer-Malbin stain produces a ____ color in hyaline casts.
A. Blue
B. Green
C. Pink
D. Orange-red
D, C
- Cetyltrimethylammonium bromide (CTAB) test:
A. Homogentisic acid, transient blue
B. Mucopolysaccharides, blue spot
C. Mucopolysaccharides, white turbidity
D. PKU, blue-green color - Positive result in the metachromatic staining procedure for mucopolysaccharides:
A. White turbidity
B. Yellow turbidity
C. Blue spot
D. Red spot
C, C
LEUKOCYTE ESTERASE +
Esterases also are present in which parasite?
A. Enterobius
B. Giardia
C. Schistosoma
D. Trichomonas
D
STERNHEIMER-MALBIN (KOVA/SEDI-STAIN)
1. Blood (hemoglobin) casts in Sedi-stain:
A. Pink
B. Pale purple
C. Orange-red
D. Light blue-green
- Trichomonas in Sedi-stain:
A. Pink
B. Pale purple
C. Orange-red
D. Light blue-green
C, D
Principle of Micral test:
A. Agglutination
B. Enzyme immunoassay
C. Immunochromatography
D. Radioimmunoassay
B
Bence Jones protein precipitates at temperatures between ___, and redissolves at near ___ ° C.
A. Precipitates at 100-120C, and redissolves at 60C
B. Precipitates at 10 to 20C, and redissolves at 100C
C. Precipitates at 80-100C, and redissolves at 60C
D. Precipitates at 40 to 60C, and redissolves at 100C
D
Patients should avoid banana, pineapples and tomatoes when testing for:
A. 5-HIAA
B. Mucopolysaccharides
C. Phenylalanine
D. Melanin
A
Genetic disorder showing lamellated and THINNING glomerular basement membrane:
A. Alport syndrome
B. Membranous glomerulonephritis
C. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
D. Minimal change disease
A
Anti–glomerular basement antibody is seen with:
A. Wegener’s granulomatosis
B. IgA nephropathy
C. Goodpasture’s syndrome
D. Diabetic nephropathy
C
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibody (c-ANCA):
A. Associated with multiple myeloma
B. Marker for Wegener’s granulomatosis
C. Characteristic of untreated systemic lupus erythematosus
D. Diagnostic of Dressler’s syndrome or rheumatic fever
B
Sperms in urine:
A. Do not report
B. Averaged per LPF
C. Averaged per HPF
D. Present, according to lab protocol
D
- Largest cell in urine sediment:
A. Squamous epithelial cells
B. Transitional epithelial cells
C. Renal tubular epithelial cells
D. None of these - Largest RTE cells originate from the:
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Distal collecting tubule
C. Collecting duct
D. None of these
A, A
- RTE cell from the proximal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these - RTE cell from the distal convoluted tubules:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these - RTE cells from the collecting duct:
A. Columnar or convoluted
B. Cuboidal
C. Round or oval
D. None of these
A, C, B
Cholesterol crystals are soluble in:
A. Ammonia
B. Chloroform
C. Dilute HCl
D. Acetic acid
B
URINE CLARITY
Many particulates, print blurred through urine:
A. Hazy
B. Cloudy
C. Turbid
D. Milky
B
Which urine specimen has the highest actual specific gravity?
A. Undiluted urine with a reading of 1.035
B. Diluted urine 1:2 with a reading of 1.025
C. Diluted urine 1:5 with a reading of 1.008
D. Same specific gravities
B
Hemoglobin in urine can be differentiated from myoglobin using:
A. 80% ammonium sulfate to precipitate hemoglobin
B. o-Dianisidine instead of benzidine as the color indicator
C. Sodium dithionite to reduce hemoglobin
D. Microscopic exam
A
BLOOD REAGENT PAD
1. UNIFORM/HOMOGENOUS green to a strongly positive green-blue appears on the blood reagent pad:
Hematuria
Hemoglobinuria
Myoglobinuria
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
- SPECKLED pattern on the blood reagent pad:
A. Hematuria
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Myoglobinuria
D. All of these
C, A
- Volume of urine for urinometry:
A. 1 to 2 drops
B. 1 to 2 mL
C. 3 to 5 mL
D. 10 to 15 mL - Volume of urine for refractometry:
A. 1 to 2 drops
B. 1 to 2 mL
C. 3 to 5 mL
D. 10 to 15 mL
D, A
Which of these sugars cannot be detected in urine using the copper reduction test?
A. Fructose
B. Galactose
C. Arabinose
D. Sucrose
D
Sucrose is considered a disaccharide that on hydrolysis yields which of the following sugars?
A. Glucose
B. Galactose and glucose
C. Maltose and glucose
D. Fructose and glucose
D
The following urinalysis biochemical results were obtained from a 4-month-old infant who experienced vomiting and diarrhea after milk ingestion and failed to gain weight:
pH: 6
Protein: negative
Glucose: negative
Ketone: negative
Bilirubin: negative
Clinitest: 2+
These results are clinically significant in which of the following disorders?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Ketosis
C. Starvation
D. Galactosemia
D
Which of the following tests is affected least by standing or improperly stored urine?
A. Glucose
B. Protein
C. pH
D. Bilirubin
B
In renal tubular acidosis, the pH of urine is:
A. Consistently acid
B. Consistently alkaline
C. Neutral
D. Variable, depending upon diet
B
The normal renal threshold for glucose is:
A. 70 to 85 mg/dL
B. 100 to 115 mg/dL
C. 130 to 145 mg/dL
D. 165 to 180 mg/dL
D
Urine sediment characterized by pyuria with bacterial and WBC casts indicates:
A. Nephrotic syndrome
B. Pyelonephritis
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Cystitis
B
The presence of tyrosine and leucine crystals together in a urine sediment usually indicates:
A. Renal failure
B. Chronic liver disease
C. Hemolytic anemia
D. Hartnup disease
B
Which of the following conditions is associated with the greatest proteinuria?
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Chronic glomerulonephritis
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Acute pyelonephritis
C
Following a head injury, which protein will identify the presence of CSF leakage through the nose?
A. Transthyretin
B. Myelin basic protein
C. Tau protein
D. C-reactive protein
C
Which of the following conditions is commonly associated with an EXUDATIVE EFFUSION?
A. Congestive heart failure
B. Malignancy
C. Nephrotic syndrome
D. Cirrhosis
B
Which is the reference method for determining fetal lung maturity?
A. Human placental lactogen
B. L/S ratio
C. Amniotic fluid bilirubin
D. Urinary estriol
B
What is the most common cause of male infertility?
A. Mumps
B. Klinefelter’s syndrome
C. Varicocele
D. Malignancy
C
Which carbohydrate measurement is clinically useful when performing a seminal fluid analysis?
A. Glucose
B. Galactose
C. Fructose
D. Maltose
C
Which of the following is commonly associated with occult blood?
A. Colon cancer
B. Atrophic gastritis
C. Pernicious anemia
D. Pancreatitis
A
Classic web-like pellicle is associated with ____________ meningitis and can be seen after overnight refrigeration of the fluid.
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Fungal meningitis
C. Tubercular meningitis
D. Viral meningitis
C
These cells are elevated in BAL of CIGARETTE SMOKERS, in cases of bronchopneumonia, toxin exposure and diffuse alveolar damage:
A. Eosinophils
B. Lymphocytes
C. Mast cells
D. Neutrophils
D
The most frequently seen cell in a BAL is:
A. Bronchial epithelial cell
B. Lymphocyte
C. Macrophage
D. Neutrophil
C
A listless 12-month-old boy with a fever of 103°F was taken to the emergency department. He had been diagnosed with an ear infection 3 days earlier. A spinal tap was performed, but only one tube of CSF was obtained from the lumbar puncture. The single tube of CSF should be submitted first to which department?
A. Chemistry
B. Microbiology
C. Hematology
D. Cytology/Histology
B
- Amniotic fluid specimens are placed in amber-colored tubes prior to sending them to the laboratory to prevent the destruction of:
A. Alpha-fetoprotein
B. Bilirubin
C. Cells for cytogenetics
D. Lecithin - Why are amniotic specimens for cytogenetic analysis incubated at 37°C prior to analysis?
A. To detect the presence of meconium
B. To differentiate amniotic fluid from urine
C. To prevent photo-oxidation of bilirubin to biliverdin
D. To prolong fetal cell viability and integrity - Specimens for FLM testing are delivered to and stored in the laboratory:
A. Delivered on ice and refrigerated
B. Immediately centrifuged
C. Kept at room temperature
D. Delivered in a vacuum tube
B, D, A
AMNIOTIC FLUID BILIRUBIN
Max absorbance of bilirubin and oxyhemoglobin (interference).
A. Bilirubin 450 nm, oxyhemoglobin 540 nm
B. Bilirubin 540 nm, oxyhemoglobin 450 nm
C. Bilirubin 450 nm, oxyhemoglobin 410 nm
D. Bilirubin 410 nm, oxyhemoglobin 450 nm
C
Responsible for the amniotic fluid increase in absorbance at 650 nm:
A. Lecithin
B. Oxyhemoglobin
C. Bilirubin
D. Lamellar bodies
D
CSF GLUTAMINE
Measurement of which of the following can be replaced by CSF glutamine analysis in children with Reye syndrome?
A. Ammonia
B. Lactate
C. Glucose
D. Alpha-ketoglutarate
A
CSF must be _____ if a delay in CELL COUNTING is anticipated:
A. Frozen
B. Incubated at 37 oC
C. Maintained at room temperature
D. Refrigerated
D
To assess the permeability of the blood/brain barrier (BBB), the CSF level of which of the following proteins will be measured by the laboratory?
A. Albumin
B. IgG
C. Transferrin
D. Prealbumin
A
Second most prevalent protein in CSF:
A. Ceruloplasmin
B. Haptoglobin
C. Prealbumin
D. Transferrin
C
The most common composition of renal calculi is:
A. Calcium oxalate
B. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
C. Cystine
D. Uric acid
A
The hormone aldosterone is responsible for:
A. Hydrogen ion secretion
B. Potassium secretion
C. Chloride retention
D. Sodium retention
D
- PRC function:
Administers, implements, and enforce the laws and policies with respect to the regulation and licensing of the various professions and occupations, including the enhancement and maintenance of professional and occupational standards and ethics.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi- Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these - PRC function:
Investigates motu proprio or upon the filing of a verified complaint, any registered professional, any member of the professional regulatory boards, officers and employees under the jurisdiction of the Commission; Issues summons, subpoena and subpoena duces tecum; May hold in contempt erring party or person; May revoke or suspend certificates of registration and professional licenses.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi- Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these - PRC function:
Formulates rules and policies on professional regulation. Reviews, revises and approves resolutions embodying policies promulgated by the Professional Regulatory Boards.
A. Quasi-Legislative
B. Quasi- Judicial
C. Executive
D. None of these
C, B, A
PLEURAL FLUID APPEARANCE:
1. Brown pleural fluid:
A. Hemothorax
B. Microbial infection
C. Malignant mesothelioma
D. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess
- Black pleural fluid
A. Aspergillus infection
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous material from thoracic duct leakage
D. Pseudochylous material from chronic inflammation
D, A
A pleural fluid submitted to the laboratory is milky in appearance. Which test would be most useful in differentiating between a chylous and pseudochylous effusion?
A. Fluid to serum triglyceride ratio
B. Fluid WBC count
C. Fluid total protein
D. Fluid to serum LD ratio
A
- Pleural fluid triglycerides <50 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion - Pleural fluid triglycerides >110 mg/dL:
A. Hemothorax
B. Hemorrhagic effusion
C. Chylous effusion
D. Pseudochylous effusion
D, C
Stool specimens that appear ribbon-like are indicative of which condition?
A. Bile-duct obstruction
B. Colitis
C. Intestinal constriction
D. Malignancy
C
Positive result for the guaiac test for fecal occult blood:
A. Green
B. Blue
C. Purple
D. Red
B
No clearing of gelatin in the x-ray film test, indicates lack of which enzyme?
A. Gastrin
B. Trypsin
C. Pepsin
D. Elastase
B
A clean-catch urine is submitted to the laboratory for routine urinalysis and culture. The routine urinalysis is done first, and 3 hours later, the specimen is sent to the microbiology department for culture. The specimen should:
A. Be centrifuged, and the supernatant cultured
B. Be rejected due to the time delay
C. Not be cultured if no bacteria are seen
D. Be processed for culture only if the nitrate is positive
B
A 24-hour urine from a man who had no evidence of kidney impairment was sent to the laboratory for hormone determination. The volume was 600 mL, but there was some question as to the completeness of the 24-hour collection. The next step would be to:
A. Perform the hormone determination, since 600 mL is a normal 24-hour urine volume
B. Check the creatinine level; if it is <1 g, do the procedure
C. Report the hormone determination in mg/dL in case the specimen was incomplete
D. Check the creatinine level; if it is >1 g, do the procedure
D
A patient with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus will most likely have:
A. Pale urine with a high specific gravity
B. Pale urine with a low specific gravity
C. Concentrated urine with a high specific gravity
D. dark urine with a high specific gravity
A
A patient’s urinalysis revealed a positive bilirubin and a decreased urobilinogen level. These results are associated with:
A. Hemolytic disease
B. Biliary obstruction
C. Hepatic disease
D. Urinary tract infection
B
A urine specimen with an elevated urobilinogen and a negative bilirubin may indicate:
A. Obstruction of the biliary tract
B. Viral hepatitis
C. Hemolytic jaundice
D. Cirrhosis
C
An eosinophil count may be requested on urine from a patient with suspected:
A. Acute glomerulonephritis
B. Cystitis
C. Renal lithiasis
D. Acute interstitial nephritis
D
Which of the following aids in differentiating a spherical transitional cell from a round renal tubular cell?
A. Spherical transitional cell is larger
B. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the renal tubular cell
C. Eccentrically-placed nucleus in the spherical transitional cell
D. Round renal tubular cell is larger
B
Which of the following casts most frequently appears to have a brittle consistency?
A. Hyaline
B. Granular
C. Waxy
D. Fatty
C
Following ingestion of ethylene glycol (antifreeze) numerous crystals are found in the urine. The shape of these crystals is:
A. Flat with notched corners
B. Oval, dumbbell
C. Coffin-lid
D. Rosettes, rhomboid
B
Amniotic fluid is evaluated using a Liley graph and change in absorbance at 450 nm. What is being evaluated, and why?
A. Bilirubin, which increases in HDN
B. AFP, which increases in spina bifida
C. HCG, which increases in Down syndrome
D. Lamellar bodies, which increase with fetal lung maturity
A
What calculation is used to determine if there is a breach in the blood-brain barrier?
A. IgG index
B. CSF/serum albumin index
C. Fluid/serum LD ratio
D. Albumin gradient
B
Which pair does NOT match with respect to amniotic fluid?
A. Colorless – normal
B. Dark red-brown – fetal death
C. Dark green – hemolytic disease of the newborn
D. Blood-streaked – traumatic tap
C
CSF COLLECTION
To avoid falsely elevated spinal fluid cell counts:
A. Use an aliquot from the first tube collected
B. Use only those specimens showing no turbidity
C. Centrifuge all specimens before counting
D. Select an aliquot from the last tube collected
D
BACTERIA, WBC and WBC CASTS
The following urine results were obtained on a 25-year-old female:
pH: 7.0
Color: yellow
Appearance: cloudy
Protein: 1+
Glucose: negative
Blood: small
Specific gravity: 1.015
Microscopic findings:
Bacteria: many
WBC casts: 0 to 3/LPF
WBCs: 30 to 40/HPF
These results are most compatible with:
A. Glomerulonephritis
B. Renal calculus
C. Cystitis
D. Pyelonephritis
D
- JC Virus:
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Progressive multifocal leukoencaphalopathy
C. Keratoconjunctivitis
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis - BK Virus:
A. Hemorrhagic cystitis
B. Progressive multifocal leukoencaphalopathy
C. Keratoconjunctivitis
D. Lymphocytic choriomeningitis
B, A
Two months after a kidney transplant, a 47 y.o. man developed NEPHROPATHY. Up to 5% of renal allograft recipients develop nephropathy. A viral cause of some of the nephropathy cases has been identified as:
A. Polyomavirus BK
B. Human papillomavirus, all types
C. Human papillomavirus, low-risk types
D. Hepatitis C virus
E. Human cytomegalovirus
A
A urine sample is received in the laboratory with the appropriate custody control form, and a request for drug of abuse screening. Which test result would be cause for rejecting the sample?
A. Temperature after collection 95°F
B. pH 5.0
C. Specific gravity 1.005
D. Creatinine 5 mg/dL
D
All of the values listed are within the limits of an acceptable sample with the exception of creatinine. Temperature (90°F–100°F) pH (4.5–8.0), specific gravity (1.003–1.019), and creatinine (≥20 mg/dL).
When testing for drugs of abuse in urine, which of the following test results indicate dilution and would be cause for rejecting the sample?
A. Temperature upon sample submission 92°F
B. Specific gravity 1.002; Creatinine 15 mg/dL
C. pH 5.8; temperature 94°C
D. Specific gravity 1.012, creatinine 25 mg/dL
B
A specimen is too dilute for testing if the creatinine is below 20 mg/dL and specific gravity below 1.003. A sample is considered substituted if the creatinine is below 5.0 mg/dL and the specific gravity less than 1.002.
Which condition is most often associated with gastric ulcers
A. Cancer of the stomach
B. H. pylori infection
C. Zollinger–Ellison (Z–E) syndrome
D. Pernicious anemia
B
In which condition is the highest level of serum gastrin usually seen?
A. Atrophic gastritis
B. Pernicious anemia
C. Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
D. Cancer of the stomach
C
Which of the following semen analysis results is abnormal?
A. Volume 1.0 mL
B. Liquefaction 40 minutes at room temperature
C. pH 7.6
D. Motility 50% progressive movement
A
Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) is a progressive, disabling, and deadly brain disorder related to ______ infection.
A. Chickenpox (varicella)
B. Smallpox (variola major)
C. German measles (rubella)
D. Measles (rubeola)
D
- The minimum concentration of antimicrobial agent needed to prevent visually discernible growth of a bacterial or fungal suspension.
A. Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)
B. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
C. Both of these
D. None of these
- The minimum concentration of antimicrobial agent needed to yield a 99.9% reduction in viable colony-forming units of a bacterial or fungal suspension.
A. Minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)
B. Minimum inhibitory concentration (MIC)
C. Both of these
D. None of these
B, A
Noncultivatable nontuberculous Mycobacteria:
A. M. avium
B. M. chelonae
C. M. fortuitum
D. M. leprae
D
ssDNA virus, icosahedral capsid, no envelope:
A. Adenoviridae
B. Herpesviridae
C. Papovaviridae
D. Parvoviridae
D
In the foam or shake test, amniotic fluid is mixed with:
A. 1% NaOH
B. 3% acetic acid
C. 70% ethanol
D. 95% ethanol
D
A maximum of ___ mL of amniotic fluid is collected in sterile syringes.
A. 10 mL
B. 20 mL
C. 30 mL
D. 50 mL
C
Calibration of centrifuge ____; disinfection of centrifuge ____.
A. Monthly, weekly
B. Monthly, daily
C. Every 3 months, weekly
D. Every 3 months, daily
A
The concentration of myoglobin in the urine must be at least ___ before the red pigmentation can be visualized.
A. 10 mg/dL
B. 15 mg/dL
C. 20 mg/dL
D. 25 mg/dL
D
Of all the urine sediment elements, ___ are the MOST DIFFICULT TO RECOGNIZE.
A. Bacteria
B. Epithelial cells
C. RBCs
D. WBCs
C
It produces a THREE-DIMENSIONAL MICROSCOPY IMAGE and layer by-layer imaging of a specimen:
A. Bright-field microscope
B. Phase contrast microscope
C. Interference contrast microscope
D. Polarizing microscope
C
For POSTVASECTOMY SEMEN ANALYSIS, specimens are routinely tested:
A. Beginning at 1 month post-vasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
B. Beginning at 2 months post-vasectomy and continuing until two consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
C. Beginning at 2 months post-vasectomy and continuing until three consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
D. Beginning at 3 months post-vasectomy and continuing until three consecutive monthly specimens show no spermatozoa.
B
Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board of MT) EXCEPT:
A. Filipino citizen, good moral character
B. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
D. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two years prior to appointment
C
The chairman and members of the BOARD OF MT shall hold office for ___ year(s) after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified.
A. 1 year or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
B. 2 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
D. 5 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C
Yellow ground-glass colonies on cycloserine cefoxitin fructose agar (CCFA):
A. Bacillus anthracis
B. Bacillus cereus
C. Clostridium difficile
D. Clostridium perfringens
C
POPCORN
Qualification of BOARD EXAMINERS (Board of MT) EXCEPT:
A. Filipino citizen, good moral character
B. Qualified pathologist or duly RMTs
C. In practice of laboratory medicine or MT for at least five years prior to his appointment
D. Not a member of the faculty of any medical technology school for at least two years prior to appointment
C
POPCORN
The chairman and members of the BOARD OF MT shall hold office for ___ year(s) after appointments or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified.
A. 1 year or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
B. 2 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C. 3 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
D. 5 years or until their successors shall have been appointed and duly qualified
C
POPCORN
Urobilinogen is ______ and labile.
A. Colorless
B. Yellow
C. Green
D. Brown
A
POPCORN
Characteristics of a good fixative, EXCEPT:
A. It must be cheap, stable and safe to handle
B. It must permit rapid and even penetration of tissues
C. It must render the tissue sensitive to subsequent processing
D. It must inhibit bacterial decomposition and autolysis
C
POPCORN
It is recommended for fixing chromosomes, lymph glands and urgent biopsies:
A. Formalin
B. Bouin’s fluid
C. Carnoy’s fluid
D. Regaud (Moller’s) fluid
C
POPCORN
- Positive nitrite:
A. Gram-positive bacteria
B. Gram-negative bacteria
C. Random urine specimens
D. Heavy bacterial infections
- A positive nitrite test and a negative leukocyte esterase test is an indication of a:
A. Dilute random specimen
B. Specimen with lysed leukocytes
C. Vaginal yeast infection
D. Specimen older than 2 hours
B, D
POPCORN
Powdered anticoagulants should not be used for synovial fluid because they may produce artifacts that interfere with:
A. Cell count
B. Crystal analysis
C. Glucose analysis
D. Protein analysis
B
POPCORN
- Normal synovial fluid will be able to form ____ cm STRING.
A. 1 to 2 cm
B. 3 to 4 cm
C. 4 to 6 cm
D. 6 to 10 cm
- Hyaluronate polymerization can be measured using a ROPES, or MUCIN CLOT TEST. When added to a solution of 2% to 5% acetic acid, normal synovial fluid forms:
A. No clot
B. Friable clot
C. Soft clot
D. Solid clot surrounded by clear fluid
C, D
Calibration = Every 3 weeks
Disinfection = Weekly basis
POPCORN
Severe hemolysis and suggests a severely affected fetus. Intervention through induction of labor or intrauterine exchange transfusion must be considered.
A. Zone 1 of Liley graph
B. Zone 2 of Liley graph
C. Zone 3 of Liley graph
D. None of these
C
POPCORN
Amniotic fluid bilirubin is measured by:
A. Turbidimetric method
B. Dye-binding method
C. Spectrophotometric analysis
D. Fluorometric analysis
C
POPCORN
Family history of chromosome abnormalities, such as trisomy 21 (Down syndrome), amniocentesis may be indicated at:
A. 1 to 14 weeks
B. 15 to 18 weeks
C. 20 to 42 weeks
D. Any of these
B
POPCORN
With the two-slide qualitative fecal fat determination, the first slide produces a normal amount of staining fat present, whereas the second slide, following acid addition and heat, produces an abnormally increased amount of fat. These results indicate:
A. Malabsorption
B. Maldigestion
C. Parasitic infestation
D. Disaccharidase deficiency
A
POPCORN
When diluting a synovial fluid WBC count, all of the following are acceptable EXCEPT:
A. Acetic acid
B. Isotonic saline
C. Hypotonic saline
D. Saline with saponin
A
POPCORN
- Fluid: serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:
A. When malignancy is suspected
B. To classify transudates and exudates
C. To determine the type of serous fluid
D. When a traumatic tap has occurred
- The recommended test for determining whether PERITONEAL FLUID is a transudate or an exudate is the:
A. Fluid: serum albumin ratio
B. Serum:ascites albumin gradient
C. Fluid: serum lactic dehydrogenase ratio
D. Absolute neutrophil count
B, B
POPCORN
Which of the following tests is used to differentiate between an effusion caused by cirrhosis and one caused by peritonitis?
A. Absolute neutrophil count
B. Fluid-to–serum bilirubin ratio
C. Serum-ascites gradient
D. Serum to LD ratio
A
POPCORN
Round cells that are of concern and may be included in sperm counts and morphology analysis are:
A. Leukocytes
B. Spermatids
C. RBCs
D. Both A and B
D
POPCORN
- Low to absent fructose level in the semen:
A. Low sperm concentration
B. Low sperm motility
C. Low sperm viability
D. Presence of antisperm antibodies
- Specimens for fructose levels should be tested within 2 hours of collection or _______ to prevent fructolysis.
A. Refrigerated
B. Frozen
C. Incubated at 37C
D. Maintained at room temperature
- Specimens can be screened for the presence of fructose using the resorcinol test that produces an _______color when fructose is present.
A. Blue
B. Black
C. Green
D. Orange
A, B, D
POPCORN
- Living sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
- Dead sperm cells in the Modified Bloom’s test:
A. Unstained, bluish-white
B. Purple on a red background
C. Purple on a black background
D. Red on a purple background
A, D
POPCORN
Wet preparation for demonstration of fecal leukocytes:
A. Methylene blue
B. Gram stain
C. Wright’s stain
D. All of these
A
POPCORN
Number of orange-red fat droplets in direct fat stain indicative of steatorrhea:
A. Greater than 10/hpf
B. Greater than 50/hpf
C. Greater than 60/hpf
D. Greater than 100/hpf
C
POPCORN
- Most frequently performed chemical analysis on urine:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
- Most frequently performed chemical test on CSF:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
- Most frequently requested test in synovial fluid:
A. Protein
B. Glucose
C. Uric acid
D. Blood
B, A, B
POPCORN
Most frequently performed fecal analysis is the detection of:
A. Fats
B. Leukocytes
C. Occult blood
D. Carbohydrates
C
POPCORN
Positive lactoferrin agglutination test in patient stool:
A. Fecal fats - steatorrhea
B. Fecal occult blood - colorectal cancer
C. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Vibrio
D. Fecal leukocytes - diarrhea caused by Salmonella
D
POPCORN
Sensitivity of Multistix albumin pad:
A. 10 to 14 mg/dL albumin
B. 15 to 30 mg/dL albumin
C. 20 to 30 mg/dL albumin
D. 45 to 50 mg/dL albumin
B
POPCORN
Sensitivity of the Multistix bilirubin reagent pad:
A. 0.1 to 0.5 mg/dL
B. 0.4 to 0.8 mg/dL
C. 4 to 8 mg/dL
D. 8 to 16 mg/dL
B
POPCORN
Excess CSF should be:
A. Discarded
B. Refrigerated
C. Frozen
D. Maintained at room temperature
C
POPCORN
A specimen delivered to the laboratory with a request for prostatic acid phosphatase and glycoprotein p30 was collected to determine:
A. Prostatic infection
B. Presence of antisperm antibodies
C. A possible rape
D. Successful vasectomy
C
