Pre-Test Review Flashcards

1
Q

Can the ADVs operate without IA?

A

Yes. They have a nitrogen backup

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2
Q

What mode will the DFWCS Master Controller be in 5 seconds after a reactor trip?

A

TRACKING the RTO controller

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3
Q

What role does PKA-M41 play in the AF System?

A

AFA govornor control power

AFN normal control power

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4
Q

When does the first MSSV lift?

A

1250 psig

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5
Q

What does pressing the SG Low Pressure Reset push button do?

A

It lowers the setpoint 200 psig

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6
Q

AFAS 1 is for #__ SG and will start ____ AF pump(s) and cycle based on level

A
#1
both
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7
Q

From where do MCCs get control power for their magnetic starters?

A

From downstream of the circuit breaker

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8
Q

If containment pressure reaches ____ psig on any two channels ____ RTCBs open.

A

3 psig

4 RTCBs open

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9
Q

If the Steam Blanketing switch is taken to the steam blanketing position, what will happen?

A

The RSSV and the RSCV will close

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10
Q

What signal does RRS send CEDMCS if selected TLI fails low?

A

Insert

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11
Q

At what header pressures do the different fire pumps start?

A
As pressure decreases: 
Jockey Pump   - 104 psig
Motor Pump     - 95 psig
Diesel Pump A - 90 psig
Diesel Pump B - 85 psig
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12
Q

Taking the MSIV EXER/TEST switch to EXER does what?

A

Closes the valve to 90% open using the air operated pump

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13
Q

When does the MFP swap to the D MSR?

A

at 90%

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14
Q

What cools the isophase bus ducts?

A

TC

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15
Q

What happens if you depress the TEST pushbutton on a FBEVAS channel?

A

Complete actuation of FBEVAS and CREFAS

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16
Q

What is the time delay associated with start of the standby CEDM fan?

A

120 seconds

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17
Q

Which SGWL detector does DFWCS use for control?

A

The higher reading NR detector

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18
Q

What determines what’s on the SESS Panel?

A

This display checks which components must change status to be in their Post-ESF position.

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19
Q

What starts automatically on a Control Building Air Intake RU Monitor alarm?

A

Control Room Essential ACUs

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20
Q

Why does the Fuel Building Exhaust Fan have a higher capacity than the Fuel Building Supply Fans?

A

To maintain a negative pressure on the Fuel Building

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21
Q

What would happen to the Essential Chiller if operating under load and the EW pump trips?

A

The Essential Chiller would trip on high condenser pressure

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22
Q

What is the power supply to the Ex-Core NI’s?

A

NNN-D11 and NNN-D12

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23
Q

CEA movement within the Reactor Vessel requires refueling water level to be greater than or equal to ______ ft above ________________________.

A

23 ft above the irradiated fuel asseblies

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24
Q

From where does the ESOP take a suction?

A

The bearing oil supply header

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25
Q

What happens to the MSIVs on a loss of IA?

A

You lose the air operated pump. They’ll remain as-is and may be Fast Closed

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26
Q

What is the purpose in the flywheel on the RCPs?

A

To increase coast down time

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27
Q

When in Auto-Sequential or Manual-Sequential, once Group 1 CEAs reach 90”, what will happen?

A

Group 2 CEAs will begin to withdraw simultaneously with Group 1.

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28
Q

What does the TG for the MFP need to engage?

A

Adequate oil pressure

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29
Q

If Tave decreases, what signal does RRS send to CEDMCS?

A

Withdraw

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30
Q

What will happen if you take the PPCS Master Controller to 0 output?

A

Spray will secure

B/U heaters will energize 100%

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31
Q

If RVLMS indication lowers, what has happened to the void size?

A

It has increased

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32
Q

What does the main turbine trip at -3” in the MSR protect from?

A

Moisture carryover

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33
Q

What is the difference between COLSS and the CMC?

A

COLSS is for indications

CMC is for protection

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34
Q

What happens to boron concentration if CVCS IX temperature lowers?

A

Boron concentration will lower

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35
Q

When, on an up power, will the CPC value for ASI swap to a calculated value vice a canned value?

A

When the sum of the 3 excore detectors reaches 51%

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36
Q

AFN requires both suction valves to be > ____ % open to start.

A

80

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37
Q

What calibrates JCPCAL?

A

JSCALOR

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38
Q

How does a loss of PND-D28 effect CEDMCS?

A

You’ll get a reverse Pac-Man on the Core Mimic

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39
Q

What will trip off the Normal Battery Exhaust Fans?

A

CO2 discharge

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40
Q

List the CPC Aux Trips

A
  • < 2 RCPs running
  • Th saturation (19F from saturation)
  • Asymmetric SG Temps
  • VOPT
  • Input parameters out of range
  • Internal Computer Processor Faults
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41
Q

If SGWL transmitter fails low, what effect does it have on the DFWCS?

A

None

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42
Q

What is used to compensate excore power for shielding effects?

A

Tcold

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43
Q

When the AUTO/MAN switch for the MFP is in MAN only the _____________ can control the MFP.

A

potentiometer

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44
Q

Theres a leak in pressurizer level transmitter LT-110 variable leg. How does this effect indicated level, letdown flow, and heaters?

A

Indicated level will lower which will in turn lower letdown flow and trip off all heaters

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45
Q

A LOP occurs and starts AFB. A SIAS occurs later. What is the status of AFB?

A

It’ll load shed but it’ll be running again once the sequencer starts it again.

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46
Q

The downcomer controller is in LOCAL. The operator places the downcomer controller on the board in valve output and attempts to use the up/down arrows. Will this move the valve?

A

Yes

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47
Q

What do the background detectors in the ICI’s compensate for?

A

the current flow caused by non-neutron interactions

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48
Q

What happens to the PK Battery Room Normal Exhaust Fan if the room is flooded with Carbon Dioxide?

A

The fans will stop.

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49
Q

What happens if the selected Lpzr instrument fails high?

A

B/U heaters will energize (+3% insurge)
Letdown increases (Level is now higher than called for)
Normally Running Charging Pump stops ( > +15%)

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50
Q

If Tave fails low, how will this effect RTO in the DFWCS?

A

This will cause DFWCS to feed at a lower rate in RTO

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51
Q

What is the status of CHA-UV-524 while at 100%?

A

Down powered with position indication provided from a secondary power source

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52
Q

During holding ops, how many stages of the AR pump are in service?

A

both

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53
Q

What is RTO in DFWCS designed for?

A

To prevent a post-trip overcooling event

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54
Q

A single CEA cannot be withdrawn above the ______.

A

UEL (Upper Electrical Limit)

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55
Q

What type of detectors are the ICI’s?

A

Rhodium detectors

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56
Q

What kind of reactivity is added to the Reactor if SG pressure increases? Why?

A

Negative because the increase in SG pressure will increase Tc.

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57
Q

During a plant startup, what is AS used for?

A

heating the #4 heater

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58
Q

What is required to be running to start a RCP?

A

its lift oil pump

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59
Q

Who determines duration for alarms in fast flash and any required monitored parameters or contingency actions for an annunciator?

A

The CRS

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60
Q

How do you get Setpoint Override on the B/U heaters?

A

Go to OFF then ON

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61
Q

What cools the hydrogen coolers?

A

TC

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62
Q

Communicate alarms to the CRS ________ activity. If not previously briefed, treat alarms as ____________.

A
  • before

- un-expected

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63
Q

When do we go to one Letdown Control Valve and one Letdown Back Pressure Control Valve and why?

A

When RCS pressure > 1200 psia to prevent from exceeding the capacity of the installed relief valve

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64
Q

How does QSPDS calculate upper head saturation margin?

A

The hottest of the top 3 unheated junction thermocouple temperatures

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65
Q

If the DWST becomes contaminated are there any other options we can use to supply the DW header?

A

We can use the Water Rec Header

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66
Q

What happens to pump current when its discharge valve is throttled closed?

A

Current will lower and stabilize at that lower value

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67
Q

At 7% power, what is the status of the MSR Drain Tank Hi Level Control Valve?

A

Failed Open

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68
Q

You’re selected to Tave. Tc fails high. What signal will be generated?

A

AMI

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69
Q

What happens to DNBR POL as ASI goes more positive?

A

DNBR POL will increase

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70
Q

What component in the EC system minimizes stacking?

A

The RHPCV

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71
Q

Where is the only Containment temperature detector that will read > 200F displayed?

A

ERFDADS

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72
Q

What does the red breaker light signify?

A

That the breaker is closed and there is continuity through the trip coil

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73
Q

How does a loss of IA affect SBCS?

A

All the SBCS valves fail closed

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74
Q

Who is required to be in the Control Room during refueling operations?

A

The RO and Responsible Engineer representative

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75
Q

How much time will 2.75ft in the DG FOST give you?

A

About 1.5 hours

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76
Q

How does the WC makeup valve on the surge tank fail on a loss of IA?

A

closed

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77
Q

What happens to CW on a loss of TC?

A

The CW Pump bearings will overheat

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78
Q

B CREFAS is in BYPASS. You get a valid alarm on a FBEVAS channel. What will be running?

A

Both trains of FBEVAS and CREFAS

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79
Q

Only one Aux Building Exhaust and Supply are running. What happens if you take the other Supply Unit to START?

A

It won’t start

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80
Q

How fast is rod insertion?

A

30”/min

possible to be 3”/min in Auto-Sequential

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81
Q

What happens to the Letdown Back Pressure Control Valves if Letdown is lost?

A

They will go closed trying to maintain pressure

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82
Q

What do you have to do if you get the AZ TILT alarm?

A

Change the addressable constant in CPCs.

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83
Q

At 1275#, how may SG safeties are open?

A

4

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84
Q

What happens in PPS if a single matrix relay fails?

A

one RTCB will open

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85
Q

The black and white pointer on the Pressurizer Level Controller is the __________ set point.

A

Remote

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86
Q

What is the makeup for WC?

A

DW

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87
Q

How will JSCALOR indicate if blowdown is in service with a 0 BD constant?

A

High

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88
Q

What cools the Charging Pump Room ACUs?

A

WC

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89
Q

If on SDC, a leak occurs in the SDCHX, what would happen to the EW System?

A

The EW Surge Tank level would rise

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90
Q

How do the vacuum breakers operate?

A

Air to open and spring to close

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91
Q

Reactivity Briefs should contain what three aspects of control?

A

Rate
Duration
Method of Control

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92
Q

PMS is OOS. How does this affect COLSS?

A

COLSS is now INOP

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93
Q

What happens to the feed system if you lose NBN-S01?

A

You lose two CD pumps which cases you to lose a MFP on low suction pressure

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94
Q

What happens if you lose supervisory service air to pre-action valves?

A

Alarms - no actuations

The air is applied to the piping to ensure piping integrity. Lowering air pressure may indicate a system breach.

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95
Q

What rooms are not protected by CO2?

A

Remote Shutdown Panel

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96
Q

What is the vent path for the MSR Drain Tank?

A

The Hot Reheat Line

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97
Q

The normal overload setpoint for the fuel transfer machine is _____ lbs.

A

800 lbs

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98
Q

How is TC temperature maintained?

A

By throttling HX outlet and bypass

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99
Q

RVLMS has ___ sets of heated and unheated thermocouples located in the upper head and outlet plenum per train.

A

8

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100
Q

What alarm can you expect when taking a component to override from its actuated position?

A

SEAS Alarm

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101
Q

What cools the AR pumps?

A

PW

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102
Q

What does the combo of a Reactor Trip with a low Tave do to SBCS?

A

it will prevent a Quick Open of the SBCS Valves

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103
Q

When down powering from 85% to 70%, what will the downcomer do?

A

nothing

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104
Q

The MFT trips at ________ inches of mercury.

A

13.5

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105
Q

The Load Limit light is lit. How can the turbine be controlled in this condition.

A

Only the Load Limit Pot will control at this time.

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106
Q

Smoothed Power = 99.8%. DNBR POL = 109%. LPD POL = 111%. What does the Margin Meter read?

A

< 2%

The margin meter reads the difference between Smoothed Power and the lowest of either Licensed Power (101.5%), DNBR POL, or

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107
Q

Which RCS Pressure does QSPDS monitor: Narrow Range or Wide Range?

A

Wide Range

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108
Q

Where do the SBCS valves go?

A

A shell - 3
B shell - 2
C shell - 1
Atmos - 2

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109
Q

How is a leak in the SP System detected in the Control Room?

A

A gross flow deviation from the supply and return header

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110
Q

CEA movement within the Reactor Vessel requires refueling water level to be greater than _____ feet above the _________________.

A

23 feet

irradiated fuel assemblies

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111
Q

What is the purpose in the background detector for the ICI’s?

A

Corrects for the signal wire

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112
Q

‘A’ MSIS will do what?

A

Close all MSIVs, one Economizer and one Downcomer in each line

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113
Q

When should you have GS applied?

A

Whenever vacuum is present

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114
Q

What is the purpose in the Dropped Rod Contact?

A

To reset the pulse counter in the Plant Computer

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115
Q

How does the failure of a Tc instrument affect COLSS?

A

There is no effect. The redundant instrument will take over.

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116
Q

What rod groups insert on a LLR and why?

A

Groups 4 and 5 because SBCS alone cannot remove all the RCS heat

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117
Q

You get a 2/4 on Containment Pressure at > 3 psig. What happens?

A

Reactor Trip
SIAS
CIAS
MSIS

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118
Q

What happens to COLSS NKBDELT as RCP D/P lowers?

A

NKBDELT will increase.
D/P does down as flow goes up. Lower D/P means more flow. More flow means higher power. Higher power means NKBDELT increases.

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119
Q

When does the High Log Power Trip occur?

A

10 -2%

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120
Q

What is the status of the RCP HP seal cooler inlet and outlet valves at 100% power?

A

Open and de-energized

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121
Q

How are the Class 86 Lockouts reset?

A

By going to the trip position

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122
Q

If you place the Local Mode Control Switch for the DG in OFF, will you be able to start the DG?

A

no

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123
Q

What will the PPS Power Trip Test Interlock (PTTI) trip and why?

A

It will trip DNBR and LPD in the event of NI switch misalignments or voltage problems.

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124
Q

What does the PPCS Master Controller do with its output to increase pressure?

A

It lowers it.

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125
Q

Name one CPC output.

A

Calibrated Neutron Flux

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126
Q

What signals are sent to the EHC System on a RPCB?

A

Setback
Runback
Increase Inhibit

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127
Q

How is reactor head flange leakage detected?

A

Flange seal pressure

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128
Q

What is the Pressurizer Pressure Safety valve setpoint?

A

2475 psia

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129
Q

Which forces do a thrust bearing absorb?

A

axial

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130
Q

When a MSIV slow closes what is doing the closing?

A

the air operated pump

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131
Q

If blowdown flow is lowered, how will JCPCAL read immediately after and one hour after?

A

JCPCAL will read lower immediately and lower again over the next hour.

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132
Q

The SBCS valves are open due to a normal signal. If pressure drops below the Permissive Setpoint, how will the valves close?

A

They will modulate closed because of the 15 second time delay that prevents a quick close of the valves.

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133
Q

What happens to the CVCS System on a loss of NKN-D42?

A

All charging pumps will stop and letdown will isolate

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134
Q

What would be the status of the VCT makeup system if LT226 saw 0 D/P?

A

It would be on continuous makeup

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135
Q

Are the PC pumps sequenced back on if the Class bus loses power?

A

No - it must be manually restarted

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136
Q

What in the SP System do the multipoint recorders monitor?

A

SP Pump bearing temperatures

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137
Q

If D/P goes down on a wet reference leg D/P indicator, what happens to indicated level?

A

it goes up

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138
Q

Containment Spray is designed to reduce Containment pressure by ______ in _______ hours.

A

Half

24

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139
Q

If a FBEVAS is actuated by a RU monitor, what happens to the Control Room Normal AHU?

A

It trips.
- You’ll get all the cross trips which means CREFAS will actuate, closing the Control Room Normal dampers which trips the ACU

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140
Q

If Tc is high, what CEDMCS signals will be generated?

A

AMI and AWP

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141
Q

How does the CE Heat Exchanger temperature control valve fail?

A

Through the HX’s and it lowers temperature

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142
Q

What happens to the PW System if a low discharge pressure is detected on the running pump?

A

The standby pump will start

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143
Q

When do we normally use the reactor makeup water flow alarm?

A

During refueling operations

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144
Q

Does AFB start on a CIAS?

A

no

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145
Q

What will happen to the MSIVs if you lose a PKA battery charger?

A

The MSIVs will remain as-is and will operate normally until the battery is depleted at which time they will Fast Close

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146
Q

How would one clear a Main Turbine Setback?

A

Lower the Load Limit Pot until the Load Limit Light illuminates.

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147
Q

What cools the normal chillers?

A

NC

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148
Q

Per the TRM, what mode must the LPVMS be in?

A

Supervisory Mode

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149
Q

Who has free access to the ‘at the controls’ area of the control room?

A

On-Shift Personnel
Ops Management
NRC Inspectors
One member of Nuclear Oversight Operations

150
Q

What happens to the discharge valve of a CW pump if it trips?

A

It goes fully closed

151
Q

When can a peer check be forgone?

A

During AOPs if the action must be taken immediately and there is no peer checker available.

152
Q

What happens to the mass flow rate in a density compensated steam flow instrument if steam pressure rises?

A

Mass flow rate goes up

153
Q

You actuate a BOP-ESFAS trip from B05. What lights will be lit?

A

Actuate, RST, MAN

154
Q

How often should the RO do a thorough evaluation of the control room?

A

Every 2 hours minimum

155
Q

What is the purpose of the Local/Remote switches on the B Class components?

A

To prevent spurious actuations during a fire

156
Q

Volts/Hz Regulator operates to ________ voltage.

A

limit

157
Q

How long do the Class and Non-Class batteries last?

A

2 hours

158
Q

LSPI A has lost control power. You get a SIAS. What lights are lit on the SESS panel for the LPSI A pump?

A

The white and blue lights are lit.

159
Q

If a leak occurs in the RCS, how will indicated leak rate and actual leak rate relate on the ERFDADS screen?

A

Actual leak rate will exceed indicated leak rate for 7.5 minutes

160
Q

What is needed to get a LOFP RPCB?

A

Low Control Oil Pressure (75 psig) on 2/3 switches for the same feed pump

161
Q

Do the Normal Supply and Exhaust dampers for the Aux Building have override?

A

No

162
Q

What happens when a Class 480 LC transformer trips on over current?

A

Both the LC B2 breaker and the 4160V transformer supply breaker open

163
Q

What is the minimum level in the RDT? Why?

A

52% to provide a quench volume for the Pressurizer Safeties

164
Q

When does the RESET lamp illuminate on a BOP-ESFAS trip initiated by a RU monitor?

A

When the RU monitor alarm condition clears

165
Q

From where can you immediately secure a CW Pump?

A

The Control Room

Locally at the breaker

166
Q

As IA pressure lowers, what occurs first: IA Lo pressure alarm or start of the standby IA Compressors?

A

Standby Compressors first followed by the low pressure alarm

167
Q

How many starts is each DG starting air receiver sized for?

A

5

168
Q

What will a single upper detector excore safety monitor failing high cause?

A

VOPT
High LPD
Low DNBR

169
Q

How does a loss of NKN-D42 effect Charging Pumps and Letdown flow?

A

All charging pumps will stop

Letdown flow will isolate (high temp RHX)

170
Q

What would be the status of NNN-D15 and NNN-D16 in Unit 1 with a LOOP and a SIAS?

A

Both de-energized

171
Q

IA to the Containment isolates on a _________.

A

CSAS

172
Q

CETs monitor _______ plenum temperature and enter from the _________ of the core.

A

Outlet

Bottom

173
Q

Why is ASN-HV-14 kept open?

A

To prevent a loss of GS in the event of a MSIS

174
Q

What does the DG need to auto close its output breaker?

A

DG at rated speed and voltage
normal and alternate breakers open for PB bus
no 86 lockouts

175
Q

What would happen if the DG TG was not fully disengaged while attempting to start the DG?

A

The DG would not turn over at all

176
Q

What does the SG Low Flow trip protect against?

A

RCP Shaft Shear

177
Q

In the EHC System, which error signal controls at high rotor speed and which at low rotor speed?

A

Acceleration Error controls at low rotor speed

Speed Error controls at high rotor speed

178
Q

What will isolate NC to the Containment?

A

CSAS

179
Q

What safety device is installed on the SGs in the event of a main steam line break?

A

Flow restrictors

180
Q

What system provides the operator with indication of the approach to, the existence of, and the recovery from an inadequate core cooling condition?

A

QSPDS

181
Q

The __________ and ___________ are required to be in the Control Room during refueling operations.

A

Reactor Operator

A RE Representative

182
Q

How do you de-select the chosen CEAs for a RPCB and leave RPCB in service?

A

Press the TEST/RESET button twice

Procedure says the AAOOS button twice also

183
Q

From what does the High SGWL Trip protect?

A

Moisture carryover to the Main Turbine

184
Q

What is the cooling medium for the Containment Normal ACUs?

A

Normal Chill Water (WC)

185
Q

Both sets of Aux Building Supplies and Exhausts are running. ‘B’ Exhaust gets a low D/P. What happens?

A

The ‘A’ Supply AHU will trip

186
Q

N2 backup to IA comes in at ______ psig.

A

85 psig

187
Q

What will happen on the loss of a single PN bus?

A

Two RTCB will open and the plant will remain at power

188
Q

What cools the DG Turbocharger Intercooler?

A

SP

189
Q

What aspects of the Spray Ponds does LCO 3.7.9 address?

A

Level and Temperature only

190
Q

How is NKCBTFSP generated by COLSS?

A

COLSS correlates Turbine Power from TFSP and then calibrates that with JSCALOR to get NKCBTFSP.

191
Q

What is the power supply to the CEDMCS Logic?

A

Non-Vital 120VAC (NNN-D11 and NNN-D12)

192
Q

When is Stage Pressure Feedback used and what is it for?

A

It is used during Control Valve testing to maintain TLI

193
Q

How do the CO pumps maintain discharge pressure?

A

By varying their pump stroke

194
Q

You’re selected to Ppzr Instrument 100X. What happens if 100Y fails high?

A

Alarms - thats it

195
Q

What happens to the Fuel Building Ventilation on receipt of a B FBEVAS?

A

The Fuel Building Normals will run dead-headed.

196
Q

What will start an EW Pump?

A

LOP
CSAS
CREFAS
AFAS

197
Q

What cools the AS Vent Condenser?

A

NC

198
Q

What do the Second Stage Reheater Vents do on a Hi-Hi Level in #7 HPFWH?

A

They align to the condenser

199
Q

At 1285#, how may safeties are open?

A

4

200
Q

If Tave fails high, how will this effect RTO in the DFWCS?

A

This will cause DFWCS to feed at a higher rate in RTO

201
Q

You lose NNN-D12. A Cutback occurs. What happens with CEAs, Setback, and Runback?

A

CEAs - all cutback rods drop
Setback - to 60% like normal
Runback - will not occur

202
Q

What would happen if you went through OFF while cross connecting NBN-S01 and NBN-S02?

A

You would lose both buses

203
Q

Does SBCS send a RBCP signal every time it senses a Load Rejection?

A

No; it has to be of a large enough magnitude to warrant a RPCB

204
Q

What will auto start a RCP Lift Oil Pump?

A

If its RCP is secured

205
Q

What will auto close the Aux Feed Room Supply dampers?

A

High liquid level in the pump room

206
Q

What pump can fill the SITs?

A

B HPSI

207
Q

Where does the HDP seal water come from?

A

The Condensate Header

208
Q

How does a SIAS effect the proportional heaters?

A

It doesn’t

209
Q

________ is sprayed into the ________ manifold of the AR Pump to condense steam at high vacuum conditions.

A

Coolant

inlet

210
Q

When is the Main Generator Output Breaker Bypass used?

A

When closing the second breaker during synchronization

211
Q

VCT is at 25% and CHE-536 is open. What will CHN-501 do if CHE-536 is taken to close?

A

CHN-501 will open

212
Q

A low Tc will cause CPC compensated neutron flux power to _______ and delta T power to _______.

A

Rise (Signal has to get boosted more)

Rise (A larger Delta T means higher power)

213
Q

Who maintains plant oversight and continuous monitoring during shift turnover?

A

The RO

214
Q

The RWT is sized for _______ minutes of full ECCS close.

A

20

215
Q

Where does core bypass flow go?

A

To the Upper Head and Upper Guide Structure

216
Q

Loads in excess of ________ lbs shall be prohibited from travel over fuel assemblies in the spent fuel pool.

A

2000 lbs

217
Q

When the main turning gear is engaged, how many lift pumps turn off and why?

A

2 to prevent the rotor from spinning too fast and disengaging the turning gear

218
Q

What is the Main Turbine Trip on High Vibes?

A

12 mil

219
Q

What is the status of the NN buses in Unit 2 after a LOOP + SIAS?

A

NNN-D11/12 will transfer to alternate power

NNN-D15/16 will de-energize

220
Q

If a FBEVAS is initiated normally, what cross trips will you receive?

A

Both trains of FBEVAS and both trains of CREFAS

221
Q

Why is a loss of IA to the Downcomer Control Valves not a huge deal?

A

Because they have a dedicated Nitrogen backup

222
Q

Which valves receive a QOB on a LOFP Cutback?

A

All of them; X and Y valves

223
Q

What is the RCS Safety Limit?

A

2750 psia

224
Q

Where does the HDP suction vent?

A

To the HDT

225
Q

What directly causes the AFA ACU to start?

A

The opening of the steam supply valves

226
Q

What happens if CDN-UV-191 motor fails and starts to close at 100% power?

A

The Demin Bypass valve will start to open

227
Q

You’ve got a SIAS/CIAS. What would be needed to change sequencer modes?

A

LOP

228
Q

Pressurizer Pressure is 2310 psia. What would be the next thing to happen in the plant?

A

A Reactor Trip on High Pressurizer Pressure

229
Q

What supplies the generator field prior to syncing onto the grid?

A

P Bars

230
Q

What would happen to the EW System if SP were secured while on SDC?

A

EW temperaures would rise

231
Q

Which MFP stop valve has an internal pilot valve?

A

The Low Pressure Stop Valve

232
Q

What will trip AFN?

A

Load Shed
Electrical Protection
SIAS
Suction < 80% open

233
Q

Power is 50%. Th fails high. What happens to letdown flow?

A

Letdown flow will lower to 30 gpm

234
Q

When excitation is removed from the generator, the field shorting breaker _________ and the SCRs are ____________.

A

Closes

Fired On

235
Q

On a lo-lo level in the RWT, what happens to a running BAMP?

A

It auto stops

236
Q

What will auto start the Containment Normal ACUs?

A

Loss of power to the running fan.

237
Q

Who can grant permission for someone to be the peer checker and the IV’er? What must also be done if this permission is granted?

A
  • SM

- A CR has to be written

238
Q

At what pressure does the RDT isolate?

A

10 psig

239
Q

What will start the standby TC Pump?

A

low discharge pressure

240
Q

What do the servos on the control valves do?

A

They control the flow of EHC fluid to and from the control valves

241
Q

How many ADVs are operable if you lose PNC?

A

4

242
Q

When at lower powers (< 20%), what is the steam supply for the Main Feed Pumps?

A

Main Steam

243
Q

What is the purpose of the HPSI cold leg injection orifice?

A

It helps balance the flow between the hot and cold legs

244
Q

How long does a RPCB signal last?

A

10 seconds. After that, rods are in control of the RRS or the operator

245
Q

If the Normal Level Control Valve and the High Level Control Valve for the MSR Drain Tank both fail closed, what will happen?

A

The Main Turbine will trip on MSR level at -3”.

246
Q

Stacking is prevented by ___________ EW flow to the EC Chiller.

A

Lowering

247
Q

How do the Economizer Isolation valves fail on a loss of IA?

A

As-Is and remains capable of Fast Closing

248
Q

How does the NBN-X03 transformer failing affect the NC Pumps?

A

it doesn’t - FBT should pick up before anything happens

249
Q

Where does 12th stage extraction steam go?

A

to the #1 LPFWH

250
Q

When EW is supplying NC Priority loads, does RU-6 monitor for radiation?

A

No. RU-2 or RU-3 will monitor flow

251
Q

What happens to the #5 Extraction Steam Block valve on a HDT Hi-Hi?

A

It closes

252
Q

What happens to a RMWP on a RMWT lo-lo level?

A

It will trip and get a blue light

253
Q

To what power will the Main Turbine Setback? How fast will it get there?

A

60%

480%/min

254
Q

If the Essential Chiller secures itself on Low Load Recycle, how long will this be in effect?

A

Until EC temperature rises > 45F

255
Q

What is used to calibrate Safety Channel NI’s?

A

JSCALOR

256
Q

What will secure the Containment and CEDM ACUs

A

SIAS

257
Q

What will cause the DG to trip if in Emergency Mode?

A

Low LO Pressure
Generator Differential
Over Speed

258
Q

What happens to the mini-flow valves on a RAS?

A

They go closed

259
Q

What pumps does a RAS secure?

A

both LPSI Pumps

260
Q

What alarm(s) is(are) received when a CEA subgroup is placed on the Hold Bus?

A

CEDMCS TRBL ALARM

261
Q

From what does the High Pressurizer RPS trip protect?

A

The RCS in the event of a loss of condenser vacuum

262
Q

What will cross trip on a FBEVAS?

A

CREFAS

263
Q

Who can maintain the command function in the control room in modes 5 and 6?

A

A qualified SRO or RO

264
Q

What does WHITE data on an ERFDADS Screen signify?

A

That the data is suspect

265
Q

What supplies AF pumps if theres no water in the CST?

A

RMWT

266
Q

How do the Downcomer Control Valves fail on a loss of IA?

A

As-Is

267
Q

What percentage of feed flow is the High Pressure Heater Bypass rated for?

A

25%

268
Q

How many buttons are required to be pushed to reset a SIAS from the Aux Relay Cabinet?

A

1 - either one for that channel

269
Q

What will cause the DG to start automatically?

A

SIAS
CSAS (test)
LOP
AFAS (1 and 2)

270
Q

What is the EW design temperature for a LOCA?

A

135F

271
Q

When does a MSIS actuate on SGWL?

A

91% NR

272
Q

When do we go to two Letdown Control Valves and two Letdown Back Pressure Control Valves and why?

A

RCS pressure < 1000 psia to ensure sufficient letdown flow due to the reduced D/P

273
Q

What events will result from a loss of any two PN buses?

A

Reactor Trip

Full ESFAS

274
Q

When do the 1st stage MSR drain tank high level dumps close on a start up? Second Stage?

A

10%

20%

275
Q

The Regen Heat Exchanger minimizes thermal shock to ______________________.

A

The RCS inlet nozzles

276
Q

What happens to plant efficiency and CD pump cavitation as condensate depression rises?

A

Plant efficiency lowers and CD Pump cavitation lowers

277
Q

Brittle fracture concern is from a large tensile stress on the _________ wall of the reactor vessel.

A

inner

278
Q

What is the purpose of the delay coil?

A

Allows for the decay of N-16 gammas to reduce exposure

279
Q

What indication is given in the Control Room that AFA-54 is in standby?

A

Two red lights: one for the valve and one for the actuator

280
Q

How do the BFT vents work?

A

4A will open to maintain set pressure in the BFT. When 4A is full open, 4B opens to relieve excess pressure to the condenser.

281
Q

How is the Core Monitor filter normally operated?

A

Bypassed

282
Q

What is the makeup source for WC?

A

DW

283
Q

Can EW supply cool the SFP?

A

Yes

284
Q

Actual Lpzr is 50%. Setpoint is 33%. What will happen with charging pumps and letdown flow?

A

Normally Running Charging Pump will stop.

Letdown flow will increase.

285
Q

When the DG trips on overspeed, what happens to the butterfly valve?

A

It trips shut

286
Q

How must AFA be reset if tripped on overspeed?

A

locally

287
Q

What is the control valve configuration on chest warming?

A

2 Stop valve is open with all control valves closed

288
Q

What happens to the Fuel Building Essentials on receipt of a SIAS?

A

The suction shifts from the Fuel Building to below 100’ of the Aux Building.

289
Q

From where do the SDC isolations inside containment get their power?

A

125 VDC inverters

290
Q

Theres a LOCA. You’ve got a bright green light on A HPSI pump. What happens if you take this switch to START?

A

SIAS override light comes on

Pump stays off.

291
Q

Aux Building Supply/Exhaust Fans ‘A’ are running. What happens if you start the ‘B’ Aux Building Supply Fan?

A

The ‘A’ Supply Fan will secure.

292
Q

What will close the motor operated EW cross connect valves to NC?

A

SIAS

Lo-Lo Level in EW Surge Tank

293
Q

While on SDC, how is RCS temperature maintained?

A

By throttling SDCHX Bypasses

294
Q

What is the position of the discharge valve for CW pumps when they are started? Why?

A

Closed to prevent runout

295
Q

What happens if the running Containment Normal ACU loses power?

A

The standby unit will start after a 60 second time delay

- sensed by low D/P

296
Q

How does a complete loss of the Incore Instruments affect the CMC and the PC?

A

COLSS will not function on either computer

297
Q

What cools the BDHX?

A

Condensate

298
Q

What happens in the DFWCS at 50% steam flow going down?

A

The downcomer control valve goes closed

299
Q

How can a RCP cause a DNBR Trip?

A

If one RCP reaches 95% of rated speed the reactor will trip.

300
Q

How is steam aligned to AFA on an auto start signal?

A

both steam supplies are aligned

301
Q

Normal Supply and Exhaust dampers for the Aux Building automatically close on a _______.

A

SIAS.

302
Q

The _______ grants permission to enter the control room and the _________ grants permission to approach the ‘at the controls’ area.

A

CRS

RO/CO

303
Q

How do the GS valves fail on a loss of IA?

A

Both regulating valves fail open to preserve GS and there is no effect to the unloading valve

304
Q

What is the preferred source for GS? AS or MS? Why?

A

AS - so you don’t lose GS on a MSIS

305
Q

What effect to the Load Limit Pot and the Load Set Motor have while in Standby Mode?

A

None

306
Q

If you were to lose UV relays 727-1/5, would the DG start?

A

no

307
Q

The Reed Switch Position Transmitters input into the Plant Computer. Why?

A

To zero the the pulse counter position when a CEA drops

308
Q

What will isolate RU-1?

A

CIAS

309
Q

AC Regulator regulates _________ voltage and the DC Regulator regulates ________ voltage.

A

terminal

field

310
Q

IAA-UV-2 auto closes on what ESFAS signal?

A

CSAS

311
Q

Does indicated SDC flow include loop bypass flow?

A

yes

312
Q

What is the supply for 1st and 2nd stage reheat steam in the MSRs?

A

first: 3rd stage extraction steam
second: Main Steam

313
Q

HV-11 is fully open with all four CW pumps running. If CW Pump C is taken to STOP, what will happen?

A

C Discharge valve will close and at 8% the pump will trip and the valve will then close fully. All other valves stay as is

314
Q

What uses the COLSS inputs?

A

PC and CMC

315
Q

SFP Cooling takes a suction on the _____ of the SFP and discharges to the _____ of the SFP to aid in _______________.

A

Top
Bottom
Natural Circulation

316
Q

What cools the generator collector housing?

A

WC

317
Q

When the EC System is started up, what is the first component to start?

A

The Essential Chilled Water Pump

318
Q

Taking the SBCS Master Controller to MAN controls the controller ___________ and defeats the _____________ and ________________

A

output
Quick Open
Auto Modulate

319
Q

What will cause the hotwell draw off valve to close?

A

Low Feed Pump pressure

High conductivity

320
Q

What happens to the MSIVs on a complete loss of electrical power?

A

They Fast Close

321
Q

What is the sequence for starting the main turning gear?

A
  • piggyback motor
  • engagement
  • big motor
322
Q

When in purge mode, where are the MSR tube bundles aligned?

A

To the Main Condenser

323
Q

What happens on a loss of IA to the Charging Pump Room

A

The TCV will fail to max cooling

324
Q

If the Main Feed Pump trips on low suction pressure, what valve will auto close?

A

The Hotwell Drawoff Valve

325
Q

After 90 minutes of full ECCS flow after a LOCA, from where will the CS pump be taking a suction?

A

The RAS Sump

326
Q

How do CHA-UV-505 and CHB-UV-506 fail?

A

Closed on a loss of air and power

327
Q

What will start the ESF Switchgear Room Essential AHUs?

A

SIAS

LOP

328
Q

What happens if you lose PK while the DG is running?

A

The DG will trip and the output breaker will stay closed causing the DG to motorize

329
Q

The CPC Operational Bypass will automatically come out of Bypass when power reaches ______%.

A

10 (-4)%

330
Q

Following an inadvertent CSAS with a SIAS, what must the operator do to start a CS pump?

A

Go to START twice

331
Q

What happens if a short occurs on an NC pump when the bus has no control power?

A

The feeder breaker for the NB bus will open

332
Q

How would PNA in Unit 1 be restored on a loss of PKA?

A

By manual shift to its voltage regulator

333
Q

What are the interlocks that must be met before a CW Pump can be started?

A

Its discharge must be closed

Its waterbox outlet valve must be open

334
Q

What happens to the PC pumps on a LOOP?

A

They will both lose power. However, they can be manually restarted once the DGs are on the bus.

335
Q

CEAC penalty factor _________ over a _____ hour period due to xenon redistribution.

A

increases

6 hour

336
Q

What is the purpose of the MSIV Bypass Valves?

A

To warm up downstream piping and to equalize pressure around the MSIVs

337
Q

What other system uses the SBCS Master Controller?

A

DFWCS;

for use in 1E anticipitory control

338
Q

What would happen if during a LOFP RPCB a LLR RPCB was manually initiated?

A

This would result in the SBCS Valves Quick Opening

339
Q

If you lose GS, what must be done with the secondary plant?

A

Trip the Turbine and break vacuum

340
Q

Loads in excess of _______ lbs shall be prohibited from travel over fuel assemblies in the storage pool.

A

2000 lbs

341
Q

How is the position of the Pressurizer Safeties determined?

A

Acoustic Monitors

342
Q

Hot Gas Bypass prevents _____________.

A

Surging

343
Q

How long can the DG run without SP flow?

A

2.6 minutes loaded

15 minutes unloaded

344
Q

What is the max temperature allowed for SDC?

A

350F

345
Q

What happens to speed and voltage control of the DG if it is taken to override?

A

Speed and Voltage control are restored to the Control Room

346
Q

How does CEDMCS determine that the UGS has been reached?

A

Once a certain number of pulse counts is attained

347
Q

What happens to the CVCS system on a loss of PK?

A

The Auxiliary Spray valves fail closed

348
Q

What is control power to the RTSG?

A

PK

349
Q

There’s a Reactor Trip with a MSIS. No operator actions. What is the plant doing?

A

AF feeding both SGs and SG safeties controlling SG Pressure at 1250 psig.

350
Q

What information from QSPDS is sent to B02?

A

The more limiting of either RCS or Upper Vessel Head Saturation Margin

351
Q

The TEST/RESET button is backlit on the RPCB control panel. A RPCB occurs. What happens?

A

Signals will be sent but no rods will drop

352
Q

What must be done to regain heater control if RCN-LT-110Y fails low?

A

The heater selector switch must be taken to the X channel

353
Q

AFA requires _______ rpm for adequate lubrication.

A

1000

354
Q

How do the valves fail for the AR post filter blower on a loss of IA?

A

Through the filter

355
Q

What protects the Remote Shutdown Panel from fire?

A

Halon

356
Q

What will trip the Control Room Normal AHU?

A

LOP
SIAS
CREFAS
CRVIAS

357
Q

Reactor Power is ramping up at 15% per minute. How long before you get a VOPT?

A

2 minutes

358
Q

What is the design basis for CPC’s?

A

To prevent exceeding Specified Acceptable Fuel Design Limits (SAFDLs)

359
Q

What effect does a loss of IA have on the GS unloading valve?

A

none

360
Q

A higher generator frequency results in a _________ load when synching onto the grid.

A

higher

361
Q

B CD pump is running with one suction valve open. If this valve is taken off its open seat, will anything happen?

A

Yes, the pump will trip

362
Q

What is reflux boiling?

A

A flow path from the hot leg to the SG and back down the hot leg.

363
Q

A CPIAS will close the __________ __________ Isolation Valves.

A

Refueling Purge

364
Q

What closes the Hydrogen Analyzer supply valves? Can they be overridden?

A

CIAS

Yes

365
Q

What signals will close the Power Access Purge Containment Isolation valves?

A

CIAS

CPIAS

366
Q

During a Refueling Purge, a __________ pressure is maintained due to the exhaust fans having a _________ capacity than the supply fans.

A

negative

higher

367
Q

Where does the LRS Evaporator Steam Condensate Pump send its discharge?

A

The AS Receiver Tank

368
Q

What flow rate is required to keep hydrogen below the combustion limit during a waste gas release?

A

25000 scfm

369
Q

How long before a Radwaste alarm rings in the Control Room?

A

5 minutes

370
Q

What is the purpose in the GR Surge Tank?

A

Absorbs fluctuations in gas volume to minimize compressor run time.

371
Q

If RU-7 alarms, to where does the AS Receiver Tank discharge get sent?

A

Low TDS Holdup Tank