Practice Test 2 - Data & Specimen Collection & Handling

Question 1

What is a neutrophil?

a) A bacteria that prefers a neutral (pH 7) environment
b) A type of coagulation factor in the blood
c) A type of white blood cell
d) An atom with more neutrons than electrons

Answer 1

c) A type of white blood cell

Question 2

What is thiamine?

a) A respiratory stimulant
b) A vitamin
c) An amino acid
d) An antibiotic

Answer 2

b) Vitamin

Thiamine is the chemical name for vitamin B1

Question 3

A thrombus is a:

a) blood clot
b) instrument for measuring blood pressure
c) moving foreign body in the bloodstream
d) type of needle for aspirating pleural fluid

Answer 3

a) blood clot

Question 4

What is phagocytosis?

a) An abnormally high number of phagocytes in the blood
b) An autoimmune disease where phagocytes attack the body’s own cells
c) The process by which phagocytes engulf foreign material
d) The process by which phagocytes move

Answer 4

c) The process by which phagocytes engulf foreign material

Question 5

Which term of position literally means “toward the tail” and describes a position below another part of the body?

a) Caudal
b) Cephalic
c) Distal
d) Dorsal

Answer 5

c) Caudal

Caudal (or inferior), describes a position below another body part.

Cephalic means “toward the head” and describes a position above another part of the body

Distal means further away

Dorsal refers too the back

Question 6

What is the term for movement away from the midline of the body?

a) Abduction
b) Adduction
c) Inversion
d) Retrusion

Answer 6

a) Abduction

A movement toward the midline is known as ADDuction

Question 7

What does the suffix
‘-poesis” mean?

a) Dilation
b) Falling
c) Production
d) Softening

Answer 7

c) Production

Examples;
erythropoiesis - the production of red blood cells
thrombopoiesis - the production of platelets

Question 8

XDP stands for:

a) cross draw procedure
b) extraneous draw procedure
c) serum crosslinked fibrin
d) xerostomia

Answer 8

c) serum crosslinked fibrin

Question 9

What is hematuria?

a) A disease where the body makes to much blood
b) Blood in the eye
c) Blood in the urine
d) Kidney stones

Answer 9

c) Blood in the urine

Question 10

The simplest form of carbohydrate is called a:

a) free fatty acids
b) glycerol molecule
c) monosaccharide
d) nucleotide

Answer 10

c) monosaccharide

Question 11

Amylase breaks down:

a) carbohydrates
b) enzymes
c) fats
d) proteins

Answer 11

a) carbohydrates

Question 12

The kidney is part of which organ system?

a) Circulatory
b) Digestive
c) Endocrine
d) Urinary

Answer 12

d) Urinary

Kidneys main function is to filter waste products from the blood and produce urine.

Question 13

What is the primary structure of proteins?

a) The configuration of alpha-helices
b) The presence of disulfide bridges
c) The sequence of amino acids
d) The spatial arrangement of proteins subunits

Answer 13

c) The sequence of amino acids

Primary structure is the simplest level of structure in proteins, sequence of amino acids

Question 14

The bladder and kidney are organs of which body system?

a) Endocrine
b) Immune
c) Lymphatic
d) Urinary

Answer 14

Urinary

Question 15

Which two DNA bases are called purine bases?

a) Adenine and cytosine
b) Adenine and guanine
b) Thymine and cytosine
d) Thymine and guanine

Answer 15

Adenine and guanine

Question 16

Which body tissue stores unneeded, extra energy?

a) Bone
b) Fat
c) Muscle
d) Skin

Answer 16

b) Fat

Body changes excess energy into fat

Question 17

What is known as the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a) Purkinje fibers
b) SA node
c) bundle branches
d) bundle of HIS

Answer 17

b) SA node

Question 18

What are the two main types of angina?

a) Acute and chronic
b) Slow and rapid
c) Stable and unstable
d) Venous and arterial

Answer 18

c) Stable and unstable

Angina is chest pain due to the heart not receiving enough oxygen.

Stable angina is the most common type. The heart follows a regular pattern and it happens during exercise.
Unstable angina is the most dangerous type. It does not follow a pattern and can happen without exercise. A sign that a heart attack could be imminent.

Question 19

Type 1 diabetes:

a) arises during pregnancy
b) can be cured
c) is an autoimmune disease
d) is the most common form of diabetes

Answer 19

c) is an autoimmune disease

Type I diabetes is a condition where the body attacks and destroys the cells that make insulin.

The type of diabetes that arises during pregnancy is gestational diabetes.

Type 2 diabetes is the most common form of diabetes.

Question 20

In which disease is the body unable to use glucose for energy?

a) Diabetes
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Stroke

Answer 20

Diabetes

In both Type 1 & Type 2 diabetes, the body either produces insufficient insulin (Type 1) or cannot use insulin effectively (Type 2). Without proper insulin function, cells are unable to access glucose for energy.

Question 21

What type of tissue is blood?

a) Connective
b) Epithelial
c) Muscular
d) Nervous

Answer 21

Connective

Question 22

55% of blood is:

a) hemoglobin
b) plasma
c) red blood cells
d) white blood cells

Answer 22

b) plasma

Question 23

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

a) Cardiac, smooth and skeletal
b) Internal, external and connectors
c) Peripheral, central and core
d) Protractors, retractors and reactors

Answer 23

a) Cardiac, smooth and skeletal

Question 24

Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs ?

a) Circulatory
b) Lymphatic
c) Respiratory
d) Skeletal

Answer 24

a) Circulatory

Question 25

When a muscle contracts, it: a) lengthens and pulls a bone b) lengthens and pushes a bone c) shortens and pulls a bone d) shortens and pushes a bone

Answer 25

c) shortens and pulls a bone

Question 26

Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone? a) Parathyroid b) Pituitary c) Testes d) Thyroid

Answer 26

b) Pituitary It stimulates thee thyroid gland to produce T3 & T4

Question 27

Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system? a) Brain b) Pancreas c) Spleen d) Stomach

Answer 27

b) Pancreas The endocrine system is a series of glands that produce and secrete hormones. Major glands are the pineal gland, pituitary gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, hypothalamus and adrenal glands Brain is part of the nervous system Spleen is part of the lymphatic system Stomach is part of the digestive system

Question 28

To reach the urinary bladder, urine passes from the kidney through a tube called the: a) renal column b) renal pelvis c) ureter d) urethra

Answer 28

c) ureter

Question 29

What colour is bilirubin? a) Blue b) Red c) White d) Yellow

Answer 29

d) Yellow Accumulation in the body's tissues can cause yellowish discolouration of the skin, eyes and mucous membranes, a condition called jaundice.

Question 30

The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum, and: a) cecum b) colon c) ileum d) rectum

Answer 30

c) ileum Large intestine consists of: cecum, colon, rectum and anal canal

Question 31

The central nervous system includes the: a) brain and spinal cord b) heart c) somatic nerves d) spinal nerves

Answer 31

a) brain and spinal cord

Question 32

Ribosomes are involved with: a) active transport b) energy production c) fluid balance d) protein synthesis

Answer 32

d) protein synthesis Ribosome reads the messenger RNA sequence and translates that generic code into a string of amino acids.

Question 33

Which organ system is responsible for regulating the secretion of hormones? a) Digestive b) Endocrine c) Reproductive d) Urinary

Answer 33

b) Endocrine

Question 34

Which organ system transports oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the body's cells? a) Cardiovascular b) Digestive c) Endocrine d) Respiratory

Answer 34

a) Cardiovascular

Question 35

The spleen and thymus are part of which organ system? a) Endocrine b) Lymphatic c) Nervous d) Reproductive

Answer 35

b) Lymphatic

Question 36

Addison's disease, Graves' disease, and Hashimoto's disease are all diseases of which body system? a) Digestive b) Endocrine c) Immune d) Respiratory

Answer 36

b) Endocrine

Question 37

Which of these is a function of the integumentary system? a) Digestion of food b) Filtration of blood c) Production of red blood cells d) Regulation of body temperature

Answer 37

d) Regulation of body temperature Integumentary system consists of the skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands. Regulation of body temperature is achieved through mechanisms such as sweating, blood vessel dilation, and blood vessel constriction

Question 38

Which organ system is a drainage network that helps keep bodily fluid levels in balance and defends the body against infections? a) Endocrine b) Lymphatic c) Reticuloendothelial d) Urinary

Answer 38

b) Lymphatic Lymphatic system is a drainage system that removes excess fluid and waste from the tissues. It also produces cells and antibodies that protect the body from infections.

Question 39

Red blood cells are also known as: a) eosinophils b) erythrocytes c) monocytes d) thrombocytes

Answer 39

b) erythrocytes

Question 40

The cell most likely to kill viruses and cancer cells is the: a) cytotoxic T cell b) Killer B cell c) plasma cell d) suppressor B cell

Answer 40

b) Killer B cell

Question 41

Pipetting of biological specimens by mouth is: a) hazardous and unacceptable b) necessary when collecting capillary samples c) permissible if one is careful d) required when performing serological tests

Answer 41

a) hazardous and unacceptable

Question 42

Which pipette is the most accurate? a) Bulb b) Graduated c) Pasteur d) Volumetric

Answer 42

d) Volumetric Volumetric pipettes have a single graduation mark and are designed to dispense a single, precise volume of liquid, typically to an accuracy of ±0.02%,

Question 43

What is the term for a microorganism that grows best in the presence of low amounts of oxygen? a) Facultative aerobe b) Microaerophile c) Reduced aerobe d) Secondary aerobe

Answer 43

b) Microaerophile Microaerophiles are microorganisms that grow best in environments containing lower levels of oxygen than in the atmosphere

Question 44

Which of these health problems can cause occult blood in feces? a) A bleeding ulcer b) Heart disease c) Hypertension d) Malignancy of the respiratory tract

Answer 44

a) a bleeding ulcer

Question 45

The fluid part of blood remaining after a clot has formed is called: a) heparin b) lymph c) plasma d) serum

Answer 45

d) serum Plasma is the liquid part of blood BEFORE clotting Serum is the fluid part of blood AFTER clotting

Question 46

When a blood specimen in a grey-top tube is centrifuged, what does it separate into? a) Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells b) Plasma, buffy coat and white blood cells c) Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells d) Serum, buffy coat and white blood cells

Answer 46

a) Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells Grey top tubes contain sodium oxalate or potassium oxalate. This chemical prevents blood samples from clotting. When samples in grey-top tubes are centrifuged, they separate into plasma (the liquid that remains when clotting is prevented with the addition of an anticoagulant), buffy coat and red blood cells

Question 47

Which vacutainer tube to collect a blood sample for a Factor IX assay? a) Grey b) Lavender c) Light blue d) SST

Answer 47

c) Light blue

Question 48

Which vacutainer tube is used to collect and separate serum? a) Grey b) Lavender c) Light Blue d) SST

Answer 48

d) SST

Question 49

Westergren tubes are used for which test? a) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate b) Hematocrit c) Microhematocrit d) Reticulocyte count

Answer 49

a) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate a type of sedimentation rate tube

Question 50

Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)? a) Green b) Grey c) Red d) SST

Answer 50

d) SST

Question 51

Which is the preferred specimen for blood cell count? a) EDTA capillary b) EDTA venous c) Heparin capillary d) Heparin venous

Answer 51

d) EDTA venous Blood for hematologic testing is preferably venous and must be collected into a tube containing an anticoagulant, preferably EDTA

Question 52

Some royal blue top tubes contain ________ as an anticoagulant. a) EDTA b) lithium heparin c) sodium citrate d) sodium heparin

Answer 52

a) EDTA

Question 53

Which vacutainer tube contains sodium citrate? a) Black b) Grey c) Light blue d) Pink

Answer 53

c) Light blue

Question 54

What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies? a) Black b) Green c) Grey d) Light blue

Answer 54

d) Light blue contains sodium citrate to prevent the blood sample from clotting

Question 55

Lavender-top collection tubes are used for: a) glucose determinations b) hematology tests c) immunology tests d) molecular diagnostic tests

Answer 55

b) hematology tests

Question 56

Which colour vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing? a) Green b) Grey c) Light blue d) Red

Answer 56

b) Grey Grey-top tubes are primarily used for glucose testing. They contain sodium fluoride, which preserves the glucose in the blood sample by blocking the process of glycolysis.

Question 57

Light blue top tubes are used for what tests? a) Chemistry b) Coagulation c) Hematology d) Serology

Answer 57

b) Coagulation Light blue tubes contain buffered sodium citrate, which is an anticoagulant.

Question 58

Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amberrr-coloured tubes? a) To flag it as a capillary specimen b) To identify it as a bilirubin specimen c) To protect the specimen from light d) To reduce the risk of hemolysis

Answer 58

c) To protect the specimen from light The light can metabolize the bilirubin in the specimen to a different compound, which will cause a falsely lower bilirubin level.

Question 59

PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and: a) EDTA b) lithium heparin c) silica d) sodium citrate

Answer 59

b) lithium heparin PST tubes contain lithium heparin and a gel for plasma separation

Question 60

Which medication might cause a patient to bleed excessively form a venipuncture site? a) A herbal medicine b) An anticoagulant c) Birth control pills d) Medicine for high cholesterol

Answer 60

b) An anticoagulant Anticoagulants reduce the ability of the blood clot, which can cause excessive bleeding

Question 61

What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture? a) A deep hematoma may form c) The needle may go completely through the vein d) The needle may goo through the posterior wall of the vein

Answer 61

b) The needle may enter above the vein The ideal angle for insertion of venipuncture is 15°. An angle less than 15° may cause thee needle to enter above the vein instead, preventing a puncture

Question 62

In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma? a) Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle b) Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent c) Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall d) Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed

Answer 62

c) Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall A hematoma is a swollen or raised area at the venipuncture site resulting from the leakage of blood into the tissues. A hematoma can happen if the phlebotomist pushes the needle too far into and through the vein, causing blood to leak out of the vein and into the surrounding area

Question 63

Which of these is a sign that an artery has been punctured instead of a vein during phlebotomy? a) The blood is dark blue b) The blood spurts into the tube c) The patient feels intense pain d) The patient has trouble breathing

Answer 63

b) The blood spurts into the tube

Question 64

Which of these would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture? a) Filling the stopper end of the tube first b) Lateral redirection of the needle c) Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow d) Using the wrong order of draw

Answer 64

a) Filling the stopper end of the tube first Reflux is when blood from a collection tube flows back into a patient's vein. Reflux is likely to occur if the stopper end of the tube is filled first, blood in the tube is in contact with the needle and reflux can occur if there is a change in pressure in the patient's vein

Question 65

A phlebotomist needs to perform venipuncture but cannot find a tourniquet. Which of these could the phlebotomist use instead of a tourniquet? a) Band-aid b) Blood pressure cuff c) Fentanyl patch d) Nicotine patch

Answer 65

b) Blood pressure cuff

Question 66

Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture? a) To avoid puncturing a vein b) To prevent bacterial contamination c) To prevent bone injury d) To prevent excessive bleeding

Answer 66

c) To prevent bone injury For obese and geriatric patients, a blood pressure cuff works better than a tourniquet

Question 67

Which part of an infant's foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture? a) The central area of the heel b) The lateral plantar heel surface c) The medial area of the arch d) The posterior curvature of the heel

Answer 67

b) The lateral plantar heel surface The most medial or lateral portions of the plantar surface of the heel are the safest places to perform a capillary puncture because the skin here is thickest. Capillary punctures should never be done on the posterior curvature of the heel. The skin on the posterior heel is particularly thin (around 2mm) so there is a high risk of hitting the bone

Question 68

Tourniquets should be: a) applied very tightly to the arm b) left on the arm for at least 3 minutes c) tight enough to slow the arterial flow d) tight enough to slow venous flow

Answer 68

d) tight enough to slow venous flow The tourniquet should be tight enough to slow venous flow without affecting the arterial flow. Leaving the tourniquet on longer than 1 minute could cause blood pooling at the venipuncture site and lead to falsely elevated results.

Question 69

Why should capillary punctures never be performed on an infant's finger? a) It could cause excessive blood loss b) It could damage bones and nerves c) The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body d) There is a high risk the infant will move their finger during the puncture

Answer 69

b) It could damage bones and nerves An infant's fingers should never be punctured due to the risk of damaging nerves and bones. Finger tissue is thin and there is only a short distance to other bones and main nerves of the fingers. The heel of the foot should be used instead.

Question 70

Which of these would be the best choice of the equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein? a) A 21 gauge needle and ETS holder b) A 21 gauge needle and syringe c) A 23 gauge butterfly and ETS holder d) A 27 gauge butterfly and syringe

Answer 70

c) A 23 gauge butterfly and ETS holder The veins in the hand are small and fragile. A winged blood collection set with a 23G needle is the best choice for hand veins since it lets the phlebotomist control access to fragile veins easier. A 21G needle is too big for a small hand vein. A 27G needle is too small for collecting blood. The hole in the needle is too small for blood cells to pass without getting damaged.

Question 71

What is the most common antiseptic used in venipuncture? a) 70% isopropyl alcohol b) Betadine c) EMLA d) Iodine

Answer 71

a) 70% isopropyl alcohol

Question 72

When collecting blood from a finger, why should the puncture be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations? a) To make the blood sample easier to collect b) To prevent excessive bleeding c) To prevent the needlestick injury from forming a scar d) To reduce pain

Answer 72

a) To make the blood sample easier to collect When taking a capillary specimen from a finger, the phlebotomist should align the puncture device perpendicular (at a right angle) to the whorls of the fingerprint. This cross-cut of the fingerprint whorls causes the blood to bead at the puncture site, allowing the phlebotomist to efficiently collect the drops of blood. If the puncture is made parallel to the fingerprint whorls, the blood will not bead, but rather it will travel down the channels between the lines of the fingerprint. This makes it difficult to collect the blood into the container.

Question 73

When performing venipuncture with a syringe, what could happen if you pull the plunger up too quickly when collecting the specimen? a) A needle stick injury b) Adulteration of the specimen c) Bacterial contamination d) Hemolysis of the specimen

Answer 73

d) Hemolysis of the specimen Pulling the plunger up to oquuickly can create excessive negative pressure in the syringe, causing red blood cells to rupture, which is termed hemolysis. Hemolyzed samples can lead to inaccurate test results, especially for tests that require the analysis of serum or plasma components.

Question 74

Which of these is an appropriate needle for a forearm vein? a) 10 gauge b) 15 gauge c) 20 gauge d) 25 gauge

Answer 74

c) 20 gauge 20 or 21 gauge needles are used for forearm veins.

Question 75

The sweat test is used to diagnose which disease? a) Cystic fibrosis b) Infection c) Muscular dystrophy d) Pneumonia

Answer 75

a) Cystic fibrosis Thee sweat test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing cystic fibrosis.

Question 76

Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing: a) SAF fixative b) agar c) saline d) sodium hypochlorite

Answer 76

SAF fixative Helps preserve intestinal parasites in stool samples.

Question 77

Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone? a) Adrenocorticotropic hormone b) Estrogen c) Human chorionic gonadotropin d) Progesterone

Answer 77

c) Human chorionic gonadotropin

Question 78

Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test? a) Fish b) Popcorn c) Red meat d) Whole wheat bread

Answer 78

c) Red meat Two days before and the day of the test, patients should stop eating red meat, beets, broccoli, cantaloupe, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, horseradish, mushrooms, radishes, and turnips, because all of these can cause false positives on the test.

Question 79

Which of these tests is collected first during a single capillary puncture? a) Complete blood count b) Electrolytes c) Glucose d) Phosphorus

Answer 79

a) Complete blood count With skin punctures, hematology specimens are collected first, followed by chemistry specimens (such as glucose and phosphorus) and blood bank specimens. This order helps minimize the effects of platelet clumping.

Question 80

Which of these statements about the blood gas test is true? a) The specimen is collected in a plain red top tube b) The specimen is frozen immediately after collecting c) The specimen is tested within 24 hours d) The test requires an arterial sample

Answer 80

d) The test requires an arterial sample A blood gas test is also called an arterial blood gas test. It measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood from an artery in the wrist.

Question 81

Which of these is a patient identifier? a) Date of collection b) Patient name c) Specimen type d) Time of collection

Answer 81

b) Patient name Patient identifiers are items of information that can be used to identify a patient. Ex. patients name, patients birth date, patient medical record number, and the patient's telephone number.

Question 82

What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test? a) Blood b) Sputum c) Stool d) Urine

Answer 82

c) Stool The Hemoccult test is also known as the fecal occult blood test. The test detects the presence of blood in the stool samples.

Question 83

Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection. a) A preservative may be used for some tests b) Collections during the night arrer discarded c) Testing is done in clinical chemistry d) The first timed specimen is discarded

Answer 83

b) Collections during the night arrer discarded

Question 84

Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for: a) bacteria b) glucose c) occult blood d) protein

Answer 84

a) bacteria A clean-catch is a way of collecting urine without contaminating the urine sample with bacteria from the skin. This method is needed for urine culture tests, to prevent false positives.

Question 85

What preservative is needed for total protein 24-hour urine tests? a) Chloorhexidine b) HCl c) NaHCO3 d) No preservative

Answer 85

d) No preservative Preservatives are not necessary for measuring total protein in urine.

Question 86

Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test? a) Blood culture b) Cardiac enzymes c) Complete blood count d) Glucose

Answer 86

d) Glucose Food, especially food high in sugar and carbohydrates like muffins and orange juice, can cause a temporary increase in blood sugar levels. This can affect the accuracy of the glucose test and lead to a false high reading.

Question 87

A routine glucose tolerance test (GTT) requires: a) one blood sample b) one urine sample c) two or more blood samples d) two or more urine samples

Answer 87

a) two or more blood samples A glucose tolerance test (GTT) is to see if the patient has diabetes. First, a baseline blood sample is taken. Then, the patient drinks a glucose solution. After that, another sample is taken at intervals to see how the patient's body reacts to the glucose.

Question 88

You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You draw the fasting specimen at 8:15am. You give the glucose drink The patient finishes the glucose drink at 8:30am. When should you collect the 2-hour specimen? a) 10:15am b) 10:22am c) 10:27am d) 10:30am

Answer 88

d) 10:30am You should draw the two-hourr specimen exactly two hours after the patient finishes the glucose drink.

Question 89

Semen samples must be tested within how many hours after collection? a) 1 hour b) 6 hours c) 12 hours d) 24 hours

Answer 89

a) 1 hour Sperm motility and othe rparametes rapidly decline once semen is out of the body for this reason, semen samples typically must be analyzed within one hour after collection.

Question 90

In the context of shipping hazardous substances, what does this label mean? a) The goods are being shipped in a limited quality b) The goods are categorized as a miscellaneous hazard c) The hazards of the goods are unknown d) The material inside is fragile

Answer 90

a) The goods are being shipped in a limited quality It is used for hazardous goods shipped in small containers.

Question 91

Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be: a) discarded b) frozen c) left at room temperature d) refrigerated

Answer 91

d) refrigerated If you anticipate delays in transportation to the laboratory, you should refrigerate the urine specimen. If left at room temperature, the bacteria in the urine sample will multiply and will affect test results.

Question 92

Which of these tests indicates the health of a kidneys? a) ALT b) Bilirubin c) Creatinine clearance d) TSH

Answer 92

c) Creatinine clearance Creatinine clearance is a measure used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which reflects how well the kidneys aer filtering waste products from the blood. Bilirubin and ALT are related to the liver function, not kidney health. TSH is related to thyroid function, not kidney.