Cognitive/Motor Flashcards

1
Q

Large RFs, spatial features and motion.

A

Primary visual cortex

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2
Q

Small RFs, simple image features such as oriented line segments.

A

Parietal visual stream

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3
Q

Large RFs, complex image features

A

Temporal visual stream

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4
Q

visual and other sensory modalities are combined

A

Polymodal

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5
Q

Object recognition in the temporal lobe

A

Faces

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6
Q

The pupillary reflex of light in one eye

A

both pupils constrict

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7
Q

Frequency

A

Number of cycles per second = pitch (hertz)

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8
Q

loudness is determined on the wave by

A

Amplitude

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9
Q

Decibels

A

sound pressure/reference pressure

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10
Q

Whisper occurs at what dB

A

0-20

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11
Q

Conversation occurs at what dB

A

20-40

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12
Q

Heavy Traffic occurs at what dB

A

40-60

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13
Q

Live Rock occurs at what dB

A

80-100

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14
Q

Discomfort occurs at what dB

A

100-120

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15
Q

Pain occurs at what dB

A

140-160

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16
Q

The three layers on the normal audibility curve

A

Threshold, damage threshold, and pain

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17
Q

damage threshold

A

90 dB

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18
Q

How does maximum listening time per day change with volume level?

A

As volume increases, the listening time significantly decreases

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19
Q

Presbycusis

A

Progressive, bilateral hearing loss with increasing age, mainly for frequencies > 1,000 Hz

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20
Q

Where basilar membrane motion is converted into neuronal activity

A

the organ of corti

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21
Q

Deflection of basilar membrane produces

A

shearing of hair cell stereocelia

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22
Q

Outer hair cell “electromotility”

  • Shortens when
  • Lengthened when
A
  • Shorten when depolarized

- Lengthened when hyperpolarize

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23
Q

Are used to evaluate hearing in newborns

A

Otoacoustic emissions

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24
Q

Hair cells contain what type of receptor

A

Hair cells contain mechanoreceptors

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25
Q

What connects each stereocilia?

A

Tip links

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26
Q

Tip links

A

gate ion channels in the stereocilia at the top of the hair cells

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27
Q

Mechano-transduction at tip link activates

A

activates afferent neurons

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28
Q

Ringing in your ears

A

Tinnitus

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29
Q

Two types of tinnitus

A

Transient and Chronic

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30
Q

Transient tinnitus

A

(< 24 hours)
- Usually due to loud noise.
- Excessive mechanical stress of stereocilia. - Tip-links are thought to break, but
eventually grow back (ringing stops).

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31
Q

Chronic tinnitus

A
  • Many causes, but predominately loud noise. - Origin can be either inner ear, nerve or
    central pathways.
  • Impacts quality of life (does not stop
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32
Q

Visual transduction

A

Photons: high energy but hard to catch (~100X106 photoreceptors)

Trillions of opsin molecules

Slow: G-protein cascade

Amplification: one photon closes many ion channels

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33
Q

Auditory transduction

A

Sound waves: low energy but all around (~15,000 hair cells)

Several hundred thousand tip links

Fast: direct channel activation

No amplification of the transduction

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34
Q

Central auditory pathways

A
Primary auditory cortex
Thalamus
Midbrain
Medulla
8th cranial nerve (vestibular and auditory)
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35
Q

Cochlear Implant is required due to

A

Hair cell loss due to ageing, loud sounds, ototoxic drugs:

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36
Q

Cochlear Implant steps

A

1) Implanted through round window
2) Electrode placed in scala tympani
3) Electrodes are spaced along the cochlear spiral to stimulate groups of afferent fibers that respond to different frequencies.
Generally ~12 electrodes.

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37
Q

Why when the head rotates; eyes rotate in opposite direction and gaze does not change

A

Vestibular ocular reflex

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38
Q

vestibular system controls

A

includes the parts of the inner ear and brain that process the sensory information involved with controlling balance and eye movements.

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39
Q

One key similarity between the auditory and vestibular system

A

Tip links gate ion channels in the stereocilia

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40
Q

Organization of semicircular canals at rest vs rotation of the head

A

stereocilia bend

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41
Q

Utricle and saccule detect

A

linear acceleration

  • Utricle: horizontal
  • saccule: vertical
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42
Q

How many taste buds do you have?

A

about 10000

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43
Q

5 types of taste

A

Umani, Salty, Sour, Bitter, Sweet

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44
Q

Central taste pathways goes through …..

A

Cranial Nerves
Medulla
Thalamus
Ipsilatory gustatory cortex

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45
Q

Olfaction

A

Smell

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46
Q

Salty channels

A

sodium moving through channel

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47
Q

Sour channels

A

Sodium and hydrogen move through channel then potassium is pumped back across against hydrogen

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48
Q

Bitter channels

A

Bitter blocks potassium channels

various G-protein cascades

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49
Q

Sweet channels

A

G-protein cascade

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50
Q

Umani channels

A

Glutamate receptors

G protein cascade

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51
Q

Olfactory signal transduction

A

Ordorant binding to orderant receptor
G protien activation
Opening of ion channel

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52
Q

How many orderant receptors?

A

1000

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53
Q

Central olfactory pathways

A

Olfactory bulb to Olfactory tract to nerve to limbic system

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54
Q

Consciousness is measured by

A

behavior and brain activity

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55
Q

State of consciousness

A

level of arousal (awake, asleep, etc.)

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56
Q

thoughts, feelings, desires, ideas, etc

A

Conscious experience

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57
Q

The electroencephalograph (EEG)

A

Mainly measures activity of neurons located near the scalp in the
gray matter of the cortex.

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58
Q

EEG Frequency

A

is related to

levels of responsiveness.

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59
Q

EEG amplitude

A

is related to synchronous neural activity

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60
Q

EEGs reflect

A

mental states

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61
Q

relaxed with eyes closed

slow frequencies

A

Alpha rhythm

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62
Q

alert

fast frequencies

A

Beta rhythm

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63
Q

Awake rhythm amplitude and frequency

A

Low amplitude and high frequencies

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64
Q

How many stages of NREM

A

4

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65
Q

NREM

A

slow wave sleep

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66
Q

REM

A

paradoxical sleep

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67
Q

As you go from stage 1 to 4 what changes?

A

amplitude increases

frequency decreases

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68
Q

How long does it take for stages 1-4 of NREM to occur?

A

30-45 minutes

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69
Q

REM sleep rhythm

A

low amplitude

high frequencies

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70
Q

Sleep apnea

A

sudden reduction in respiration

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71
Q

At REM what happens to eye and neck movements

A

Increased eye movement

Increased inhibition of skeletal muscle (low muscle tone, but twitching can occur)

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72
Q

At REM what happens to the heart and respiration rate?

A

Increased heart rate and respiration

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73
Q

Regulating States of consciousness involves two parts

A

Brainstem nuclei that are part of the reticular activating system

  • Hypothalamus with circadian and homeostatic centres
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74
Q

what occurs when waking in norepinephrine, serotonin and acetylcholine levels?

A

increased norepinephrine and serotonin

decreased acetylcholine

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75
Q

State when aminergic neurons are active

A

waking (reticular activating system)

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76
Q

what occurs to go into REM sleep in norepinephrine, serotonin and acetylcholine levels?

A

decreased norepinephrine and serotonin

increased acetylcholine

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77
Q

State when cholinergic neurons are active

A

REM sleep

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78
Q

the reticular activating system is for

A

Waking or REM sleep

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79
Q

the hypothalamus is for

A

NREM sleep or waking

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80
Q

What happens to GABA, histamine, and activation of the thalamus and cortex levels during waking?

A

decreased GABA
increased histamine
increased activation of the thalamus and cortex

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81
Q

increased histamine would result in

A

waking

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82
Q

Increased inhibition would result in

A

NREM sleep

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83
Q

What happens to GABA, histamine, and activation of the thalamus and cortex levels for NREM sleep?

A

increased GABA
decreased histamine
decreased activation of the thalamus and cortex

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84
Q

Motivation

A

produce goal-directed behavior

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85
Q

Emotions

A

accompany our conscious experiences

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86
Q

Mesolimbic dopamine pathway

A

Reward pathway

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87
Q

the primary neurotransmitter in the reward pathway

A

dopamine

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88
Q

Self stimulation experiments

A

Continuous activation of reward related areas of the brain.

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89
Q

What pathway involves the Prefrontal cortex, midbrain, locus cereleus in the reticular activating system

A

Mesolimbic dopamine pathway

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90
Q

Limbic system

A

Emotions system

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91
Q

Limbic system parts of the brain

A

Olfactory bulb
Amygdala
Hippocampus

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92
Q

Hippocampus

A

related to memory

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93
Q

Schizophrenia

A

diverse set of problems in basic cognitive processing. Wide range of symptoms including hallucinations and delusions. Affects one out of 100 people.

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94
Q

Reducing the effects of dopamine can improve symptoms of

A

Schizophrenia

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95
Q

decreased activity in the anterior limbic system results in

A

Depression

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96
Q

increase the levels of serotonin and

norepinephrine in the extracellular space around synapses is a treatments of

A

depression

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97
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

swings between mania and depression.

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98
Q

Treatments that include lithium that reduces certain synaptic signalling pathways are for

A

Bipolar disorder

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99
Q

Central olfactory pathways leads to the ____ system by ____

A

limbic system by the olfactory bulb/nerve

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100
Q

What does the odorant bind to and where?

A

odorant receptors in the cilia

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101
Q

What does the odorant binding activate?

A

G-protien and opens the ion channels

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102
Q

Consolidation

A

short-term to long-term

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103
Q

Best way for consolidation to occur

A

sleep

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104
Q

Learning and memory occurs in the

A

Hippocampus

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105
Q

Conscious experiences that can be put into words

A

Declarative memory

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106
Q

Memory type: Skilled behaviour

A

Procedural memory

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107
Q

Short term declarative memory occurs in what parts of the brain?

A

Hippocampus and other temporal lobe structures.

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108
Q

T/F: Long term declarative memory occurs in many areas of association cortex

A

T

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109
Q

T/F: Short term procedural memory occurs only in the hippocampus

A

F it is widely distributed

110
Q

Long term procedural memory stored

A

in Basal nuclei, premotor cortex, Cerebellum

111
Q

Language hemisphere

A

Left

112
Q

Aphasia

A

language deficit

113
Q

Articulation of language occurs in the

A

Broca’s area

114
Q

Where does comprehension of language occur?

A

Wernicke’s area

115
Q

Neglecting part of the body or space, which can also impair drawing ability is due to damage in the

A

parietal lobe

116
Q

Motor behaviour can be

A

Purposeful or goal directed

117
Q

Two specific types of motor behaviour

A

1) Voluntary 2) Reflexive

118
Q

Agonist

A

muscle contracts

119
Q

Antagonist

A

muscle relaxes

120
Q

Agonist and Antagonist Extension muscles

A

Agonist: Extensor muscle contracts
Antagonist: Flexor muscle relaxes

121
Q

Agonist and Antagonist Flexion muscles

A

Antagonist: Extensor muscle relaxes
Agonist: Flexor muscle contracts

122
Q

Decrease the angle around the joint

A

Flexion

123
Q

Increase the angle around the joint

A

Extension

124
Q

Limb position is maintained by a

A

balance of flexor and extensor muscle tension

125
Q

muscle activation and relaxation of flexor and extensor is

A

coordinated

126
Q

Motor neurons are (excitatory/inhibitory/both)

A

Only excitatory (ACh)

127
Q

Alpha motor neurons

A

innervate skeletal (extrafusal) muscle

128
Q

Gamma motor neurons

A

innervate muscle spindle (intrafusal)

129
Q

Motor neurons receives input mostly from

A

interneurons

130
Q

Cell bodies of motor neurons are in

A

ventral horn of spinal cord (spinal nerves) or brain stem (cranial nerves)

131
Q

Spinal interneurons: descending pathways control

A

Voluntary movements

132
Q

Spinal interneurons: other spinal levels

A

Coordinates complex movements

133
Q

Spinal interneurons: joint receptor

A

Proprioceptive feedback

134
Q

Spinal interneurons: skin receptor

A

Pain

135
Q

Spinal interneurons: tendon receptor

A

Tension

monitoring

136
Q

Spinal interneurons: muscle receptor (from antagonistic muscle)

A

Length monitoring

137
Q

Ascending sensory information moves through

A

dorsal columns

138
Q

Motor neuron is in the (dorsal/ventral) horn

A

ventral horn

139
Q

Motor efferent in the (dorsal/ventral) root

A

in ventral root

140
Q

What protects limbs from injury?

A

Withdrawal reflex

141
Q

What reflex controls muscle length?

A

Stretch reflex

142
Q

Two types of stretch reflex

A

monosynaptic, polysynaptic

143
Q

Inverse stretch reflex

A

controls muscle tension

144
Q

T/F: Spinal reflexes can be overridden and modified

A

Most spinal reflexes can be overridden

145
Q

Flexion withdrawal reflex on the ipsilateral

  • inhibition of
  • excitation of
A
  • Inhibition of motor neurons innervating the ipsilateral extensor
  • Excitation of motor neurons innervating the ipsilateral flexor
146
Q

Flexion withdrawal reflex on the contralateral

  • inhibition of
  • excitation of
A
  • Inhibition of motor neurons innervating the contralateral flexor
  • Excitation of motor neurons innervating the contralateral extensor
147
Q

Magnitude of withdrawal reflex depends on the

A

magnitude of pain stimulus

148
Q

In the withdrawal reflex, limb withdrawal persists even after removal of the painful stimulus because of

A

Feedback loops in the spinal cord

149
Q

Afterdischarge

A

Response maintained after stimulus termination (spinal feedback loops)

150
Q

Irradiation

A

distance of limb withdrawal

Increase in rate and magnitude of withdrawal response with increased stimulus strength (recruitment of interneurons).

151
Q

ipsilateral properties of withdrawal reflex:

  • contraction of
  • relaxation of
A

Flexor muscle contraction

Extensor muscle relaxation

152
Q

Contralateral properties of withdrawal reflex:

  • contraction of
  • relaxation of
A

Extensor muscle contraction

Flexor muscle relaxation

153
Q

Interneurons between sensory input and motor output

A

Polysynaptic

154
Q

Monosynaptic stretch reflex

A

knee jerk

155
Q

Knee jerk is due to excitation/inhibition of motor neurons in the ipsilateral extensor

A

excitation

156
Q

Knee jerk is due to excitation/inhibition of motor neurons in the ipsilateral flexor

A

inhibition

157
Q

Muscle spindle is in series/parallel with extrafusal muscle

A

parallel

158
Q

Extrafusal muscle fiber is activated by

A

alpha motor neurons

159
Q

Intrafusal muscle fiber is activated by

A

gamma motor neurons

160
Q

2 types of muscle spindles afferents

A

la primary

la secondary

161
Q

nuclear bag fibers are _____ afferents

A

la primary

162
Q

nuclear chain fibers are ______ afferents

A

lI secondary

163
Q

la ______ causes dynamic changes in muscle length (and some static length)

A

Ia primary

164
Q

signal static muscle length

A

II secondary

165
Q

What happens to muscle spindles when the spindle collapses in voluntary flexion?

A

lose sensitivity

166
Q

Muscles in extension are lengthened/contracted

A

lengthen

167
Q

Muscles in voluntary flexion are lengthened/shortened

A

Muscles are shorten

168
Q

Extension/Voluntary flexion: Increase in muscle spindle afferent activity

A

Extension

169
Q

Extension/Voluntary flexion: Muscle spindle collapses (sensitivity is reduced)

A

Voluntary flexion

170
Q

Extension/Voluntary flexion: intrafusal fibers contract and muscle spindle is stretched

A

Voluntary flexion

171
Q

How is spindle sensitivity maintained?

A

Intrafusal fibers contract and muscle spindle is stretched

172
Q

Alpha-gamma act in a coactivation/cocontraction

A

coactivation

173
Q

Change in length activates

A

muscle spindle

174
Q

Properties of stretch reflex (3)

A

Resists changes in muscle length
Mono- and polysynaptic components.
Feedback from muscle spindles.

175
Q

Properties of muscle spindles (3)

A

1) Reports muscle length.
2) In parallel with extrafusal muscle fibers (does not contribute to the force of muscle contraction).
3) Alpha-gamma coactivation.

176
Q

Detects changes in muscle length and some static length (nuclear bag fibers)

A

Ia primary

177
Q

Detects static length (nuclear chain fibers).

A

II secondary

178
Q

Maintain muscle spindle sensitivity.

A

Intrafusal fibers

179
Q

Golgi tendon organ reports to

A

tension

180
Q

Active contraction of a muscle produces more ______ than ______

(stretching, tension)

A

tension than stretching

181
Q

Golgi tendon is in (series/parallel) with the muscle

A

series

182
Q

Golgi tendon organ structure

A

Capsule
Ib afferent
Free nerve ending
collagen fibers

183
Q

Number of golgi tendon afferents

A

1: lb afferent

184
Q

Golgi tendon organ reflex

A

(inverse stretch)

185
Q

Properties of Golgi tendon organ

  1. Reports ____
  2. in _____ with extrafusal muscle fibers.
  3. ___ afferents
  4. Underlies ______ stretch reflex
A

1) Reports muscle tension.
2) In series with extrafusal muscle fibers.
3) Ib afferents.
4) Underlies inverse stretch reflex (polysynaptic).

186
Q

Reports muscle tension.

A

Golgi tendon organ

187
Q

In series with extrafusal muscle fibers.

A

Golgi tendon organ

188
Q

Ib afferents.

A

Golgi tendon orga

189
Q

Underlies inverse stretch reflex (polysynaptic).

A

Golgi tendon organ

190
Q

Golgi tendon organ reflex:

increased/decreased afferent activity from Golgi tendon organ

A

increased

191
Q

Golgi tendon organ reflex:

increased/decreased tension in the extensor muscle

A

increased

192
Q

Golgi tendon organ reflex:

Inhibition/Excitation of motor neurons innervating the ipsilateral extensor

A

Inhibition

193
Q

Golgi tendon organ reflex:

Inhibition/Excitation of motor neurons innervating the ipsilateral flexor

A

Excitation

194
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Consciously initiate movement

A

High

195
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Executes the individual muscle contractions.

A

Middle

196
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Makes corrections based on sensory information.

A

Middle

197
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Sensorimotor cortex

A

Middle level

198
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Basal nuclei

A

Middle level

199
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Thalamus

A

Middle level

200
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Brainstem

A

Middle level

201
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Cerbellum

A

Middle level

202
Q

High, Middle, Low level:

Brainstem and spinal cord

A

Low level (local)

203
Q

T/F: Voluntary movements do not have an “involuntary” component

A

F: Voluntary movements have an “involuntary” component

204
Q

Voluntary control of movement is initiated in the ______

A

frontal lobe

205
Q

Organization of primary motor cortex: top to bottom

A

legs
arms
head

206
Q

Size of body structures in primary motor cortex is proportional to the (2)

A
  • number of neurons dedicated to their motor control

- degree of skill required to operate that area of the body

207
Q

relationship between select muscle groups and the body areas they control

A

Systematic

208
Q

Corticospinal

A

skilled movements

209
Q

Extrapyramidal

A

trunk & posture

210
Q

Corticospinal is from ________ to ____ and ______

A

from sensorimotor cortex to brainstem and spinal cord

211
Q

Does Corticospinal cross the medulla

A

Yes

212
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Originates in primary motor cortex (precentral gyrus).

A

Corticospinal

213
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Compact, discrete fiber tract direct to spinal cord.

A

Corticospinal

214
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Crossed: Controls contralateral muscles.

A

Corticospinal

215
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Extremities: Predominantly hands and feet.

A

Corticospinal

216
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Controls skilled voluntary movements.

A

Corticospinal

217
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Originates from neurons in brainstem.

A

Extrapyramidal

218
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Diffused and indirect: Several descending tracts via the brainstem.

A

Extrapyramidal

219
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Crossed and uncrossed.

A

Extrapyramidal

220
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Trunk and postural muscles.

A

Extrapyramidal

221
Q

(Corticospinal/Extrapyramidal)

Controls upright posture, balance, and walking.

A

Extrapyramidal

222
Q

Resistance of skeletal muscle to stretch.

A

Muscle tone

223
Q

Muscle tone of Normal subject

A

Slight and uniform

224
Q

Hypertonia

A

Abnormally high muscle tone.

225
Q

Hypotonia

A

Abnormally low muscle tone.

226
Q

Spasticity

A

Overactive motor reflexes.

227
Q

Rigidity

A

Constant muscle contraction.

228
Q

Atrophy

A

Loss of muscle mass

229
Q

Helps to determine the specific sequence of movements needed to accomplish a desired action.

A

Basal nuclei

230
Q

One of the most common movement disorders.

A

Parkinson disease

231
Q

Reduced dopamine input to the basal nuclei.

A

Parkinson disease

232
Q

Akinesia

A

Reduced movements

233
Q

Bradykinesia

A

Slow movements

234
Q

What is in contrast with cerebellar deficits?

A

Resting tremor

235
Q

Treatment for Parkinson disease

A

increasing dopamine concentrations in the brain

236
Q

One of the most common movement disorders.

A

Parkinson disease

237
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Reduced dopamine input to the basal nuclei.

A

Parkinson disease

238
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Akinesia

A

Parkinson disease

239
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Bradykinesia

A

Parkinson disease

240
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Muscular rigidity

A

Parkinson disease

241
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Resting tremor

A

Parkinson disease

242
Q

Treatment for Parkinson disease

A

increasing dopamine concentrations in the brain

243
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Genetic mutation that causes widespread loss of neurons in the brain.

A

Huntington disease

244
Q

Name the disease:

Shows up later in life and causes neurons in the basal nuclei to be referentially lost

A

Huntington disease

245
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

hyperkinesis

A

Huntington disease

246
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Choreiform movements

A

Huntington disease

247
Q

Hyperkinetic disorder

A

excessive motor movements

248
Q

Choreiform movements

A

jerky, random involuntary movements of limbs and face

249
Q

What is deep brain stimulation used for?

A

To treat Parkinson disease

250
Q

two places of deep brain stimulation

A

globus pallidus and subthalamic nucleus

251
Q

Part of brain that controls movement timing, planning, and error correction. Learning new motor skills.

A

Cerebellum

252
Q

Contains almost half of the brain’s neurons

A

Cerebellum

253
Q

What type of information does the cerebellum receive and integrate?

A

Receives sensory information: vestibular, visual, auditory, somatosensory, proprioceptive.

254
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Asynergia

A

Cerebellar degeneration (deficits)

255
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Dysmetria

A

Cerebellar degeneration (deficits)

256
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Ataxia

A

Cerebellar degeneration (deficits)

257
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

Intention tremor

A

Cerebellar degeneration (deficits)

258
Q

Name the disease that causes this symptom:

No paralysis or weakness

A

Cerebellar degeneration (deficits)

259
Q

Asynergia

A

Smooth movements are subdivided into their separate components.

260
Q

Dysmetria

A

Unable to target movements correctly “past pointing”.

261
Q

Ataxia

A

Incoordination of muscles groups (awkward gate).

262
Q

Intention tremor

A

During voluntary movements.

263
Q

otolith

A

sense gravity and linear acceleration such as from due to initiation of movement in a straight line

264
Q

Stereocilia bend relative to

A

Otoliths which lags behind

265
Q

Auditory or Visual transduction:

Sound waves: low energy but all around (~15,000 hair cells)

A

Auditory

266
Q

Auditory or Visual transduction:

Several hundred thousand tip links

A

Auditory

267
Q

Auditory or Visual transduction:

Fast: direct channel activation

A

Auditory

268
Q

Auditory or Visual transduction:

No amplification of the transduction

A

Auditory

269
Q

Photons: high energy but hard to catch (~100X106 photoreceptors)

A

Visual

270
Q

Trillions of opsin molecules

A

Visual

271
Q

Slow: G-protein cascade

A

Visual

272
Q

Amplification: one photon closes many ion channels

A

Visual