Practice Questions

Question 1

Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding the stretch reflex?

A)
It involves afferent activity from muscle spindles whose axons travel up the spinal cord in the anterolateral columns.
B)
It reduces the force the ipsilateral muscles produce during contraction.
C)
It resists changes in muscle length.
D)
Relative to the muscle spindles being stretched, it involves excitation of contralateral motor neurons.
E)
None of the statements are true.

Answer 1

C

Question 2

What is NOT true about the auditory system?

A)
Tip links located at the base of the stereocilia open mechanically-gated ion channels.
B)
Before speaking, skeletal muscles in your middle ear contract to stop you from damaging your own auditory system.
C)
You can damage your hearing listening to music at amplitudes that do not produce pain.
D)
Sounds at 4,000 Hz can be detected at smaller amplitudes compared to sounds at 400 Hz.
E)
The shape of the pinna reflects pressure waves into the auditory canal.

Answer 2

A

Question 3

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)
None of the statements are true.
B)
The basal nuclei are part of the highest level of brain’s motor control system.
C)
Lesioning descending motor pathways leads to decreased muscle tone and reflexes.
D)
The cerebellum receives and integrates sensory information for motor learning.
E)
Voluntary movements are consciously initiated in the primary motor cortex.

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following statements is TRUE?

A)
Alpha motor neurons innervate intrafusal muscle fibers.

B)
Gamma motor neurons innervate Golgi tendon organs.

C)
Ia primary afferents adapt.

D)
None of the statements are true.

E)
Muscle spindles are connected in series with extrafusal muscle fibers.

Answer 4

C

Question 5

Which of the following is FALSE regarding the corticospinal motor pathway?
A)
It is responsible for the control of highly skilled voluntary movements.

B)
It can directly activate motor neurons.

C)
It originates from the postcentral gyrus.

D)
It mainly controls the hands and feet.

E)
It crosses the midline in the medulla.

Answer 5

C

Question 6

Which of the following disease–symptom pairs is NOT observed?

A)
Parkinson’s disease and bradykinesia.

B)
Motor neuron damage and hypotonia.

C)
Huntington’s disease and hyperkinesia.

D)
Cerebellar degeneration and paralysis.

E)
Huntington’s disease and choreiform movements.

Answer 6

D

Question 7

In the withdrawal reflex, limb withdrawal persists even after removal of the painful stimulus because of

A)
activation of the motor cortex.

B)
muscle spindle over-activity.

C)
irradiation

D)
feedback loops in the spinal cord.

E)
recruitment of interneurons.

Answer 7

D

Question 8

During COVID19 you are locked down in a very small apartment with a roommate who eats only beans. Which is true regarding the orderant molecules produced by your roommate’s unending flatulence?

A) Tip links located at the base of the stereocilia open mechanically-gated ion channels.

B)
They eventually trigger an emotional response via activation of the olfactory track that projects directly to your limbic system.

C)
They bind to only one of your 10,000 specialized oderant receptors.

D)
They directly flow though specialized ion channels located in the cilia of receptor cells.

E)
They bind to receptor cells located in the olfactory bulb.

Answer 8

B

Question 9

Which of the following statements about sleep is TRUE?

A)
Stage 4 sleep has lower amplitude waves than Stage 1 on EEG

B)
None of the statements are true.

C)
Dreaming occurs primarily during Stage 3 sleep

D)
Sleep apnea is a sudden increase in respiration during REM sleep

E)
REM sleep is also called “paradoxical sleep” because of its similarity to the waking state on EEG

Answer 9

E

Question 10

The mesolimbic pathway

A)
involves the hippocampus.

B)
is responsible for emotional responses.

C)
uses mainly serotonergic neurotransmission.

D)
projects to the frontal lobes and controls motivation.

E)
activates the suprachiasmatic nucleus.

Answer 10

D

Question 11

Red blood cells…

A)
are derived from large stem cells, known as megakaryocytes.

B)
lack mitochondria, but contain enzymes allowing them to generate some ATP anaerobically.

C)
are characterized by a large volume - to - surface area ratio.

D)
in the adult, are produced in the marrow of all the bones.

E)
play an essential role in blood clot formation.

Answer 11

B

Question 12

Platelets…

A)
have a normal lifespan of 7-10 weeks.

B)
lack all subcellular organelles.

C)
are produced in the liver during the postnatal period.

D)
develop from immature cells known as reticulocytes.

E)
play an essential role in both primary and secondary hemostasis.

Answer 12

E

Question 13

Edema may develop in all the following situations EXCEPT (choose the INCORRECT one):

A)
Elevated blood pressure.

B)
Elevated capillary permeability.

C)
Elevated plasma osmolarity.

D)
Obstructed lymphatic drainage.

E)
Lowered plasma colloidal osmotic (oncotic) pressure.

Answer 13

C

Question 14

Which statement regarding the various plasma proteins is CORRECT?

A)
They are responsible for generating a plasma osmotic pressure of 6.7 atmospheres (5100 mm Hg).

B)
γ-globulin has the largest molecular weight, but has the fastest electrophoretic mobility.

C)
In the adult, all of the plasma proteins are synthesized in the liver.

D)
Albumin has the smallest molecular weight, but is present in the largest concentration.

E)
Fibrinogen is present in a larger concentration in serum than in plasma.

Answer 14

D

Question 15

Which statement about iron is CORRECT?

A)
Each hemoglobin molecule contains one iron atom, which is capable of reversibly binding one molecule of oxygen.

B)
The absorption of iron from the gastrointestinal tract, requires the presence of Intrinsic Factor secreted by the stomach.

C)
Iron is transported in plasma bound to a protein named Ferritin.

D)
Of the 25 mg of iron released daily from the destruction of red blood cells in the body, only 1mg is recycled, and the rest is excreted.

E)
Dietary Iron requirements are normally lower for healthy young adult males, than for healthy young women of child-bearing age.

Answer 15

E

Question 16

Bilirubin…

A)
is an iron-rich molecule.

B)
is derived from the degradation of the globin portion of the hemoglobin molecule.

C)
is largely recycled in the body, with its constituents being reutilized in erythropoiesis.

D)
is responsible for the normal colour of plasma

E)
is absent from serum.

Answer 16

D

Question 17

All of the following statements about the intrinsic scheme of coagulation are CORRECT EXCEPT (choose the INCORRECT statement):

A)
It does not require the presence of Ca++.

B)
It involves protein factors which are produced by the liver.

C)
It may be accelerated by the presence of Thrombin.

D)
It may be triggered by damage to the vascular endothelial lining.

E)
It requires more time for its development than does the extrinsic scheme.

Answer 17

A

Question 18

All of the following statements regarding the Hematocrit are TRUE, EXCEPT (choose the FALSE statement):

A)
The hematocrit is normally higher in males than in females.

B)
The hematocrit is likely to be higher in patients suffering from generalized edema.

C)
The hematocrit is expressed as a percentage.

D)
The hematocrit Is higher in individuals living at high altitudes than in those living at sea level.

E)
A high hematocrit is always indicative of polycythemia.

Answer 18

E

Question 19

Erythropoietin…

A)
is released into the circulation in response to hypoxia.

B)
acts on the multipotential hematopoietic stem cell, inducing it to give rise to red blood cell precursors.

C)
All of the statements are CORRECT.

D)
acts on circulating red blood cells, causing the extension of their lifespan.

E)
is produced mainly by the liver.

Answer 19

A

Question 20

The Starling Forces…

A)
are primarily responsible for the efficient exchange of nutrients, gases, and wastes across the capillary wall.

B)
include the process of filtration which tends to “pull in” or retain fluid inside the capillaries.

C)
are responsible for the relative distribution of fluid volume between the ICF and the ECF compartments.

D)
play an important role in determining the total osmolarity of plasma.

E)
maintain the distribution of the ECF volume between the ISF and the plasma in the normal ratio of 3:1.

Answer 20

E

Question 21

Which of the following is the best metaphor for the function of neuronal dendrites?

A)
The dendrites are like the pump on an aquarium.

B)
The dendrites are like the undersea telephone cables that connect North America and Europe.

C)
The dendrites are like sprawling antennae, receiving information from a large number of external sources.

D)
The dendrites are like the facilities that provide heat, water and electricity to the McGill campus.

E)
The dendrites are like a flashlight battery.

Answer 21

C

Question 22

Which of the following is an important functional difference between NMDA receptors and AMPA receptors?

A)
AMPA receptors are found in the vertebrate nervous system, whereas NMDA receptors are only found in the invertebrate nervous system.

B)
NMDA receptors are blocked by magnesium at the resting membrane potential, whereas AMPA receptors are not.

C)
NMDA receptors are permeable to sodium ions, whereas AMPA receptors are not.

D)
NMDA receptors are found in the central nervous system, whereas AMPA receptors are found only in the peripheral nervous system.

E)
Activation of NMDA receptors requires simultaneous binding of both glutamate and GABA.

Answer 22

B

Question 23

Which of the following experimental manipulations would cause release of neurotransmitter from the neuronal presynaptic terminal?

A)
Injecting calcium into the presynaptic terminal.

B)
Blocking voltage-gated sodium channels with tetrodotoxin.

C)
Injecting Botox into the presynaptic terminal.

D)
Hyperpolarizing the presynaptic terminal.

E)
Removing calcium from the extracellular solution.

Answer 23

A

Question 24

How is information relayed from one part of the nervous system to another?

A)
By length of action potentials

B)
By the speed that action potentials move down axons

C)
By the frequency and pattern of action potentials

D)
By the force of action potentials

E)
By the size of action potentials

Answer 24

C

Question 25

Which of the following is the best description of the role of dendrites in the function of neurons and the nervous system? A) Dendrites receive and integrate signals from other neurons. B) Dendrites are the principle sites of protein synthesis and metabolism in the neuron. C) Dendrites release neurotransmitters. D) Dendrites propagate signals from one part of the nervous system to another. E) Dendrites store synaptic vesicles.

Answer 25

A

Question 26

Pentobarbital enhances the response of GABA receptors to GABA. Which effect would most likely be associated with this drug? A) Excessive nervousness. B) Hyperexcitability and seizures. C) Cardiac arrest. D) Sedation (sleepiness). E) Muscle paralysis.

Answer 26

D

Question 27

Which of the following is the best definition of the resting membrane potential? A) It is the potential for neurons to fire action potentials. B) It is the potential of the neuron to remain at rest if it does not receive any excitatory synaptic inputs. C) It is the potential for the neuron membrane to have ion channels. D) It is the potential energy gradient across the external membrane of the neuron. E) It is the potential difference in the concentration of sodium ions between the inside and outside of the neuron.

Answer 27

D

Question 28

Which of the following is the best description of the active zone? A) It is the region of the presynaptic terminal at which the synaptic vesicles fuse and neurotransmitter is released. B) It is the region of the postsynaptic membrane which contains the neurotransmitter receptors. C) It is the area of the neuron engaged in active protein synthesis. D) It is the region of the axon where the action potential is initiated. E) It is the region of dendrite with the highest number of excitatory synapses.

Answer 28

A`

Question 29

Imagine you are a neuroscientist, and you have just created a strain of "knockout" mutant mice that do not make the voltage-gated potassium channels normally found in axons. Voltage-gated sodium channels and potassium leak channels are still expressed normally in the axon membrane. Which of the following properties would you expect the mutant mice to have? ``` A) The falling (repolarizing) phase of the action potential in mutants will be faster than in normal control mice. ``` ``` B) The falling (repolarizing) phase of the action potential in mutants will be slower than in control mice. ``` C) Action potentials in the mutant mice will be indistinguishable from control mice. D) The relative refractory period between action potentials will be longer in mutant mice than in control mice. E) The axons of the mutant mice will not propagate action potentials.

Answer 29

B

Question 30

Injection of myelin basic protein into animals causes an immune response which results in destruction of myelin in the central nervous system.This experimental disease has been used as a model for which of the following nervous system disorders? A) Alzheimer’s disease B) Parkinson’s disease C) Schizophrenia D) Drug addiction E) Multiple sclerosis

Answer 30

E

Question 31

Which statement about the difference between insensible perspiration and sweating is TRUE? A) Insensible perspiration is possible in people without sweat glands, unlike sweating. B) Insensible perspiration is halted in cool environments, but sweating is continuous. C) Insensible perspiration contains more electrolytes than sweat. D) Insensible perspiration is a facultative loss, while sweating is obligatory. E) Insensible perspiration can be voluntarily controlled, unlike sweating.

Answer 31

A

Question 32

What type of cellular transport involves the cytosolic protein clathrin? A) Secondary active transport B) Receptor-mediated endocytosis C) Primary active transport D) Pinocytosis E) Exocytosis

Answer 32

B

Question 33

Which of the following is TRUE? A) The differences in body water between individuals become significant when body water content is calculated as a fraction of lean body mass. B) Sweating is type of facultative loss. C) Excessive water intake can cause a negative water balance. D) A 30-year old woman has a lower percentage of body water than a 10-year old boy. E) Bone contains less water than does adipose tissue.

Answer 33

D

Question 34

A solute, X, is placed in compartment A of a two-compartment container and allowed to diffuse to compartment B and attain diffusion equilibrium. At that point in time… A) solutes will continue to move from A to B only. B) solutes will continue to move from B to A only. C) there will be no further movement of solute molecules between compartments. D) solutes will be moving in both directions equally. E) the concentration in compartment B will be much higher than that in compartment A.

Answer 34

D

Question 35

Which is TRUE about mediated transport across cell membranes? Mediated transport… A)is nonspecific, in that, any transporter can transport any molecule. B) rate always increases as concentration across the membrane increases. C) refers to simple diffusion. D) refers to the movement of ions through channels. E) is characterized by saturable carriers and a maximum transport velocity.

Answer 35

E

Question 36

If a cell has an osmolarity of 300 mOsm, which of the following is a hypotonic solution? ``` A) NONE B) 0.10 M glucose C) 0.30 M sucrose D) 0.10 M CaCl2 E) 0.20M NaCl ```

Answer 36

B

Question 37

If an individual’s total body water is 50% of their body mass, how much does the intracellular fluid (ICF) constitute of their body mass? ``` A) 66% B) 16% C) 50% D) 20% E) 33% ```

Answer 37

E

Question 38

Describing a physiological variable as "homeostatic" means that it.... A) never varies from an exact set point value. B) is in a state of dynamic constancy that is regulated to remain near a stable set point value. C) has no normal range but will change to match outside environmental conditions. D) is in an equilibrium state that requires no energy input to stay at the normal value. E) has varied from the normal value and will remain constant at the new value.

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Ion channels in cell membranes… A) only allow ions to move from the intracellular fluid out of the cell. B) are nonspecific. C) may open in response to a voltage change across the membrane. D) only allow ions to move from the extracellular fluid into the cell. E) require energy in order to open.

Answer 39

C

Question 40

Which of the following is an ENDOGENOUS antigen? A) Viral proteins B) Egg whites C) Bacterial proteins D) Incompatible blood cells received in a blood donation E) Pollen

Answer 40

A

Question 41

Which of the following is an example of a NATURAL, ACTIVE immune response? A) Injection of preformed antibodies B) Immunization with a weakened pathogen C) Obtaining antibodies in breast milk D) Obtaining antibodies from a blood transfusion E) Being infected with the influenza virus while riding the bus

Answer 41

E

Question 42

Cellular responses of the innate immune system are triggered by the recognition of…. A) Self-proteins. B) Antigen complexed with MHC Class II molecules. C) Antigen complexed with MHC Class I molecules. D) PAMPs. E) Toll-Like Receptors.

Answer 42

D

Question 43

Sebastien has a gene mutation that causes his TdT (Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase) enzyme to be nonfunctional. Which statement about Sebastien is TRUE? A) His T cells have a repertoire of T-cell receptors that is larger than normal. B) His innate immune responses are less effective than in normal individuals. C) He cannot produce plasma cells. D) All of his antibodies will be of the IgG type. E) His B cells have a repertoire of B-cell receptors that is smaller than normal.

Answer 43

E

Question 44

An individual with O-type blood has which of the following natural antibodies? A) Only Anti-A antibodies B) Only Anti-B antibodies C) Anti-O antibodies D) O-type individuals are considered to be universal recipients and have no antibodies against other blood types. E) Anti-A and Anti-B antibodies

Answer 44

E

Question 45

CTLA4 A) binds to MHC class II receptors. B) is expressed by T cells. C) is necessary for activation of the T cells. D) is a cytokine. E) is produced by antigen presenting cells.

Answer 45

B

Question 46

Sylvie requires a kidney transplant. Which of the following potential donors is likely to be the BEST match (is least likely to rejected)? A) Her identical twin sister B) Her father C) Her brother D) An unrelated individual E) Her mother

Answer 46

A

Question 47

In the activation of the adaptive immune system, the first cell to show SPECIFICITY is the… ``` A) B-Cell B) Neutrophil C) CD8+ T cell D) CD4+ T cell E) Dendritic cell ```

Answer 47

D

Question 48

Which statement about IgE antibodies is TRUE? A) They are found only in utero. B) They are found primarily in mucous membranes. C) They are the most abundant type of antibody in the body. D) They are divalent. E) They are the antibody class that is most effecting at activating the compliment cascade.

Answer 48

D

Question 49

Which statement about neutrophils is TRUE? A) They are professional antigen presenting cells. B) They differentiate from lymphoid stem cells. C) They contribute to the formation of pus. D) They link the innate and adaptive immune systems. E) They are normally present all the tissues of the body.

Answer 49

C

Question 50

Below are B/W codes representing the visual fields seen through both eyes. What would be the visual deficit (if any) associated with a lesion in the right lateral geniculate nucleus? Black indicates a lack of vision. (Note that answer (e) corresponds to no visual deficit) B- Black W- White Left Right ``` A) W|B W|B B) B|W W|B C) B|B W|W D) B|W B|W E) W|W W|W ```

Answer 50

D

Question 51

Which is true about the Phototransduction process? A) The opsin molecule activates a G-protein cascade converting cGMP to GMP B) A photon causes the chromophore to bind to the opsin molecule. C) Opsin molecules close potassium channels lining the inner segment. D) The chromophore activates a G-protein cascade that converts cGMP to GMP. E) High levels of GMP cause sodium channels to open.

Answer 51

A

Question 52

In sensory afferents, which of the following is NOT proportional to stimulus intensity? ``` A) Receptor potential magnitude B) Magnitude of neurotransmitter release C) Action potential frequency D) None of these are true. E) Action potential magnitude ```

Answer 52

E

Question 53

Which of the following is true about the circulation of Cerebrospinal fluid? A) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the choroid plexus and passively flows through the CNS. B) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced in the sub-arachnoid space and passively flows through the CNS. C) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the arachnoid villi and is pumped through the CNS. D) None of these are true. E) Cerebrospinal fluid is found in the blood-brain barrier and actively transports glucose out of the blood.

Answer 53

A

Question 54

Which is NOT CORRECT about the development of the nervous system? A) The Pons originates from the Hindbrain vesicle of the neural tube. B) The neural tube forms in week 2 of development. C) The cavity formed by the neural tube becomes the ventricles and central canal. D) The CNS and parts of the PNS originate from the same cell layer in the neural plate. E) The dura originates from the Mesoderm of the embryonic disk.

Answer 54

B

Question 55

What is true about someone who suffers from presbyopia? A) Their sensitivity to high-frequency sounds (above 1,000 Hz) is reduced compared to normal individuals. B) They cannot accommodate for near vision C) Their lens is not spherical. D) None of these are true. E) Their otoacoustic emissions are above normal.

Answer 55

B

Question 56

What contributes to Hyperalgesia at the location of an injury? A) Constriction of blood vessels. B) Release of histamine from Mast cells. C) Release of substance P in the spinal cord. D) Increased activity from descending axons from the brain stem. E) None of these are true.

Answer 56

B

Question 57

Which of the following is true about photoreceptors? A) The cone system has lower acuity compared to the rod system. B) Rods have fewer opsin molecules compared to cones. C) Cones are more sensitivity to scattered light. D) Cones have a faster response time. E) The cone system has two types of opsin.

Answer 57

D

Question 58

Cutting the dorsal root of a spinal segment results in A) contralateral loss of temperature and pain at the level of the lesion. B) ipsilateral loss of all somatosensation at the level of the lesion. C) ipsilateral loss of temperature and pain at the level of the lesion. D) ipsilateral loss of touch and proprioception at the level of the lesion. E) ipsilateral loss of temperature and pain at and below the level of the lesion.

Answer 58

B

Question 59

In which location does a sensory afferent carrying sensory information about the temperature of your skin make its first synapse? (use online diagram) ``` A) Anterior horn B) Posterior horn C) Anterior root D) Posterior root E) Dorsal root ganglion ```

Answer 59

B

Question 60

The first cell to interact with an antigen presenting cell is the… a. B cell. b. Natural Killer Cell. c. T helper cell. d. Cytotoxic T cell. e. Infected body cell

Answer 60

C

Question 61

# Choose the correct description the IgG antibody structure. It contains… a. 2 heavy chains, 4 light chains, and the variable region is the antigen binding site. b. 2 heavy chains, 2 light chains and the constant region is the antigen binding site. c. 4 heavy chains, 2 light chains and the variable region determines antibody class. d. 2 heavy chains, 2 light chains and the constant region determines antibody class. e. 4 heavy chains, 4 light chains and the variable region is the antigen binding site.

Answer 61

D

Question 62

Which statement(s) about Natural Killer Cells is/are TRUE? a. They recognize endogenous antigens attached to MHC class 1 molecules. b. They form a physical barrier to infection. c. They are a type of lymphocyte. d. They release chemicals that enhance hematopoiesis. e. All of the above are TRUE.

Answer 62

C

Question 63

What is required for the activation of T-helper cells? a. The T-cell receptor binds to B7 on the dendritic cell. b. The T-cell receptor binds to CD28 on the dendritic cell. c. The T-cell receptor binds to antigen bound to the MHC Class I on the dendritic cell. d. The T-cell receptor binds to antigen bound to the MHC Class II on the dendritic cell. e. The T-cell receptor binds CTLA4 on the dendritic cell.

Answer 63

D

Question 64

Which statement(s) regarding CTLA4 is/are FALSE? a. CTLA4 is used to “shut off” the T-cell response. b. Anti-CTLA-4 antibodies can be used to prevent T-cell inactivation. c. CTLA4 disrupts the connection of CD28 and B7. d. CTLA4 is present on the antigen presenting cell. e. All of these statements are FALSE.

Answer 64

D

Question 65

``` Which of the following cells express MHC-1 class proteins? I. Mast Cells II. Erythrocytes III. B Cells IV. Epithelial cells V. E. coli bacteria a. I, II, III, IV, V b. I, III, IV c. I, II, III d. I, III e. I, V ```

Answer 65

B

Question 66

Which is NOT a function of antibodies? a. Activating the complement cascade b. Antigen agglutination c. Opsonization of bacteria d. Causing the proliferation of plasma cells e. Neutralization of toxins

Answer 66

D

Question 67

After receiving a booster shot of a vaccine (receiving a second dose of a vaccine), what antibody activity can we observe? a. The production of IgM and IgG antibodies b. The production of IgM antibodies only c. The production of IgG antibodies only d. The production of IgA antibodies only e. No increase in antibody production will be observed

Answer 67

A

Question 68

``` Which of the following can develop into memory cells? I. Plasma cells II. T-helper cells III. Cytotoxic T cells IV. B cells V. NK cells a. I, II, III, IV b. I, II, III, IV, V c. II, III, IV d. I, IV, V e. II, III ```

Answer 68

C

Question 69

Which of the following are part of the inflammation process? a. Vasodilation b. Emigration of phagocytes c. Local swelling d. Redness e. All of the above.

Answer 69

E

Question 70

Which statement about blood and body fluids is TRUE? a. Red blood cells have subcellular organelles. b. One hemoglobin molecule binds to one O2 molecule. c. The solubility of O2 in the plasma is very high. d. The biconcave shape of the red blood cell gives it a high degree of flexibility. e. None of the above are TRUE.

Answer 70

D

Question 71

Erythropoietin… a. inhibits hematopoiesis in the bone marrow. b. is produced by the kidney. c. is not produced in conditions of hypoxia. d. does not stimulate the proliferation of committed stem cells. e. is produced by the adrenal glands.

Answer 71

B

Question 72

Which statement concerning anemia is TRUE? a. A hematocrit level of 70% corresponds to anemia. b. Vitamin B12 and folic acid deficiency cause macrocytic and normochromic anemia. c. Iron deficiency anemia is classified as a macrocytic and normochromic anemia. d. Aplastic (hypoplastic) anemia is classified as microcytic and hypochromic anemia. e. None of the above are TRUE.

Answer 72

B

Question 73

Which statement is TRUE? a. Nutrients, gases and waste are distributed between plasma and the ISF due to the Starling Forces. b. Small proteins, such as albumin, normally cross the capillary wall into the ISF. c. Edema can only be caused by a decrease in C.O.P. d. Filtration and osmotic flow are opposing forces determining the distribution of ECF volume between plasma and ISF. e. The decrease in blood pressure along the length of the capillary is insignificant and does not affect capillary exchanges

Answer 73

D

Question 74

Which of the following may cause anemia? a. A serious loss of blood b. A disease affecting the kidney c. Problems synthesizing globin amino acids d. Overcooking vegetables e. All of the above may cause anemia.

Answer 74

E

Question 75

Which of the following is TRUE? a. A blood clot can form without an underlying platelet plug. b. Mitochondria and granules aggregate around a platelet’s nucleus. c. Prostacyclin and other vasoconstrictors such as Nitric Oxide (NO) prevent platelet plug formation. d. Platelet factor 2 participates in the coagulation pathway. e. Aspirin inhibits the synthesis and release of serotonin.

Answer 75

D

Question 76

Which statement most accurately describes why women require 2x more daily iron absorption from the gut than men? a. On average, women have shorter gastrointestinal tracts than men. b. RBCs are recycled to a greater extent in men than in women. c. Women’s menstrual losses are approximately equal to normal RBC loss. d. Women recycle 2x more RBCs per day than men. e. On average, women have a significantly higher hematocrit level than men.

Answer 76

C

Question 77

Which situation/condition is NOT likely to cause polycythemia? a. High altitude b. Renal disease c. Emphysema d. Heavy exercise e. Heavy smoking

Answer 77

B

Question 78

Which statement about platelets is TRUE? a. Platelets are classified as a type of white blood cell. b. Platelets have many nuclei. c. Platelets are larger than red blood cells. d. Serotonin is the key factor that stimulates the production of platelets. e. Mature megakaryocytes can five rise to thousands of platelets

Answer 78

E

Question 79

Which statement regarding transport mechanisms is FALSE? a. Endocytosis causes the release of contents into the ECF after vesicle fusion with the cell membrane. b. Pinocytosis is considered to be an active transport mechanism. c. Diffusion does not require energy. d. Facilitated diffusion uses a transporter. e. Primary active transport uses the energy generated from the hydrolysis of ATP.

Answer 79

AB

Question 80

Which statement about cell membranes is TRUE? a. Cholesterol in the phospholipid bilayer does not contribute to the rigidity of the cell membrane. b. The glycocalyx is made of carbohydrates and glycoproteins. c. The integral membrane proteins are loosely associated with phospholipids. d. Peripheral membrane proteins are amphipathic e. None of the statements above are TRUE.

Answer 80

B

Question 81

In facilitated diffusion: a. Substances can be transported against their concentration gradient using chemical energy b. Calcium ions are transported into or out of the cell c. Only one substance is able to bind to the binding site of a membrane carrier d. A conformational change in the transporter delivers a glucose molecule to the other side of the membrane e. None of the above are CORRECT

Answer 81

D

Question 82

Clathrin-dependent receptor-mediated endocytosis: a. Is an energy-independent, passive process b. Is responsible for internalizing vitamins and other low molecular weight molecules c. Involves the recycling of membrane receptors by endosomes and lysosomes in the cytoplasm d. Is when clathrin binds to a ligand and its receptor via adaptor proteins on the cytoplasmic side of plasma membrane e. None of the above are CORRECT.

Answer 82

BD

Question 83

A man has ingested seawater. His extracellular fluid volume has increased and now contains 150 mM of NaCl, as well as 15 mM of urea and 5 mM of other penetrating solutes: a. The patients ECF is hyperosmotic, hypertonic b. The patient’s ECF is hyperosmotic, isotonic c. The patient’s ECF is isosmotic, hypertonic d. The patient’s ECF is isosmotic, hypotonic e. The patient’s ECF is hyperosmotic, hyptotonic

Answer 83

B

Question 84

Which condition does NOT correctly match its consequence on body fluids? a. Severe sweating, increase in extracellular fluid osmolarity b. Hemorrhage, no change in intracellular fluid osmolarity c. Excessive water intake, decrease in intracellular fluid osmolarity d. Intravenous infusion of 0.9% NaCl solution, increase in extracellular fluid osmolarity e. Drinking sea water, decrease in intracellular fluid volume

Answer 84

D

Question 85

Which statement about body water is TRUE? a. Insensible water losses are considered to be facultative losses. b. Negative water balance can be caused by kidney failure. c. A 30-year old woman has a lower body water content than a 10-year old boy. d. Bone contains less body water than does adipose tissue. e. Heavy-boned individuals have significantly more body water than do fine-boned individuals.

Answer 85

C

Question 86

Which indicator(s) can be used to measure the total body water? a. D2O (heavy water) b. Inulin c. Sucrose d. Evans Blue dye e. None of the above

Answer 86

A

Question 87

Which of these statement(s) about body water is/are TRUE? a. Individuals with a small amount of adipose tissue have a higher percentage of body water than do obese individuals. b. After 60, a muscle tissue is replaced with drier connective tissue. c. Newborn babies have a higher daily body water turnover than do adults. d. Sex-related differences in body water begin at puberty. e. All of the statements above are TRUE.

Answer 87

E

Question 88

Obligatory water losses through the kidney… a. vary with intake. b. are insensible. c. vary with oxidative metabolism. d. are responsible for cooling down the body. e. None of the statements above are CORRECT

Answer 88

E

Question 89

Which statement about insensible perspiration is TRUE? a. Insensible perspiration contains more electrolytes than sweat. b. Insensible perspiration can be voluntarily controlled. c. Insensible perspiration requires sweat glands. d. Insensible perspiration is the water lost through expired air. e. None are correct

Answer 89

E

Question 90

A 60 kg woman’s body water content is 50%. If you inject 300 mg of a water-soluble drug, the final concentration in her plasma will be… a. 10 mg/liter. b. 6 mg/liter. c. 1 mg/liter. d. 0.1 mg/liter. e. It cannot be calculated with the information given.

Answer 90

A

Question 91

The two minor sub-compartments of extracellular fluid are: a. Lymph, transcellular fluid b. Plasma, interstitial fluid c. Lymph, plasma d. Interstitial fluid, transcellular fluid e. Transcellular fluid, plasma

Answer 91

A

Question 92

The two minor sub-compartments of extracellular fluid are: a. Lymph, transcellular fluid b. Plasma, interstitial fluid c. Lymph, plasma d. Interstitial fluid, transcellular fluid e. Transcellular fluid, plasma

Answer 92

A