PRACTICE Flashcards
1
Q
- In the tolbutamide tolerance test, blood specimens are obtained for glucose and insulin before ________ of 1 g of a water-soluble form of tolbutamide and at 2, 15, 30, 60, 90, and 120 minutes afterwards.
a. Oral administration
b. Intramuscular injection
c. Intravenous injection
d. Sublingual administration
A
C
2
Q
- Current NCEP guidelines recommend patients be seated for how many minutes before sampling for cholesterol to prevent hemoconcentration:
a. 5 minutes
b. 10 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 20 minutes
A
A
3
Q
- A hormone which regulates water reabsorption in the collecting duct:
a. Aldosterone
b. Antidiuretic hormone
c. Growth hormone
d. Prolactin
A
B
4
Q
- A system that stimulates water reabsorption by the collecting duct:
a. ADH
b. RAAS
c. Growth hormone
d. Thyroid hormone
A
B
5
Q
- Most potent estrogen:
a. Estrone
b. Estradiol
c. Estriol
d. Testosterone
A
B
6
Q
- Which of the following is the most potent androgen?
a. Androstenedione
b. Dehydroepiandrosterone
c. Androsterone
d. Testosterone
A
D
7
Q
- When drawing a blood alcohol specimen, it is acceptable to clean the arm with:
a. Benzalkonium chloride
b. Isopropyl alcohol
c. Methanol prep
d. Tincture of iodine
A
A
8
Q
- Urine solute exhibiting diurnal variation:
a. Creatinine
b. Glucose
c. Nitrite
d. 17-hydroxysteroids
A
D
9
Q
- Blood specimen for the creatinine clearance is collected:
a. At the start of the urine collection period
b. At the end of the urine collection period
c. At about 12 hours into urine collection period
d. Any time during the urine collection period
A
C
10
Q
- Reflectance photometry uses the principle that light reflection from the test pads _________ in proportion to the intensity of color produced by the concentration of the test substance.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Variable
d. Undetermined
A
B
11
Q
- Black pleural fluid:
a. Hemothorax
b. Chylous material from thoracic duct leakage
c. Rupture of amoebic liver abscess
d. Aspergillus infection
A
D
12
Q
- Possible cause of bulky or frothy stool:
a. Lower GI bleeding
b. Upper GI bleeding
c. Intestinal constriction
d. Pancreatic disorder
A
D
13
Q
- Standard precautions state:
a. Handle only known HBV-positive or HIV-positive specimens as infectious
b. Personal protective equipment is required for only direct patient contact
c. Blood and body fluid precautions must be observed for all patients’ blood and body fluid specimens
d. Infectious specimens must be labeled with the biohazard symbol
A
C
14
Q
- The Biosafety Level that includes most common laboratory microorganisms and involves organisms such as HBV, HIV and enteric pathogens is:
a. BSL 1
b. BSL 2
c. BSL 3
d. BSL 4
A
B
15
Q
- A listless 12-month-old boy with a fever of 103°F was taken to the emergency department. He had been diagnosed with an ear infection 3 days earlier. A spinal tap was performed, but only one tube of CSF was obtained from the lumbar puncture. The single tube of CSF should be submitted first to which department?
a. Chemistry
b. Microbiology
c. Hematology
d. Cytology/Histology
A
B
16
Q
- Brown or green color surrounding the colony:
a. Alpha hemolysis
b. Beta hemolysis
c. Gamma hemolysis
d. Alpha prime hemolysis
A
A
17
Q
- Chocolate agar contains:
a. Chocolate
b. Clotted blood
c. Brown nutrient agar
d. Hemolyzed red blood cell
A
D
18
Q
- All of the following are differential media except:
a. Blood agar
b. Chocolate agar
c. MacConkey’s agar
d. Eosin methylene blue agar
A
B
19
Q
- Addition of egg yolk to nutritive media:
a. Basal medium
b. Enriched medium
c. Enrichment medium
d. Selective medium
A
B
20
Q
- Inhibitor of Mannitol Salt Agar:
a. Mannitol
b. Phenol red
c. Neutral red
d. Sodium chloride
A
D
21
Q
- Salmonella-Shigella (SS) Agar is a modification of:
a. BAP
b. CAP
c. DCA
d. EMB
A
C
22
Q
- Which method is most useful for confirmation that a culture isolate is Group B streptococcus?
a. Southern blotting
b. Polymerase chain reaction
c. Direct hybridization
d. Probe capture assay
A
C
23
Q
- Feather-edged colonies usually surrounded by zone of green discoloration; produces a highly characteristic, fruity odor resembling apples or strawberries:
a. Achromobacter denitrificans
b. Pseudomonas alcaligenes
c. Pseudomonas pseudoalcaligenes
d. Alcaligenes faecalis
A
D
24
Q
- A large, aerobic, beta-hemolytic, gram-positive rod is isolated from an eye culture. Subsequent testing reveals it is motile and produces a wide zone on egg yolk agar. The most likely identification of this organism is:
a. Bacillus anthracis
b. Escherichia coli
c. Bacillus cereus
d. Clostridium perfringens
A
C
25
25. Definitive host of Taenia saginata:
a. Cattle
b. Pig
c. Dog
d. Man
D
26
26. In infections with Taenia solium, humans can serve as the:
a. Definitive host
b. Intermediate host
c. Either the definitive or the intermediate host
d. None of these options
C
27
27. It is more frequent in populations living in conditions of poverty or poor hygiene, in day care centers, and in persons living in institutional settings or prisons.
a. Diphyllobothrium latum
b. Hymenolepis nana
c. Taenia saginata
d. Taenia solium
B
28
28. Skin pH that keeps most microorganisms from growing:
a. 5.6
b. 6.5
c. 7.2
d. 8.0
A
29
29. Which cell is the most potent phagocytic cell in tissue and the most effective at antigen presentation?
a. Neutrophil
b. Dendritic cell
c. Eosinophil
d. Basophil
B
30
30. It is used to treat hepatitis C and Kaposi’s sarcoma, as well as certain leukemias and lymphomas:
a. TNF-alpha
b. TNF-beta
c. IFN-alpha
d. IFN-beta
C
31
31. IgA in serum:
a. Monomer
b. Dimer
c. Pentamer
d. None of these
A
32
32. IgA in secretions:
a. Monomer
b. Dimer
c. Pentamer
d. None of these
B
33
33. A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ___ Todd units in an adult:
a. 166
b. 200
c. 240
d. 320
C
34
34. A single ASO titer is considered to be moderately elevated if the titer is at least ____ Todd units in a child:
a. 166
b. 200
c. 240
d. 320
D
35
35. This disease was endemic in Haiti and was subsequently contracted and CARRIED TO EUROPE by COLUMBUS CREW:
a. Gonorrhea
b. Syphilis
c. HIV
d. Tuberculosis
B
36
36. Which of the following serologic tests detects the polysaccharide capsule ANTIGEN in serum and CSF of patients with suspected infection with Cryptococcus neoformans?
a. Complement fixation
b. India ink test
c. Latex agglutination
d. Hemagglutination test
C
37
37. LATEX AGGLUTINATION for cryptococcal _____ is now recommended test for Cryptococcus neoformans.
a. Polysaccharide capsule
b. Antigen
c. Antibody
d. Nucleic acids
B
38
38. T in TORCH:
a. T cells
b. Terminal
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. Trichinosis
C
39
39. Humans have _____ chromosomes.
a. 2
b. 22
c. 23
d. 46
D
40
40. Humans have how many pairs of autosomes?
a. 22
b. 23
c. 44
d. 46
A
41
41. Stem cells are present in the first few hours after an ovum is fertilized; most versatile type of stem cell:
a. Multipotential stem cells
b. Pluripotential stem cells
c. Totipotential stem cells
d. Any of these
C
42
42. Stem cells present several days after fertilization, may develop into any cell type except they cannot develop into fetus:
a. Multipotential stem cells
b. Pluripotential stem cells
c. Totipotential stem cells
d. Any of these
B
43
43. Stem cells found in adults, but they are limited to specific types of cells to form tissues:
a. Multipotential stem cells
b. Pluripotential stem cells
c. Totipotential stem cells
d. Any of these
A
44
44. A unit of packed cells is split into 2 aliquots under closed sterile conditions at 8 AM. The expiration time for each aliquot is now:
a. 4 PM on the same day
b. 8 PM on the same day
c. AM the next morning
d. The original date of the unsplit unit
D
45
45. What would be the result of group A blood given to an O patient?
a. Nonimmune transfusion reaction
b. Immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
c. Delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction
d. Febrile nonhemolytic transfusion reaction
B
46
46. Conduct of practice is lacking in due care:
a. Negligence
b. Malpractice
c. Carelessness
d. Unprofessionalism
A
47
47. Sentinel event:
a. Insufficient specimen
b. Positive blood culture
c. Wrong medication
d. Surgery on wrong patient or body part
D
48
48. The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) involves three processes. Select the order in which these occur.
a. Extension → Annealing → Denaturation
b. Annealing → Denaturation → Extension
c. Denaturation → Annealing → Extension
d. Denaturation → Extension → Annealing
C
49
49. In the PCR cycle, how is denaturation accomplished?
a. Heat
b. Alkali treatment
c. Addition of sulfonylurea
d. Formamide
A
50
50. What is the unique characteristic of the DNA polymerase, Taq DNA polymerase, used in PCR?
a. It can be enzyme labeled
b. It is more efficient than eukaryotic polymerases
c. It is heat stable
d. It works with DNA of any species
C
51
51. In PCR testing, the initial step involves adding the DNA in question to a mixture of taq polymerase, excess nucleotides, MgCl2, and primers. This mixture is placed in which of the following instruments to allow the amplification to take place?
a. Flow cytometer
b. Capillary array sequencer
c. Thermal cycler
d. Electrophoresis chamber
C
52
Factor to convert immunoglobulin value from mg/dL to g/L
0.01
Immunoglobulin conversion factors:
mg/dL to g/L: 0.01
mg/dL to mg/L: 10
53
A substance that yield hydrogen or hydronium ion when dissolved in water:
A substance that can yield hydroxyl ions:
Combination of a weak acid or weak base; system that resists changes in pH:
‒ An ACID is a substance that can yield a HYDROGEN ion (H+) or
HYDRONIUM ion when dissolved in water.
‒ A BASE is a substance that can yield HYDROXYL ions (OH-).
‒ A BUFFER, the combination of a weak acid or weak base and its salt, is
a system that resists changes in pH.
54
Heparin is added ____ per mL of blood in each test tube.
0.2 mg per Ml
55
Detection and quantification of the separated protein after electrophoresis is
accomplished by:
‒ Amperometry
‒ Chromatography
‒ Coulometry
‒ Densitometry
Densitometry
56
It transports protein for thyroxine and triiodothyronine (thyroid hormones); it
also binds with retinol-binding protein to form a complex that transports
retinol (vitamin A):
‒ Albumin
‒ Haptoglobin
‒ Orosomucoid
‒ Prealbumin
Prealbumin
57
A low ___ level is a sensitive marker of poor nutritional status.
‒ Ceruloplasmin
‒ Hemopexin
‒ Prealbumin
‒ Transferrin
Prealbumin
58
Major roles of ______ is to maintain the equilibrium of cholesterol in
peripheral cells by the REVERSE CHOLESTEROL TRANSPORT pathway:
‒ Chylomicrons
‒ LDL
‒ VLDL
‒ HDL
HDL
59
Abetalipoproteinemia is also known as:
‒ Anderson’s disease
‒ Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
‒ Sitosterolemia
‒ Tangier disease
Bassen-Kornzweig syndrome
60
If left unprotected from light, bilirubin values may reduce by _____ per hour.
‒ 10 to 30%
‒ 30 to 50%
‒ 50 to 70%
‒ 70 to 90%
30 to 50%
61
Use of wetting agents or incorrect pH buffers ______ the amount of
unconjugated bilirubin:
‒ Decreases unconjugated bilirubin
‒ Increases unconjugated bilirubin
‒ Indeterminate
‒ No effect
Increases unconjugated bilirubin
62
ALP isoenzyme that will resist heat denaturation at 65°C for 30 minutes:
‒ Bone ALP
‒ Intestinal ALP
‒ Liver ALP
‒ Placental ALP
Placental ALP
63
Given the following results: ALP: marked increased; AST: slight increased;
ALT: slight increased; and GGT: marked increased. This is most consistent
with:
‒ Acute hepatitis
‒ Osteitis fibrosa
‒ Chronic hepatitis
‒ Obstructive jaundice
Obstructive jaundice
64
A physician orders several laboratory tests on a 55-year-old male patient who
is complaining of pain, stiffness, fatigue and headaches. Based on the
following serum test results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ALP:
significantly increased; GGT: normal
‒ Biliary obstruction
‒ Cirrhosis
‒ Hepatitis
‒ Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)
Osteitis deformans (Paget disease)
65
A 42-year-old male presents with anorexia, nausea, fever, and icterus of the
skin and mucous membranes. He noticed that his urine had appeared dark
for the past several days. The physician orders a series of biochemical tests.
Based on the following test results, what is the most likely diagnosis? ALP:
slightly elevated; ALT: markedly elevated; AST: markedly elevated; GGT:
slightly elevated; Serum total bilirubin: moderately elevated; Urine bilirubin:
positive; and Fecal urobilinogen: decreased
‒ Acute hepatitis
‒ Alcoholic cirrhosis
‒ Metastatic carcinoma of the pancreas
‒ Obstructive jaundice
Acute hepatitis
66
Assay methods for AST are generally based on the principle of the Karmen
method, which incorporates a coupled enzymatic reaction using:
‒ Glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase
‒ Glutamic pyruvic transaminase
‒ Lactate dehydrogenase
‒ Malate dehydrogenase
Malate dehydrogenase
67
The typical assay procedure for ALT consists of a coupled enzymatic reaction
using ____ as the indicator enzyme.
‒ Glutamic oxaloacetic transaminase
‒ Glutamic pyruvic transaminase
‒ Lactate dehydrogenase
‒ Malate dehydrogenase
Lactate dehydrogenase
68
LOW LEVELS of maternal AFP indicate an increased risk for:
‒ Anencephaly
‒ Down syndrome
‒ Presence of twins
‒ Spina bifida
Down syndrome
‒ Conditions associated with an elevated AFP level include spina bifida,
neural tube defects, abdominal wall defects, anencephaly (absence of
the major portion of the brain), and general fetal distress.
‒ Low levels of maternal AFP indicate an increased risk for Down
syndrome and trisomy 18, while it is increased in the presence of twins
and neural tube defects.
69
Which set of results is consistent with uncompensated metabolic acidosis?
‒ pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg
‒ pH 7.30 HCO3- 16 mmol/L pCO2 28 mm Hg
‒ pH 7.45 HCO3- 22 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
‒ pH 7.40 HCO3- 25 mmol/L pCO2 40 mm Hg
pH 7.25 HCO3- 15 mmol/L pCO2 37 mm Hg
70
Hirsutism, which can be quantified using a measurement technique known as
the:
‒ Ferriman-Gallwey scale
‒ Liley graph
‒ T-score
‒ Z-score
Ferriman-Gallwey scale
71
Decreased T3 and T4, increased TSH:
‒ Primary hypothyroidism
‒ Secondary hypothyroidism
‒ Primary hyperthyroidism
‒ Secondary hyperthyroidism
Primary hypothyroidism
72
Fluorophore-labeled thyroxine competes with patient thyroxine for antibody
in homogeneous system. Antibody-bound labeled thyroxine rotates slowly,
emitting lower energy light.
‒ Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
‒ Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
‒ Chemiluminescence
‒ Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)
Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
73
Fluorogenic substrate–labeled thyroxine competing with patient T4 for
antibody in a homogeneous assay. Only unbound, leftover labeled T4 reacts
with enzyme to form fluorescent product.
‒ Fluorescent polarization immunoassay (FPIA)
‒ Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
‒ Chemiluminescence
‒ Microparticle enzyme immunoassay (MEIA)
Fluorescent substrate-labeled inhibition immunoassay
74
The half-life of the circulating cocaine is: (Bishop)
‒ 0.5 to 1 hour
‒ 1 to 2 hours
‒ 2 to 3 hours
‒ 3 to 4 hours
0.5 to 1 hour
75
Water that is suitable for human consumption (i.e., water that can be used
for drinking or cooking):
‒ Boiled water
‒ Distilled water
‒ Filtered water
‒ Potable water
Potable water
76
In the laboratory, a program that monitors the TOTAL TESTING PROCESS with
the aim of providing the highest quality patient care:
‒ Quality assessment/assurance (QA)
‒ Quality control (QC)
‒ Quality systems (QS)
‒ None of these
Quality assessment/assurance (QA)
77
In an institution, a COMPREHENSIVE PROGRAM in which all areas of
operation are monitored to ensure quality with the aim of providing the
highest quality patient care:
‒ Quality assessment
‒ Quality assurance
‒ Quality control
‒ Quality systems
Quality systems
78
The methodology for a Lean Six Sigma quality improvement team will include
consideration of all of the following factors EXCEPT:
‒ Define
‒ Measure
‒ Analyze
‒ Improve
‒ Communicate
Communicate
79
Project team members:
‒ Black belts
‒ Green belts
‒ Blue belts
‒ White belts
Green belts
‒ The three most common team roles are the project coaches/leaders
(black belts), project team members (green belts), and project sponsors
(blue belts).
80
Green belts contribute ____ of their time to improvement projects while
delivering their normal job functions.
‒ 20%
‒ 40%
‒ 60%
‒ 100%
20%
‒ Black belts dedicate 100% of their time to quality improvement
projects, proactively addressing process and quality problems.
‒ Green belts contribute 20% of their time to improvement projects while
delivering their normal job functions.
81
Most effective at reducing hazards:
‒ PPE
‒ Administrative controls
‒ Engineering controls
‒ Substitution
‒ Elimination
Elimination
82
In the hierarchy of controls, arrange the following from the least effective to the most effective:
PPE, administrative controls, engineering controls, substitution, elimination
83
Duplication of DNA:
Synthesis of RNA from a DNA template:
Synthesis of protein:
‒ Replication
‒ Transcription
‒ Translation
84
Which one of the following specimen requests is acceptable?
‒ Feces submitted for anaerobic culture
‒ Foley catheter tip submitted for aerobic culture
‒ Rectal swab submitted for direct smear for gonococci
‒ Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli
Urine for culture of acid-fast bacilli
85
Which of the following is the most appropriate method for collecting a urine
specimen from a patient with an indwelling catheter?
‒ Remove the catheter, cut the tip, and submit it for culture
‒ Disconnect the catheter from the bag, and collect urine from the
terminal end of the catheter
‒ Collect urine directly from the bag
‒ Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
Aspirate urine aseptically from the catheter tubing
86
In thioglycolate broth, strictly aerobic organisms:
‒ Grow throughout the broth
‒ Grow toward the top of the broth
‒ Grow in the bottom of the broth
‒ Demonstrate flocculation
Grow toward the top of the broth
87
In thioglycollate broth, these organisms will grow slightly below the surface
where oxygen concentrations are lower than atmospheric concentrations:
‒ Obligate aerobes
‒ Obligate anaerobes
‒ Facultative anaerobes
‒ Microareophilic organisms
Microareophilic organisms
88
Susceptibility testing performed on quality control organisms using a new
media lot number yielded zone sizes that were too large for all antibiotics
tested. The testing was repeated using media from a previously used lot
number, and all zone sizes were acceptable. Which of the following best
explains the unacceptable zone sizes?
‒ The antibiotic disks were not stored with the proper desiccant
‒ The depth of the media was too thick
‒ The depth of the media was too thin
‒ The antibiotic disks were not properly applied to the media
The depth of the media was too thin
89
After satisfactory performance of daily disk diffusion susceptibility quality
control is documented, the frequency of quality control can be reduced to:
‒ Twice a week
‒ Every week
‒ Every other week
‒ Every month
Every week
90
An isolate of Staphylococcus aureus was cultured from an ulcer obtained
from the leg of a diabetic 79-year-old female patient. The organism showed
resistance to methicillin. Additionally, this isolate should be tested for
resistance or susceptibility to:
‒ Erythromycin
‒ Gentamicin
‒ Vancomycin
‒ Kanamycin
Vancomycin
91
Which test is used for the determination of inducible clindamycin resistance
in staphylococci and streptococci?
‒ E-test
‒ D-zone test
‒ A-test
‒ CAMP test
D-zone test
Even though clindamycin and erythromycin are in different classes, the mechanisms of resistance are similar. The presence of erythromycin can induce clindamycin resistance. The D-zone test is used to detect the presence of this inducible resistance
92
The D-zone susceptibility test is used to test inducible resistance on S. aureus
strains demonstrating an initial antibiotic susceptibility profile of:
‒ Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin sensitive
‒ Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin sensitive
‒ Erythromycin resistant, clindamycin resistant
‒ Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant
Erythromycin sensitive, clindamycin resistant
93
Resistance to clindamycin can be induced in vitro by:
‒ Ampicillin
‒ Erythromycin
‒ Gentamicin
‒ Penicillin
Erythromycin
94
Greater than 100,000 CFU/mL of a gram-negative bacilli were isolated on MacConkey from a urine specimen. Biochemical results are as follows:
Glucose: acid, gas produced; Indole: negative; urea: positive; H2S: positive. The organism is most likely:
‒ Morganella morganii
‒ Proteus vulgaris
‒ Proteus mirabilis
‒ Providencia stuartii
Proteus mirabilis
95
A 64-year-old male with lymphoma has a positive blood culture at 18 hours incubation. The organism is a non-lactose fermenting gram-negative bacillus on MacConkey agar. Further testing gives the following reactions: oxidase: negative; motility: positive; TSI: alkaline/acid, no hydrogen sulfide; indole: positive; VP: positive; citrate: positive; urea: positive; phenylalanine deaminase: positive; ornithine decarboxylase: negative. The genus is:
‒ Morganella
‒ Proteus
‒ Providencia
‒ Serratia
Providencia
96
A community hospital microbiology laboratory is processing significant
numbers of stool cultures because of an outbreak of diarrhea following heavy
rains and flooding in the country. A media that should be incorporated in the
plating protocol is:
‒ Colistin nalidixic acid for Listeria
‒ MacConkey agar with sorbitol for Campylobacter
‒ Mannitol salt agar for Enterococcus species
‒ Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species
Thiosulfate citrate bile salts sucrose for Vibrio species
97
Vibrio can be collected and transported in:
‒ Cary-Blair medium
‒ Buffered glycerol saline
‒ Both of these
‒ None of these
Cary-Blair medium
98
A branching gram-positive, partially acid-fast organism is isolated from a bronchial washing on a 63-year-old woman receiving chemotherapy. The organism does not hydrolyze casein, tyrosine or xanthine. The most likely
identification is:
‒ Actinomadura madurae
‒ Streptomyces somaliensis
‒ Nocardia caviae
‒ Nocardia asteroids
Nocardia asteroids
99
Identify the organism with these characteristics: round elementary body, positive for glycogen-containing inclusions, susceptible to sulfonamides:
‒ Chlamydophila pneumoniae
‒ Chlamydophila psittaci
‒ Chlamydia trachomatis
‒ Orientia tsutsugamushi
Chlamydia trachomatis
100
Identify the organism with these characteristics: round elementary body, negative for glycogen-containing inclusions, resistant to sulfonamides:
‒ Chlamydophila pneumoniae
‒ Chlamydophila psittaci
‒ Chlamydia trachomatis
‒ Orientia tsutsugamushi
Chlamydophila psittaci
101
Culture plate is placed on its own shelf inside the incubator, which provides for a homogeneous atmosphere and efficient thermal conductivity in the incubator to bring the culture plate up to optimal conditions faster:
‒ Dry-heat oven
‒ Humidity incubator
‒ Smart incubator
‒ Orbital shaking incubator
Smart incubator
102
Recognized as a low-temperature incubator or refrigerated incubator:
‒ Agitator
‒ Bioreactor
‒ BOD
‒ Dry-heat oven
BOD
103
All of the following terms may be used to describe fungal colonial TOPOGRAPHY, except:
‒ Glabrose
‒ Rugose
‒ Umbonate
‒ Verrucose
Glabrose
‒ Characteristic colonial morphology of fungi includes topography (rugose, umbonate, verrucose), texture (cottony, velvety, glabrous, granular, wooly) and surface described (front, reverse).
104
Added to SDA to inhibit most contaminating bacteria:
‒ Dextrose
‒ Chloramphenicol
‒ Cycloheximide
‒ Nystatin
Chloramphenicol
105
Added to SDA to inhibit saprophytic fungi:
Cycloheximide
106
Energy source in SDA:
‒ Dextrose (glucose)
‒ Peptone
‒ Chloramphenicol
‒ Cycloheximide
Dextrose (glucose)
107
Hair, nail and skin scrapings for fungal culture:
‒ Wipe with soap and water
‒ Wipe with 70% alcohol
‒ Wipe with KOH
‒ Do not wipe affected area
Wipe with 70% alcohol
‒ HAIR: Collect hairs with intact shaft
‒ NAILS: Send clippings of affected area
‒ SKIN: Scrape skin at leading edge of lesion
‒ Transport to the laboratory within 72 hours/room temperature
108
Number of stool specimens collected for ova and parasite examination (O&P):
3
‒ OUTPATIENTS: Every other day at a minimum
‒ INPATIENTS: Daily specimens collected for 3 days
109
Specimens are more likely to contain trophozoites and should be examined within 30 minutes of passage:
‒ Liquid/diarrheic stool
‒ Soft stool
‒ Formed stool
‒ None of these
Liquid/diarrheic stool
110
May contain both trophozoites and cysts:
‒ Liquid stool
‒ Diarrheic stool
‒ Soft stool
‒ Formed stool
Soft stool
111
Soil-transmitted helminth:
‒ Ascaris lumbricoides
‒ Enterobius vermicularis
‒ Strongyloides stercoralis
‒ Wuchereria bancrofti
Ascaris lumbricoides
112
The eggs of Trichostrongylus are very similar to those of:
‒ Ascaris
‒ Enterobius
‒ Trichuris
‒ Hookworms
Hookworms
113
The worms are incapable of maturation within the human host and migrate
aimlessly, causing tissue damage and inflammation:
‒ Echinococcus granulosus
‒ Gnathostoma spinigerum
‒ Taenia solium
‒ Trichinella spiralis
Gnathostoma spinigerum
114
Transmission of the fluke to humans is by ingestion of aquatic plants, such as WATER CHESTNUTS, containing infective metacercariae:
‒ Clonorchis sinensis
‒ Fasciolopsis buski
‒ Heterophyes heterophyes
‒ Paragonimus westermani
Fasciolopsis buski
115
Risk factors included a history of drinking impure water, eating frog or SNAKE MEAT, or using frog or snake meat as a poultice:
‒ Echinococcus granulosus
‒ Spirometra mansonoides
‒ Taenia saginata
‒ Taenia solium
Spirometra mansonoides
116
For laboratory diagnosis of malaria, which of the following should be fixed with methanol:
‒ Thick blood film
‒ Thin blood film
Thin blood film
117
All spills and potential surface contamination with Cryptosporidium oocysts should be disinfected using the following protocol: After removing organic material from the contaminated surface (by using a conventional laboratory detergent/cleaner) and absorbing the bulk of the spill with disposable paper towels, flood and completely cover the surface with undiluted _______.
‒ Ethyl alcohol
‒ Formalin
‒ 3% hydrogen peroxide
‒ 30% hydrogen peroxide
3% hydrogen peroxide
118
Work practice controls, except:
‒ Handwashing after each patient contact
‒ No eating, drinking or smoking in the laboratory
‒ Splash guards
‒ Warning signage
Splash guards
119
Deadly:
‒ 0
‒ 4
‒ X
‒ Z
4
120
Following collection, urine specimens should be delivered to the laboratory
promptly and tested within:
‒ 30 minutes
‒ 1 hour
‒ 2 hours
‒ 3 hours
2 hours
121
In the four-glass urine collection method, which of the following is tested for
urethral infection:
‒ VB1
‒ VB2
‒ EPS
‒ VB3
VB1
122
Individual from whom specimen for drug testing is collected:
‒ Collector
‒ Donor
‒ Patient
‒ Pusher
Donor
123
Amount of urine for refractometry:
‒ 1 to 2 drops
‒ 1 to 2 mL
‒ 10 to 15 mL
‒ 15 to 20 Ml
1 to 2 drops
124
Biggest variable in urinalysis testing is the conscientiousness of the laboratory personnel in:
‒ Physical examination of urine
‒ Interpretation of color reactions
‒ Microscopic examination
‒ Reporting of result
Interpretation of color reactions
‒ Studies have shown that the biggest variable in urinalysis testing is the conscientiousness of the laboratory personnel in their interpretations of the color reactions
125
Hold the reagent strip ______ while comparing it with the color chart is recommended.
‒ Horizontally
‒ Vertically
‒ Either of these
‒ None of these
Horizontally
‒ To ensure against run-over, blotting the edge of the strip on absorbent paper and holding the strip horizontally while comparing it with the color chart is recommended.
126
Reagent pad for protein: trace values are considered to be:
‒ Less than 25 mg/dL
‒ Less than 30 mg/dL
‒ 100 mg/dL
‒ 300 mg/dL
Less than 30 mg/dL
127
Nitrite detected by the Greiss reaction:
‒ Green to blue
‒ Red to brown
‒ Pink
‒ Purple
Pink
128
The purpose of performing an albumin:creatinine ratio is to:
‒ Estimate the glomerular filtration rate
‒ Correct for hydration in random specimens
‒ Avoid interference for alkaline urines
‒ Correct for abnormally colored urines
Correct for hydration in random specimens
129
Collecting duct RTE cells:
‒ Columnar
‒ Cuboidal
‒ Round
‒ Oval
Cuboidal
130
Failure to inherit the gene to produce the enzyme hypoxanthine guanine phosphoribosyltransferase is responsible for the accumulation of ___throughout the body.
‒ Calcium carbonate
‒ Calcium oxalate
‒ Cystine
‒ Uric acid
Uric acid
131
Urinary crystals associated with foods high in oxalic acid, such as tomatoes and asparagus, and ascorbic acid:
‒ Ammonium biurate
‒ Calcium carbonate
‒ Calcium oxalate
‒ Magnesium ammonium phosphate
Calcium oxalate
132
Finding of clumps of calcium oxalate crystals in fresh urine:
‒ Acute tubular necrosis
‒ Metabolic disorder
‒ Nephrotic syndrome
‒ Renal lithiasis
Renal lithiasis
133
Cholesterol crystals are soluble in:
‒ 10% NaOH
‒ Ammonia
‒ Chloroform
‒ Dilute HCl
Chloroform
134
Differentiation between cystitis and pyelonephritis is aided by the presence of:
‒ WBC casts
‒ RBC casts
‒ Bacteria
‒ Granular cast
WBC casts
135
Primary urinalysis results: leukocyturia; bacteriuria; microscopic hematuria; mild proteinuria and increased pH
‒ Acute interstitial nephritis
‒ Acute pyelonephritis
‒ Acute tubular necrosis
‒ Cystitis
Cystitis
136
Primary urinalysis results: leukocyturia; bacteriuria; WBC casts; bacterial casts, microscopic hematuria and proteinuria.
‒ Acute interstitial nephritis
‒ Acute pyelonephritis
‒ Acute tubular necrosis
‒ Cystitis
Acute pyelonephritis
137
Expected staining reaction of Trichomonas vaginalis in urine sediment (Sedistain):
‒ Pale pink
‒ Pale purple
‒ Light blue-green
‒ Dark shade of blue-purple
Light blue-green
138
Following a head injury, which protein will identify the presence of CSF
leakage through the nose?
‒ C-reactive protein
‒ Myelin basic protein
‒ Tau protein
‒ Transthyretin
Tau protein
139
CSF cell count should be performed:
‒ Immediately
‒ Within 5 minutes
‒ Within 30 minutes
‒ Within 1 hour
Immediately
140
A CSF total cell count is diluted with:
‒ Distilled water
‒ Normal saline
‒ Acetic acid
‒ Methylene blue
Normal saline
141
A CSF WBC count is diluted with:
‒ Distilled water
‒ Normal saline
‒ Acetic acid
‒ Methylene blue
Acetic acid
142
A daily control slide for bacteria in CSF should also be prepared using:
‒ 95% alcohol
‒ 0.2 mL saline and 95% alcohol
‒ 30% albumin
‒ 0.2 mL saline and 30% albumin
0.2 mL saline and 30% albumin
143
CSF test is frequently requested for patients with coma of unknown origin:
‒ Glucose
‒ Glutamine
‒ Lactate
‒ Protein
Glutamine
144
The test of choice to detect neurosyphilis is the:
‒ RPR
‒ VDRL
‒ MHA-TP
‒ FTA-ABS
VDRL
145
Normal appearance of gastric fluid:
‒ Clear and colorless
‒ Clear and pale yellow
‒ Pale gray with mucus
‒ Pale gray with mucus and food particles
Pale gray with mucus
146
Amniotic fluid color in the presence of meconium:
‒ Blood-streaked
‒ Yellow
‒ Dark green
‒ Dark red-brown
Dark green
147
Presence of plasma cells but noticeable lack of mesothelial cells in pleural
fluid is associated with:
‒ Autoimmune disorders
‒ Viral infections
‒ Malignancy
‒ Tuberculosis
Malignancy
148
All of the following are analytical (examination) errors, except:
‒ Oversight of instrument flags
‒ Out-of-control QC results
‒ Verbal reporting of results
‒ Wrong assay performed
Verbal reporting of results
149
Staff responsibility in SPECIMEN MANAGEMENT, except:
‒ Specimens and aliquots are stored properly
‒ Specimens are centrifuged correctly
‒ Specimens are delivered intact, sealed, and in a timely manner
‒ Tests begun within specified time frames
Specimens are delivered intact, sealed, and in a timely manner
150
The positive predictive value predicts the probability that an individual with a
positive assay result ___ the disease or condition.
‒ Has (have)
‒ Could have
‒ May have
‒ Will have
Has (have)
151
For adult capillary puncture:
‒ Index finger
‒ Ring finger
‒ Index or ring finger
‒ Middle or ring finger
Middle or ring finger
152
Proper application of the tourniquet:
‒ Like a ribbon
‒ Loop toward the shoulder
‒ Ends pointed towards the shoulder
‒ Ends pointed away from the shoulder
Ends pointed towards the shoulder
153
The tourniquet should not remain tied for more than _______ at a time.
‒ 1 minute
‒ 2 minutes
‒ 3 minutes
‒ 4 minutes
1 minute
154
The tourniquet should be applied ______ above the venipuncture site.
‒ 1 to 2 inches
‒ 3 to 4 inches
‒ 6 to 8 inches
‒ 10 to 12 inches
3 to 4 inches
155
Blood pressure cuffs can be used as tourniquets. They are used primarily for
veins that are difficult to locate. The cuff should be inflated to a pressure of:
‒ 40 mm Hg
‒ 80 mm Hg
‒ 100 mm Hg
‒ 120 mm Hg
40 mm Hg
156
AccuVein is a handheld medical device that helps medical staff visualize veins
before phlebotomy. The device emits ______ light and is held 7 inches over
the potential phlebotomy site.
‒ Visible light
‒ Ultraviolet light
‒ Infrared light
‒ UV and infrared light
Infrared light
157
The advantage of using a ___-inch needle is that it provides better control
during venipuncture.
‒ 0.5-inch
‒ 1-inch
‒ 1.5-inch
‒ 2-inch
1-inch
158
Higher temperatures can cause:
‒ Decrease in blood draw volume
‒ Increase in blood draw volume
‒ Both of these
‒ None of these
Decrease in blood draw volume
159
High altitude:
‒ Decrease in blood draw volume
‒ Increase in blood draw volume
‒ Both of these
‒ None of these
Decrease in blood draw volume
160
Leakage of a large amount of blood around the puncture site:
‒ Ecchymosis (bruise)
‒ Hematoma
Hematoma
161
Severe increase in abnormal erythrocytes in each microscopic field; an
equivalent descriptive term is MANY:
‒ 1+
‒ 2+
‒ 3+
‒ 4+
3+
162
The most common hemacytometer is the Levy chamber with improved
Neubauer ruling. What is the total area of this counting chamber?
‒ 1 mm2
‒ 4 mm2
‒ 9 mm2
‒ 16 mm2
9 mm2
163
Full conversion of hemoglobin to cyanmethemoglobin:
‒ 1 minute
‒ 3 minutes
‒ 10 minutes
‒ 30 minutes
10 minutes
164
In the manual reticulocyte count, what is the ratio of blood and new
methylene blue stain:
‒ 1:1
‒ 1:3
‒ 2:1
‒ 3:1
1:1
165
Decreased ESR, EXCEPT:
‒ Acanthocytosis
‒ Bubbles in ESR column
‒ Hyperfibrinogenemia
‒ Spherocytosis
Hyperfibrinogenemia
166
Increased ESR:
‒ Hyperalbuminemia
‒ Hyperfibrinogenemia
‒ Microcytosis
‒ Polycythemia
Hyperfibrinogenemia
167
Increased ESR:
‒ Delay in testing
‒ Hyperalbuminemia
‒ Marked anisocytosis
‒ Tilted ESR tube
Tilted ESR tube
168
Leukemia:
Marked leukocytosis:
Low room temperature:
Refrigerated sample not returned to room temperature:
Decreased ESR
Increased ESR
Increased ESR
Decreased ESR
Decreased ESR
Increased ESR
169
The major energy source for the platelet is ______, which is rapidly taken up
from the plasma.
‒ Fructose
‒ Glucose
‒ Proteins
‒ Lipids
Glucose
170
Reticulated platelets are cylindrical and beaded, resembling fragments of
megakaryocyte proplatelet processes:
‒ Citrate
‒ EDTA
‒ Heparin
‒ Oxalate
Citrate
171
Effects of platelet clumps in most hematology analyzers:
‒ Decreased platelets and WBCs
‒ Increased platelets and WBCs
‒ Decreased platelets, increased WBCs
‒ Increased platelets, decreased WBCs
Decreased platelets, increased WBCs
172
Reference values for PTT in adults:
‒ 12 to 14 seconds
‒ 13 to 15 seconds
‒ 25 to 35 seconds
‒ 1 to 2 minutes
25 to 35 seconds
173
Factor I deficiency:
‒ Normal PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT
‒ Normal PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT
‒ Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, normal TCT
‒ Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT
Prolonged PT, prolonged APTT, prolonged TCT
174
Resting phase:
‒ Anaphase
‒ Interphase
‒ Metaphase
‒ Telophase
Interphase
175
The cell selected for chromosome analysis is usually in the metaphase stage
of cellular division.
‒ Prophase
‒ Metaphase
‒ Anaphase
‒ Telophase
Metaphase
176
Renal hormone which stimulates and regulates the bone marrow production
of red blood cells:
‒ Interleukin 2
‒ Interleukin 3
‒ Erythropoietin
‒ Thrombopoietin
Erythropoietin
177
RBC with membrane folded over:
‒ Aplastic anemia
‒ Iron deficiency anemia
‒ Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease
‒ Sickle cell anemia, thalassemia
Hemoglobin C, hemoglobin SC disease
178
At 1 to 2 days of age, hemoglobin concentration is normally up to:
‒ 12.0 g/dL
‒ 14.5 g/dL
‒ 16.0 g/dL
‒ 22.5 g/dL
22.5 g/dL
179
The WBC count of a newborn baby is up to:
‒ 5 x 10 9th/L
‒ 9 x 10 9th/L
‒ 11 x 10 9th/L
‒ 30 x 10 9th/L
30 x 10 9th/L
180
Formed during the promyelocyte stage:
‒ Primary (azurophilic) granules
‒ Secondary (specific) granules
‒ Tertiary granules
‒ Secretory granules (vesicles)
Primary (azurophilic) granules
181
Latest method for performing a leukocyte differential count:
‒ Manual review of blood film
‒ Impedance
‒ Light-scattering
‒ Digital microscopy
Digital microscopy
182
Early indication of engraftment success after hematopoietic stem cell
transplant:
‒ RBC count
‒ RBC and WBC count
‒ Immature reticulocyte fraction
‒ Immature reticulocyte fraction and immature platelet fraction
Immature reticulocyte fraction and immature platelet fraction
183
Solid tumor counterpart of monocytic leukemia:
‒ Chloroma
‒ Myeloma
‒ Reticulum cell sarcoma
‒ Well-differentiated lymphoma
Reticulum cell sarcoma
184
Solid tumor counterpart of plasma cell leukemia:
‒ Chloroma
‒ Myeloma
‒ Reticulum cell sarcoma
‒ Well-differentiated lymphoma
Myeloma
185
Cells have distinctive nuclear lobulation and have been termed “flower cells”
‒ Acute myelogenous leukemia
‒ Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma
‒ Hairy cell leukemia
‒ Hodgkin’s lymphoma
Adult T cell leukemia/lymphoma
186
A few isolated aggregates; mostly free-floating cells; supernatant appears
red:
‒ Negative
‒ Mixed-field
‒ Trace
‒ 1+
Mixed-field
187
Family of cytokines that enhance motility and promote migration of many
types of white blood cells:
‒ Interleukins
‒ Interferons
‒ Tumor necrosis factor
‒ Chemokines
Chemokines
188
Serum amyloid A (SAA) has been found to increase significantly more in
_____ infections
‒ Bacterial infections
‒ Fungal infections
‒ Parasitic infections
‒ Viral infections
Bacterial infections
189
The alternative complement pathway is activated by:
‒ Antigen–antibody complexes
‒ Bacterial and fungal cell walls
‒ Carbohydrates in microbial cell walls
‒ Properdin
Bacterial and fungal cell walls
190
Serum sickness, Arthus reaction and SLE:
‒ Type I hypersensitivity reactions
‒ Type II hypersensitivity reactions
‒ Type III hypersensitivity reactions
‒ Type IV hypersensitivity reactions
Type III hypersensitivity reactions
191
It is considered the gold standard in testing for contact dermatitis:
‒ Mantoux test
‒ Patch test
‒ RIST
‒ RAST
Patch test
192
Which of the following would be considered an organ-specific autoimmune
disease?
‒ Granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Wegener’s granulomatosis)
‒ Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
‒ Rheumatoid arthritis
‒ Systemic lupus erythematosus
Hashimoto’s thyroiditis
Autoimmune diseases can be classified as organ specific or systemic, depending on whether tissue destruction is localized or affects multiple organs. SLE, RA, and GPA are examples of systemic diseases, whereas Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, Graves disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, celiac disease, autoimmune hepatitis, primary biliary cirrhosis, multiple sclerosis, myasthenia gravis, and Goodpasture’s syndrome are considered organ-specific diseases
193
Anti-phospholipid antibodies have been found in up to 60% of patients with:
‒ Colorectal cancer
‒ Lupus
‒ Tuberculosis
‒ Syphilis
Lupus
194
Most specific for SLE, because they are mainly seen only in patients with
lupus, and levels correlate with disease activity:
‒ Anti-DNP
‒ Anti-RNP
‒ Anti-dsDNA
‒ Anti-Smith
Anti-dsDNA
195
Antigen for the RPR and VDRL test:
‒ Cardiolipin
‒ Charcoal
‒ Reagin
‒ Nichol’s strain of Treponema pallidum
Cardiolipin
196
Antigen for the RPR test is dispensed from a small plastic dispensing bottle
with a calibrated ____ gauge needle.
‒ 18 gauge needle
‒ 19 gauge needle
‒ 20 gauge needle
‒ 21 gauge needle
20 gauge needle
197
For RPR test, the card is rotated at:
For serum VDRL test, the slide is rotated at:
‒ 100 rpm for 4 minutes
‒ 100 rpm for 8 minutes
‒ 180 rpm for 4 minutes
‒ 180 rpm for 8 minutes
100 rpm for 8 minutes
180 rpm for 4 minutes
198
Which test is recommended for testing cerebrospinal fluid for detection of neurosyphilis?
‒ RPR
‒ VDRL
‒ FTA-ABS
‒ Enzyme immunoassay
VDRL
199
A rapid screening test to help determine the possibility of typhoid fever; the antigens used in this procedure include Salmonella O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens:
‒ ELISA
‒ Singer and Plotz
‒ Weil-Felix
‒ Widal
Widal
200
Primary antibody found in Helicobacter pylori infection:
‒ IgA
‒ IgE
‒ IgG
‒ IgM
IgG
201
Current recommendations include the combined detection of mannan and anti-mannan antibodies for the specific identification of _____ species in serum samples:
‒ Bordetella
‒ Candida
‒ Cryptococcus
‒ Mycobacterium
Candida
202
First marker to appear in HBV infection, becoming detectable 2 to 10 weeks after exposure to HBV.
‒ HBe Ag
‒ HBs Ag
‒ Anti-HBc IgM
‒ Anti-HBs
HBs Ag
203
Posttransfusion hepatitis of unknown etiology; may be transmitted by parenteral exposure to blood, fecal-oral route and from mother to child:
‒ HIV
‒ HBV
‒ HGV
‒ TTV
TTV
204
Western blot negative test result:
‒ No band
‒ One band
‒ Black band
‒ Blue band
No band
205
First time a blood transfusion was recorded in history:
‒ King George
‒ Pope Innocent
‒ Pope Pius
‒ Queen Victoria
Pope Innocent
206
Attempts to find a nontoxic anticoagulant began in 1869, when Braxton Hicks recommended:
‒ EDTA
‒ Heparin
‒ Sodium citrate
‒ Sodium phosphate
Sodium phosphate
207
Reported the use of sodium citrate as an anticoagulant solution for transfusions:
‒ Charles Drew
‒ Edward Lindemann
‒ Hustin
‒ Lewisohn
Hustin
208
Determined the minimum amount of citrate needed for anticoagulation and demonstrated its nontoxicity in small amounts:
‒ Charles Drew
‒ Edward Lindemann
‒ Hustin
‒ Lewisohn
Lewisohn
209
Second law of genetics:
‒ Assortment
‒ Characteristics
‒ Dominance
‒ Segregation
Assortment
210
Simplest type of mutation and includes substitutions, insertions, deletions:
‒ Frameshift mutation
‒ Missense mutation
‒ Nonsense mutation
‒ Point mutation
Point mutation
211
Centrifugation time for the ABO tube test:
‒ 20 seconds
‒ 60 seconds
‒ 2 minutes
‒ 5 minutes
20 seconds
212
Agglutination with yellow antiserum; no agglutination with blue antiserum:
‒ Group A
‒ Group B
‒ Group A+
‒ Group B+
Group B
213
Genotype of a Bombay individual:
‒ hh
‒ Hh
‒ O
‒ Oh
hh
214
Second most immunogenic Rh antigen:
‒ D
‒ C
‒ E
‒ c
c
215
The antigen was reported in 1973 and is present on RBCs of 4% of Indians,
11% of Iranians, and 12% of Arabs:
‒ Cromer
‒ Diego
‒ Indian
‒ Knops
Indian
216
Result in an increased rate of antibody uptake during sensitization and a
decreased reaction incubation time:
‒ 22% albumin
‒ Enzymes
‒ LISS
‒ Polyethylene glycol
LISS
217
Deferral for donor with multiple puncture marks:
‒ 4 weeks
‒ 6 weeks
‒ 12 months
‒ Indefinite
Indefinite
218
Treatment with this drug is a cause of permanent donor deferral:
‒ Accutane
‒ Propecia
‒ Proscar
‒ Tegison
Tegison
219
Donors who have ingested aspirin, Feldene, or aspirin-containing medications
should be deferred for plateletpheresis for:
‒ 24 hours
‒ 48 hours
‒ 7 days
‒ 14 days
48 hours
220
Anticoagulant-preservative for modified whole blood:
‒ ACD
‒ CPD
‒ CPDA-1
‒ All of these
All of these
221
Frozen plasma stored at -65C:
‒ 1 year
‒ 2 years
‒ 7 years
‒ 10 years
7 years
222
What component is most frequently involved; transfusion-associated sepsis?
‒ Plasma
‒ Packed red blood cells
‒ Platelets
‒ Whole blood
Platelets
223
Blue or purple spots in your mouth or skin can be a sign or symptom of:
‒ Chagas disease
‒ Hepatitis
‒ HIV/AIDS
‒ Malaria
HIV/AIDS
224
A zoonotic disease, is usually transmitted by the bite of an infected deer tick:
‒ Babesiosis
‒ Filariasis
‒ Malaria
‒ Toxoplasmosis
Babesiosis
225
A post-transfusion to pre-transfusion brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) ratio of ___ provides diagnosis of transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO):
‒ 0.5
‒ 1.5
‒ 3.0
‒ 4.5
1.5
226
Antibodies not associated with HDN:
‒ Duffy
‒ I
‒ Kell
‒ Rh
I
HEMOLYTIC DISEASE OF THE NEWBORN
1. Of all the RBC antigens, D is the most antigenic.
2. Other antigens in the Rh system, such as C, E, and c, are also potent immunogens (although less than D). These other Rh antibodies have been associated with moderate to severe cases of HDFN. Anti-E and
anti-c have caused severe HDN that required intervention and treatment.
3. Of the non–Rh system antibodies, anti-Kell is considered the most clinically significant in its ability to cause HDN.
ABO HDFN is MORE COMMON THAN RH HDN and produces NO SYMPTOMS OR MILD ANEMIA.
227
The most important serologic test for diagnosing HDFN is the DAT with antiIgG reagent. What is the specimen for this test?
‒ Infant’s serum or plasma
‒ Mother’s serum or plasma
‒ Infant’s RBCs
‒ Mother’s RBCs
Infant’s RBCs
228
What is the most possible reason when first baby suffered from RH HDN?
‒ Naturally occurring Rh antibodies
‒ Strong immunogenicity of the D antigen
‒ Leakage of fetal RBCs to maternal circulation
‒ Prior exposure of mother to Rh+ red cells due to transfusion
Prior exposure of mother to Rh+ red cells due to transfusion
229
Mother should receive a full dose of RhIg within ____ of delivery:
‒ 72 hours
‒ 96 hours
‒ 5 days
‒ 7 days
72 hours
230
Infection rate is highest for laboratory professionals exposed to blood and
body fluids containing:
‒ Hepatitis A
‒ Hepatitis B
‒ CMV
‒ HIV
Hepatitis B
231
Which infectious agent is considered to be the primary occupational health
hazard regarding transmission of bloodborne pathogens:
‒ HIV
‒ HBV
‒ Tuberculosis
‒ MRSA
HBV
232
It occurs in the bronchi of cigarette smokers as cellular adaptation to smoke:
‒ Hypertrophy
‒ Hyperplasia
‒ Dysplasia
‒ Metaplasia
Metaplasia
233
Due to chronic trauma induced by ill-fitting dentures:
‒ Hypertrophy
‒ Hyperplasia
‒ Dysplasia
‒ Metaplasia
Hyperplasia
234
Commercially available solution of formaldehyde:
‒ 10%
‒ 10 to 20%
‒ 15 to 25%
‒ 35 to 40%
35 to 40%
235
Preparation of 10% formalin from 40% formaldehyde:
‒ 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 100 mL water
‒ 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 99 mL water
‒ 10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 90 mL water
‒ 1 mL 40% formaldehyde to 99 mL water
10 mL 40% formaldehyde to 90 mL water
236
Retention of paraffin blocks:
‒ 7 days
‒ 2 years
‒ 3 years
‒ 10 years
10 years
237
Good materials to use for benchtops, as they are easy to clean and are resistant to deterioration from harsh disinfectants and aggressive cleaning products:
‒ Cement
‒ Ceramic
‒ Steel
‒ Wood
Ceramic
238
Minimum technical working area for a tertiary category laboratory:
‒ 10 square meters
‒ 20 square meters
‒ 30 square meters
‒ 60 square meters
60 square meters
239
An act promoting voluntary blood donation, providing for an adequate supply of safe blood, regulating blood banks, and providing penalties for violation thereof:
‒ RA 1517
‒ RA 5527
‒ RA 7719
‒ RA 8504
RA 7719
240
A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – Center for Health Development (CHD), whose main function is to collect blood from volunteer non-renumerated blood donors:
A blood service facility duly authorized by the DOH – CHD, whose main function is the storage, issuance, transport and distribution of whole blood and packed red cells:
A non-hospital-based blood service facility, licensed by DOH Bureau of Health Facilities and Services (BHFS), whose main function is to process blood units into blood components and testing these units for five (5) infectious disease markers:
‒ Blood Bank (BB)
‒ Blood center (BC)
‒ Blood collection unit (BCU)
‒ Blood station (BS)
Blood collection unit (BCU)
Blood station (BS)
Blood center (BC)
SCREENING OF BLOOD UNITS
‒ 1.Hepatitis B
‒ 2.Malaria
‒ 3.Syphilis
‒ 4.HIV 1 and 2
‒ 5.Hepatitis C
Every donated blood unit initially reactive to any of the five (5) transfusion-transmitted infections (TTIs) shall be retested twice using the same test format. A repeatedly reactive donated blood unit shall be sent to the National Reference Laboratory (RITM) for confirmation using
the prescribed NVBSP referral form.
241
Philippine Clean Air Act of 1999:
‒ RA 7719
‒ RA 9288
‒ RA 8749
‒ RA 9482
RA 8749
242
Waste container for empty aerosol cans:
‒ Yellow
‒ Yellow with black band
‒ Black
‒ Red
Red
