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National Exam CSLMS > Practice Test 2 - Data & Specimen Collection & Handling > Flashcards

Practice Test 2 - Data & Specimen Collection & Handling Flashcards

1
Q

What is a neutrophil?

a) A bacteria that prefers a neutral (pH 7) environment
b) A type of coagulation factor in the blood
c) A type of white blood cell
d) An atom with more neutrons than electrons

A

c) A type of white blood cell

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2
Q

What is thiamine?

a) A respiratory stimulant
b) A vitamin
c) An amino acid
d) An antibiotic

A

b) Vitamin

Thiamine is the chemical name for vitamin B1

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3
Q

A thrombus is a:

a) blood clot
b) instrument for measuring blood pressure
c) moving foreign body in the bloodstream
d) type of needle for aspirating pleural fluid

A

a) blood clot

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4
Q

What is phagocytosis?

a) An abnormally high number of phagocytes in the blood
b) An autoimmune disease where phagocytes attack the body’s own cells
c) The process by which phagocytes engulf foreign material
d) The process by which phagocytes move

A

c) The process by which phagocytes engulf foreign material

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5
Q

Which term of position literally means “toward the tail” and describes a position below another part of the body?

a) Caudal
b) Cephalic
c) Distal
d) Dorsal

A

c) Caudal

Caudal (or inferior), describes a position below another body part.

Cephalic means “toward the head” and describes a position above another part of the body

Distal means further away

Dorsal refers too the back

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6
Q

What is the term for movement away from the midline of the body?

a) Abduction
b) Adduction
c) Inversion
d) Retrusion

A

a) Abduction

A movement toward the midline is known as ADDuction

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7
Q

What does the suffix
‘-poesis” mean?

a) Dilation
b) Falling
c) Production
d) Softening

A

c) Production

Examples;
erythropoiesis - the production of red blood cells
thrombopoiesis - the production of platelets

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8
Q

XDP stands for:

a) cross draw procedure
b) extraneous draw procedure
c) serum crosslinked fibrin
d) xerostomia

A

c) serum crosslinked fibrin

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9
Q

What is hematuria?

a) A disease where the body makes to much blood
b) Blood in the eye
c) Blood in the urine
d) Kidney stones

A

c) Blood in the urine

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10
Q

The simplest form of carbohydrate is called a:

a) free fatty acids
b) glycerol molecule
c) monosaccharide
d) nucleotide

A

c) monosaccharide

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11
Q

Amylase breaks down:

a) carbohydrates
b) enzymes
c) fats
d) proteins

A

a) carbohydrates

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12
Q

The kidney is part of which organ system?

a) Circulatory
b) Digestive
c) Endocrine
d) Urinary

A

d) Urinary

Kidneys main function is to filter waste products from the blood and produce urine.

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13
Q

What is the primary structure of proteins?

a) The configuration of alpha-helices
b) The presence of disulfide bridges
c) The sequence of amino acids
d) The spatial arrangement of proteins subunits

A

c) The sequence of amino acids

Primary structure is the simplest level of structure in proteins, sequence of amino acids

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14
Q

The bladder and kidney are organs of which body system?

a) Endocrine
b) Immune
c) Lymphatic
d) Urinary

A

Urinary

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15
Q

Which two DNA bases are called purine bases?

a) Adenine and cytosine
b) Adenine and guanine
b) Thymine and cytosine
d) Thymine and guanine

A

Adenine and guanine

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16
Q

Which body tissue stores unneeded, extra energy?

a) Bone
b) Fat
c) Muscle
d) Skin

A

b) Fat

Body changes excess energy into fat

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17
Q

What is known as the primary pacemaker of the heart?

a) Purkinje fibers
b) SA node
c) bundle branches
d) bundle of HIS

A

b) SA node

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18
Q

What are the two main types of angina?

a) Acute and chronic
b) Slow and rapid
c) Stable and unstable
d) Venous and arterial

A

c) Stable and unstable

Angina is chest pain due to the heart not receiving enough oxygen.

Stable angina is the most common type. The heart follows a regular pattern and it happens during exercise.
Unstable angina is the most dangerous type. It does not follow a pattern and can happen without exercise. A sign that a heart attack could be imminent.

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19
Q

Type 1 diabetes:

a) arises during pregnancy
b) can be cured
c) is an autoimmune disease
d) is the most common form of diabetes

A

c) is an autoimmune disease

Type I diabetes is a condition where the body attacks and destroys the cells that make insulin.

The type of diabetes that arises during pregnancy is gestational diabetes.

Type 2 diabetes is the most common form of diabetes.

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20
Q

In which disease is the body unable to use glucose for energy?

a) Diabetes
b) Hyperglycemia
c) Hypoglycemia
d) Stroke

A

Diabetes

In both Type 1 & Type 2 diabetes, the body either produces insufficient insulin (Type 1) or cannot use insulin effectively (Type 2). Without proper insulin function, cells are unable to access glucose for energy.

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21
Q

What type of tissue is blood?

a) Connective
b) Epithelial
c) Muscular
d) Nervous

A

Connective

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22
Q

55% of blood is:

a) hemoglobin
b) plasma
c) red blood cells
d) white blood cells

A

b) plasma

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23
Q

What are the three types of muscle tissue?

a) Cardiac, smooth and skeletal
b) Internal, external and connectors
c) Peripheral, central and core
d) Protractors, retractors and reactors

A

a) Cardiac, smooth and skeletal

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24
Q

Which organ system transports carbon dioxide to the lungs ?

a) Circulatory
b) Lymphatic
c) Respiratory
d) Skeletal

A

a) Circulatory

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25
Q

When a muscle contracts, it:

a) lengthens and pulls a bone
b) lengthens and pushes a bone
c) shortens and pulls a bone
d) shortens and pushes a bone

A

c) shortens and pulls a bone

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26
Q

Which gland produces thyroid-stimulating hormone?

a) Parathyroid
b) Pituitary
c) Testes
d) Thyroid

A

b) Pituitary

It stimulates thee thyroid gland to produce T3 & T4

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27
Q

Which of these is an organ of the endocrine system?

a) Brain
b) Pancreas
c) Spleen
d) Stomach

A

b) Pancreas

The endocrine system is a series of glands that produce and secrete hormones. Major glands are the pineal gland, pituitary gland, pancreas, ovaries, testes, thyroid gland, parathyroid gland, hypothalamus and adrenal glands

Brain is part of the nervous system
Spleen is part of the lymphatic system
Stomach is part of the digestive system

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28
Q

To reach the urinary bladder, urine passes from the kidney through a tube called the:

a) renal column
b) renal pelvis
c) ureter
d) urethra

A

c) ureter

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29
Q

What colour is bilirubin?

a) Blue
b) Red
c) White
d) Yellow

A

d) Yellow

Accumulation in the body’s tissues can cause yellowish discolouration of the skin, eyes and mucous membranes, a condition called jaundice.

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30
Q

The small intestine consists of the duodenum, jejunum, and:

a) cecum
b) colon
c) ileum
d) rectum

A

c) ileum

Large intestine consists of:
cecum, colon, rectum and anal canal

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31
Q

The central nervous system includes the:

a) brain and spinal cord
b) heart
c) somatic nerves
d) spinal nerves

A

a) brain and spinal cord

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32
Q

Ribosomes are involved with:

a) active transport
b) energy production
c) fluid balance
d) protein synthesis

A

d) protein synthesis

Ribosome reads the messenger RNA sequence and translates that generic code into a string of amino acids.

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33
Q

Which organ system is responsible for regulating the secretion of hormones?

a) Digestive
b) Endocrine
c) Reproductive
d) Urinary

A

b) Endocrine

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34
Q

Which organ system transports oxygen, nutrients, and hormones to the body’s cells?

a) Cardiovascular
b) Digestive
c) Endocrine
d) Respiratory

A

a) Cardiovascular

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35
Q

The spleen and thymus are part of which organ system?

a) Endocrine
b) Lymphatic
c) Nervous
d) Reproductive

A

b) Lymphatic

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36
Q

Addison’s disease, Graves’ disease, and Hashimoto’s disease are all diseases of which body system?

a) Digestive
b) Endocrine
c) Immune
d) Respiratory

A

b) Endocrine

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37
Q

Which of these is a function of the integumentary system?

a) Digestion of food
b) Filtration of blood
c) Production of red blood cells
d) Regulation of body temperature

A

d) Regulation of body temperature

Integumentary system consists of the skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands.
Regulation of body temperature is achieved through mechanisms such as sweating, blood vessel dilation, and blood vessel constriction

38
Q

Which organ system is a drainage network that helps keep bodily fluid levels in balance and defends the body against infections?

a) Endocrine
b) Lymphatic
c) Reticuloendothelial
d) Urinary

A

b) Lymphatic

Lymphatic system is a drainage system that removes excess fluid and waste from the tissues. It also produces cells and antibodies that protect the body from infections.

39
Q

Red blood cells are also known as:

a) eosinophils
b) erythrocytes
c) monocytes
d) thrombocytes

A

b) erythrocytes

40
Q

The cell most likely to kill viruses and cancer cells is the:

a) cytotoxic T cell
b) Killer B cell
c) plasma cell
d) suppressor B cell

A

b) Killer B cell

41
Q

Pipetting of biological specimens by mouth is:

a) hazardous and unacceptable
b) necessary when collecting capillary samples
c) permissible if one is careful
d) required when performing serological tests

A

a) hazardous and unacceptable

42
Q

Which pipette is the most accurate?

a) Bulb
b) Graduated
c) Pasteur
d) Volumetric

A

d) Volumetric

Volumetric pipettes have a single graduation mark and are designed to dispense a single, precise volume of liquid, typically to an accuracy of ±0.02%,

43
Q

What is the term for a microorganism that grows best in the presence of low amounts of oxygen?

a) Facultative aerobe
b) Microaerophile
c) Reduced aerobe
d) Secondary aerobe

A

b) Microaerophile

Microaerophiles are microorganisms that grow best in environments containing lower levels of oxygen than in the atmosphere

44
Q

Which of these health problems can cause occult blood in feces?

a) A bleeding ulcer
b) Heart disease
c) Hypertension
d) Malignancy of the respiratory tract

A

a) a bleeding ulcer

45
Q

The fluid part of blood remaining after a clot has formed is called:

a) heparin
b) lymph
c) plasma
d) serum

A

d) serum

Plasma is the liquid part of blood BEFORE clotting

Serum is the fluid part of blood AFTER clotting

46
Q

When a blood specimen in a grey-top tube is centrifuged, what does it separate into?

a) Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells
b) Plasma, buffy coat and white blood cells
c) Serum, buffy coat and red blood cells
d) Serum, buffy coat and white blood cells

A

a) Plasma, buffy coat and red blood cells

Grey top tubes contain sodium oxalate or potassium oxalate. This chemical prevents blood samples from clotting. When samples in grey-top tubes are centrifuged, they separate into plasma (the liquid that remains when clotting is prevented with the addition of an anticoagulant), buffy coat and red blood cells

47
Q

Which vacutainer tube to collect a blood sample for a Factor IX assay?

a) Grey
b) Lavender
c) Light blue
d) SST

A

c) Light blue

48
Q

Which vacutainer tube is used to collect and separate serum?

a) Grey
b) Lavender
c) Light Blue
d) SST

A

d) SST

49
Q

Westergren tubes are used for which test?

a) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
b) Hematocrit
c) Microhematocrit
d) Reticulocyte count

A

a) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

a type of sedimentation rate tube

50
Q

Which tube would be drawn for an antinuclear antibody test (ANA)?

a) Green
b) Grey
c) Red
d) SST

A

d) SST

51
Q

Which is the preferred specimen for blood cell count?

a) EDTA capillary
b) EDTA venous
c) Heparin capillary
d) Heparin venous

A

d) EDTA venous

Blood for hematologic testing is preferably venous and must be collected into a tube containing an anticoagulant, preferably EDTA

52
Q

Some royal blue top tubes contain ________ as an anticoagulant.

a) EDTA
b) lithium heparin
c) sodium citrate
d) sodium heparin

A

a) EDTA

53
Q

Which vacutainer tube contains sodium citrate?

a) Black
b) Grey
c) Light blue
d) Pink

A

c) Light blue

54
Q

What vacutainer tube is used for coagulation studies?

a) Black
b) Green
c) Grey
d) Light blue

A

d) Light blue

contains sodium citrate to prevent the blood sample from clotting

55
Q

Lavender-top collection tubes are used for:

a) glucose determinations
b) hematology tests
c) immunology tests
d) molecular diagnostic tests

A

b) hematology tests

56
Q

Which colour vacutainer tube is used for glucose testing?

a) Green
b) Grey
c) Light blue
d) Red

A

b) Grey

Grey-top tubes are primarily used for glucose testing. They contain sodium fluoride, which preserves the glucose in the blood sample by blocking the process of glycolysis.

57
Q

Light blue top tubes are used for what tests?

a) Chemistry
b) Coagulation
c) Hematology
d) Serology

A

b) Coagulation

Light blue tubes contain buffered sodium citrate, which is an anticoagulant.

58
Q

Why are infant bilirubin specimens obtained in amberrr-coloured tubes?

a) To flag it as a capillary specimen
b) To identify it as a bilirubin specimen
c) To protect the specimen from light
d) To reduce the risk of hemolysis

A

c) To protect the specimen from light

The light can metabolize the bilirubin in the specimen to a different compound, which will cause a falsely lower bilirubin level.

59
Q

PST tubes contain a gel plasma separator and:

a) EDTA
b) lithium heparin
c) silica
d) sodium citrate

A

b) lithium heparin

PST tubes contain lithium heparin and a gel for plasma separation

60
Q

Which medication might cause a patient to bleed excessively form a venipuncture site?

a) A herbal medicine
b) An anticoagulant
c) Birth control pills
d) Medicine for high cholesterol

A

b) An anticoagulant

Anticoagulants reduce the ability of the blood clot, which can cause excessive bleeding

61
Q

What might happen if an angle of 8 degrees is used when performing venipuncture?

a) A deep hematoma may form
c) The needle may go completely through the vein
d) The needle may goo through the posterior wall of the vein

A

b) The needle may enter above the vein

The ideal angle for insertion of venipuncture is 15°. An angle less than 15° may cause thee needle to enter above the vein instead, preventing a puncture

62
Q

In venipuncture, which of these actions may cause a hematoma?

a) Applying pressure to the puncture site after removing the needle
b) Asking the patient to form a fist so the veins are more prominent
c) Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall
d) Removing the tourniquet before the needle is removed

A

c) Inserting the needle through the vein and puncturing the opposite wall

A hematoma is a swollen or raised area at the venipuncture site resulting from the leakage of blood into the tissues. A hematoma can happen if the phlebotomist pushes the needle too far into and through the vein, causing blood to leak out of the vein and into the surrounding area

63
Q

Which of these is a sign that an artery has been punctured instead of a vein during phlebotomy?

a) The blood is dark blue
b) The blood spurts into the tube
c) The patient feels intense pain
d) The patient has trouble breathing

A

b) The blood spurts into the tube

64
Q

Which of these would be most likely to allow reflux to occur during venipuncture?

a) Filling the stopper end of the tube first
b) Lateral redirection of the needle
c) Releasing the tourniquet on blood flow
d) Using the wrong order of draw

A

a) Filling the stopper end of the tube first

Reflux is when blood from a collection tube flows back into a patient’s vein. Reflux is likely to occur if the stopper end of the tube is filled first, blood in the tube is in contact with the needle and reflux can occur if there is a change in pressure in the patient’s vein

65
Q

A phlebotomist needs to perform venipuncture but cannot find a tourniquet. Which of these could the phlebotomist use instead of a tourniquet?

a) Band-aid
b) Blood pressure cuff
c) Fentanyl patch
d) Nicotine patch

A

b) Blood pressure cuff

66
Q

Why is it important to control the depth of the lancet insertion during heel puncture?

a) To avoid puncturing a vein
b) To prevent bacterial contamination
c) To prevent bone injury
d) To prevent excessive bleeding

A

c) To prevent bone injury

For obese and geriatric patients, a blood pressure cuff works better than a tourniquet

67
Q

Which part of an infant’s foot is the safest area to perform a capillary puncture?

a) The central area of the heel
b) The lateral plantar heel surface
c) The medial area of the arch
d) The posterior curvature of the heel

A

b) The lateral plantar heel surface

The most medial or lateral portions of the plantar surface of the heel are the safest places to perform a capillary puncture because the skin here is thickest.
Capillary punctures should never be done on the posterior curvature of the heel. The skin on the posterior heel is particularly thin (around 2mm) so there is a high risk of hitting the bone

68
Q

Tourniquets should be:

a) applied very tightly to the arm
b) left on the arm for at least 3 minutes
c) tight enough to slow the arterial flow
d) tight enough to slow venous flow

A

d) tight enough to slow venous flow

The tourniquet should be tight enough to slow venous flow without affecting the arterial flow.
Leaving the tourniquet on longer than 1 minute could cause blood pooling at the venipuncture site and lead to falsely elevated results.

69
Q

Why should capillary punctures never be performed on an infant’s finger?

a) It could cause excessive blood loss
b) It could damage bones and nerves
c) The blood in the finger does not represent blood in the rest of the body
d) There is a high risk the infant will move their finger during the puncture

A

b) It could damage bones and nerves

An infant’s fingers should never be punctured due to the risk of damaging nerves and bones. Finger tissue is thin and there is only a short distance to other bones and main nerves of the fingers. The heel of the foot should be used instead.

70
Q

Which of these would be the best choice of the equipment for drawing blood from a small hand vein?

a) A 21 gauge needle and ETS holder
b) A 21 gauge needle and syringe
c) A 23 gauge butterfly and ETS holder
d) A 27 gauge butterfly and syringe

A

c) A 23 gauge butterfly and ETS holder

The veins in the hand are small and fragile. A winged blood collection set with a 23G needle is the best choice for hand veins since it lets the phlebotomist control access to fragile veins easier.
A 21G needle is too big for a small hand vein.
A 27G needle is too small for collecting blood. The hole in the needle is too small for blood cells to pass without getting damaged.

71
Q

What is the most common antiseptic used in venipuncture?

a) 70% isopropyl alcohol
b) Betadine
c) EMLA
d) Iodine

A

a) 70% isopropyl alcohol

72
Q

When collecting blood from a finger, why should the puncture be made at right angles to the fingerprint striations?

a) To make the blood sample easier to collect
b) To prevent excessive bleeding
c) To prevent the needlestick injury from forming a scar
d) To reduce pain

A

a) To make the blood sample easier to collect

When taking a capillary specimen from a finger, the phlebotomist should align the puncture device perpendicular (at a right angle) to the whorls of the fingerprint. This cross-cut of the fingerprint whorls causes the blood to bead at the puncture site, allowing the phlebotomist to efficiently collect the drops of blood.
If the puncture is made parallel to the fingerprint whorls, the blood will not bead, but rather it will travel down the channels between the lines of the fingerprint. This makes it difficult to collect the blood into the container.

73
Q

When performing venipuncture with a syringe, what could happen if you pull the plunger up too quickly when collecting the specimen?

a) A needle stick injury
b) Adulteration of the specimen
c) Bacterial contamination
d) Hemolysis of the specimen

A

d) Hemolysis of the specimen

Pulling the plunger up to oquuickly can create excessive negative pressure in the syringe, causing red blood cells to rupture, which is termed hemolysis. Hemolyzed samples can lead to inaccurate test results, especially for tests that require the analysis of serum or plasma components.

74
Q

Which of these is an appropriate needle for a forearm vein?

a) 10 gauge
b) 15 gauge
c) 20 gauge
d) 25 gauge

A

c) 20 gauge

20 or 21 gauge needles are used for forearm veins.

75
Q

The sweat test is used to diagnose which disease?

a) Cystic fibrosis
b) Infection
c) Muscular dystrophy
d) Pneumonia

A

a) Cystic fibrosis

Thee sweat test is considered the gold standard for diagnosing cystic fibrosis.

76
Q

Stool specimens for O&P should be collected in a jar containing:

a) SAF fixative
b) agar
c) saline
d) sodium hypochlorite

A

SAF fixative

Helps preserve intestinal parasites in stool samples.

77
Q

Pregnancy test strips detect the presence of which hormone?

a) Adrenocorticotropic hormone
b) Estrogen
c) Human chorionic gonadotropin
d) Progesterone

A

c) Human chorionic gonadotropin

78
Q

Which of these foods should a patient avoid eating before a fecal occult blood test?

a) Fish
b) Popcorn
c) Red meat
d) Whole wheat bread

A

c) Red meat

Two days before and the day of the test, patients should stop eating red meat, beets, broccoli, cantaloupe, carrots, cauliflower, cucumbers, grapefruit, horseradish, mushrooms, radishes, and turnips, because all of these can cause false positives on the test.

79
Q

Which of these tests is collected first during a single capillary puncture?

a) Complete blood count
b) Electrolytes
c) Glucose
d) Phosphorus

A

a) Complete blood count

With skin punctures, hematology specimens are collected first, followed by chemistry specimens (such as glucose and phosphorus) and blood bank specimens. This order helps minimize the effects of platelet clumping.

80
Q

Which of these statements about the blood gas test is true?

a) The specimen is collected in a plain red top tube
b) The specimen is frozen immediately after collecting
c) The specimen is tested within 24 hours
d) The test requires an arterial sample

A

d) The test requires an arterial sample

A blood gas test is also called an arterial blood gas test. It measures oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood from an artery in the wrist.

81
Q

Which of these is a patient identifier?

a) Date of collection
b) Patient name
c) Specimen type
d) Time of collection

A

b) Patient name

Patient identifiers are items of information that can be used to identify a patient. Ex. patients name, patients birth date, patient medical record number, and the patient’s telephone number.

82
Q

What sample is needed for the Hemoccult test?

a) Blood
b) Sputum
c) Stool
d) Urine

A

c) Stool

The Hemoccult test is also known as the fecal occult blood test. The test detects the presence of blood in the stool samples.

83
Q

Identify the false statement regarding 24-hour urine collection.

a) A preservative may be used for some tests
b) Collections during the night arrer discarded
c) Testing is done in clinical chemistry
d) The first timed specimen is discarded

A

b) Collections during the night arrer discarded

84
Q

Clean-catch urine specimens are necessary when testing urine for:

a) bacteria
b) glucose
c) occult blood
d) protein

A

a) bacteria

A clean-catch is a way of collecting urine without contaminating the urine sample with bacteria from the skin. This method is needed for urine culture tests, to prevent false positives.

85
Q

What preservative is needed for total protein 24-hour urine tests?

a) Chloorhexidine
b) HCl
c) NaHCO3
d) No preservative

A

d) No preservative

Preservatives are not necessary for measuring total protein in urine.

86
Q

Which of these tests would most be affected if a patient ate a muffin and orange juice before a fasting blood test?

a) Blood culture
b) Cardiac enzymes
c) Complete blood count
d) Glucose

A

d) Glucose

Food, especially food high in sugar and carbohydrates like muffins and orange juice, can cause a temporary increase in blood sugar levels. This can affect the accuracy of the glucose test and lead to a false high reading.

87
Q

A routine glucose tolerance test (GTT) requires:

a) one blood sample
b) one urine sample
c) two or more blood samples
d) two or more urine samples

A

a) two or more blood samples

A glucose tolerance test (GTT) is to see if the patient has diabetes. First, a baseline blood sample is taken. Then, the patient drinks a glucose solution. After that, another sample is taken at intervals to see how the patient’s body reacts to the glucose.

88
Q

You are performing a glucose tolerance test. You draw the fasting specimen at 8:15am. You give the glucose drink The patient finishes the glucose drink at 8:30am. When should you collect the 2-hour specimen?

a) 10:15am
b) 10:22am
c) 10:27am
d) 10:30am

A

d) 10:30am

You should draw the two-hourr specimen exactly two hours after the patient finishes the glucose drink.

89
Q

Semen samples must be tested within how many hours after collection?

a) 1 hour
b) 6 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 24 hours

A

a) 1 hour

Sperm motility and othe rparametes rapidly decline once semen is out of the body for this reason, semen samples typically must be analyzed within one hour after collection.

90
Q

In the context of shipping hazardous substances, what does this label mean?

a) The goods are being shipped in a limited quality
b) The goods are categorized as a miscellaneous hazard
c) The hazards of the goods are unknown
d) The material inside is fragile

A

a) The goods are being shipped in a limited quality

It is used for hazardous goods shipped in small containers.

91
Q

Urine samples that cannot be tested within an hour of collection should be:

a) discarded
b) frozen
c) left at room temperature
d) refrigerated

A

d) refrigerated

If you anticipate delays in transportation to the laboratory, you should refrigerate the urine specimen. If left at room temperature, the bacteria in the urine sample will multiply and will affect test results.

92
Q

Which of these tests indicates the health of a kidneys?

a) ALT
b) Bilirubin
c) Creatinine clearance
d) TSH

A

c) Creatinine clearance

Creatinine clearance is a measure used to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (GFR), which reflects how well the kidneys aer filtering waste products from the blood.

Bilirubin and ALT are related to the liver function, not kidney health.

TSH is related to thyroid function, not kidney.

National Exam CSLMS (15 decks)

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