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Aviation > Practical Test > Flashcards

Practical Test Flashcards

1
Q

When is the ELT checked?

A

During the annual inspection.

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2
Q

How often must the pitot-static system and the transponder be checked?

A

Every 24 months.

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3
Q

What is the 100-hour inspection for?

A

Generally just for rentals, but technically for “carrying any person (other than a crewmember) for hire”, or giving flight instruction for hire.

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4
Q

Does a 100-hour inspection count as an annual inspection?

A

No, but an annual inspection counts as a fresh 100-hour inspection.

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5
Q

Who can sign off an annual inspection?

A

Only an IA (Inspection Authorized) mechanic, the highest grade. Below them is an A&P (airframe and powerplant) mechanic, who can do anything inspection-wise, other than the annual.

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6
Q

What’s an MEL?

A

A Minimum Equipment List. If you don’t have something on the list, you don’t fly.

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7
Q

If there is no MEL, what do you use?

A

ATOMATOFLAMES and FLAPS.

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8
Q

What is the required VFR day equipment?

A

ATOMATOFLAMES: Anti-collision light (for certificated after 3/11/96) Tachometer Oil pressure gauge for each engine Magnetic direction indicator Altimeter Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine Oil temperature gauge for each air-cooled engine Fuel gauge Landing gear position indicator Airspeed indicator Manifold pressure gauge ELT Seat belts for each occupant 2 years or older. AND: Shoulder harness for each front seat: (manufactured after 7/18/78)

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9
Q

What is the required VFR night equipment?

A

ATOMATOFLAMES, plus FLAPS: Fuses (one spare set, or three of each kind required, accessible to the pilot in flight) Landing light (one electric, if for hire) Anticollision lights Position indicator lamps Source of power

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10
Q

What is an Equipment List?

A

A list of equipment installed in an airplane from the factory.

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11
Q

Which aircraft do not have a POH?

A

Those certificated before 3/1/78. Instead, they have an “Information Manual”.

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12
Q

How can an Information Manual be made legal?

A

Write your registration and serial number in the book, and put in a copy of the weight and balance.

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13
Q

What is a Special Flight Permit?

A

It authorizes flight in an airplane that may not currently meet applicable airworthiness requirements. It can be issued for flying aircraft for maintenance, repairs, alteration, or storage.

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14
Q

How do you get a Special Flight Permit?

A

Contact the nearest FSDO (Flight Standards District Office). They’ll fax it to you, and then you carry it with you.

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15
Q

For N201TH, what’s Vne, Vno, Va, Vfe, and maximum window open speed?

A

Vne: 163 Vno: 129 Va: 105 @ 2550, 98 @ 2200, 90 @ 1900 Vfe: 110 @ 10°, 85 @ 10°-30° Max window open speed: 163

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16
Q

What are the following airspeed indicator markings: white arc, green arc, yellow arc, red line?

A

White arc: 40-85. Full flap operating range; lower limit is Vso; upper limit is Vfe. Green arc: 48-129. Normal operating range. Lower limit is Vs; upper limit is Vno. Yellow arc: 129-163. Operation must be conducted with caution and only in smooth air. Red line: 163. Maximum speed for all operations.

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17
Q

What are the following emergency operation airspeeds? Engine failure after takeoff (flaps up and down) Maneuvering speed (2550, 2200, 1900) Maximum glide Precautionary landing with engine power Landing without engine power (flaps up and down)

A

Engine failure after takeoff (flaps up: 70, flaps down: 65) Maneuvering speed (2550: 105, 2200: 98, 1900: 90) Maximum glide: 68 Precautionary landing with engine power: 65 Landing without engine power (flaps up: 70, flaps down: 65)

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18
Q

What’s calibrated airspeed?

A

See figure on 5-9 in POH. It’s calibrated for instrument error. At higher angles of attack, the KIAS is significantly lower than the KCAS.

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19
Q

What’s the contact number for aviation security?

A

1-866-GA-SECURE

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20
Q

What’s service ceiling?

A

The height above which the plane can’t climb faster than 100 feet per minute.

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21
Q

What’s MEF?

A

Maximum elevation figure. It’s the top of the highest feature (plus some), in each quadrangle on a chart.

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22
Q

For VFR airspace, is the visibility considered the ground or flight visibility?

A

Flight.

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23
Q

Exactly when do you need a Mode C Transponder with altitude reporting capability?

A

-Class A, Class B, Class C. -Within 30 nautical miles of the primary airport in Class B airspace (from surface to 10,000 MSL). -When you are both above 10,000 feet MSL and 2,500 AGL. Above the ceiling and within the lateral boundaries of B and C.

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24
Q

What exactly does a solid red light gun signal mean?

A

Stay 500 feet above the pattern, and give way to other traffic.

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25
Q

If not depicted, where does Class E airspace start?

A

14,500’ MSL.

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26
Q

Describe these special use airspaces: Prohibited, restricted, MOA, warning area, alert area, national security area, controlled firing area.

A

-Prohibited: can’t enter. -Restricted: unusual, often invisible hazards such as aerial gunnery. Need permission from controlling agency to enter. -MOA: military operations area; exercise extreme caution. -Warning Area: extends from 3 nautical miles outward from the coast of the US. May be hazardous, and may be in international waters. -Alert Area: high volume of pilot training. Be alert in these areas. -National Security Area: areas where greater security is desired. Pilots are requested to not fly through these areas. -Controlled Firing Area: not depicted on charts. Activities in this area are suspended immediately when it’s indicated that an aircraft is entering the area.

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27
Q

On a chart, if the airport circle is not filled in, what does that mean?

A

Non-hard surface runway.

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28
Q

What does “UC” mean near an obstruction, on a chart?

A

Unconfirmed height.

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29
Q

When a frequency is underlined on a chart, what does that mean?

A

You can’t voice communicate on it.

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30
Q

What are the Standard Service Volumes for VOR/DME/TACAN?

A

T: 1 to 12 @ 25. L: 1 to 18 @ 40. H: 1 to 14.5 @ 40, 14.5 to 60 @ 100, and 18 to 45 @ 130. T (terminal) : From 1,000 feet above ground level (AGL) up to and including 12,000 feet AGL at radial distances out to 25 NM. L (low altitude) : From 1,000 feet AGL up to and including 18,000 feet AGL at radial distances out to 40 NM. H (high altitude) : From 1,000 feet AGL up to and including 14,500 feet AGL at radial distances out to 40 NM. From 14,500 AGL up to and including 60,000 feet at radial distances out to 100 NM. From 18,000 feet AGL up to and including 45,000 feet AGL at radial distances out to 130 NM.

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31
Q

What kind of wing flaps are on 201TH?

A

Single-slot type wing flaps.

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32
Q

What exactly is 1 horsepower?

A

746 watts.

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33
Q

What do you do if you’re detonating?

A

Reduce power, drop the nose, cool off a bit.

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34
Q

What oil does 201TH take?

A

20W-50, aviation grade. This is a semi-synthetic blend.

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35
Q

What is vacuum-driven in 201TH?

A

The attitude indicator, and the directional gyro.

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36
Q

How many vacuum pumps are in 201TH?

A
  1. They are engine driven.
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37
Q

How is the turn coordinator driven?

A

Electrically.

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38
Q

What does the propeller do?

A

It converts the rotational force into usable thrust.

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39
Q

What kind of rear landing gear is on 201TH?

A

Spring steel; like a leaf spring.

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40
Q

What kind of front landing gear is on 201TH?

A

It has a strut with nitrogen and red hydraulic fluid in it.

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41
Q

What brake fluid is used in 201TH?

A

Red mil-spec brake fluid. Non-boosted. Two independent systems.

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42
Q

For 201TH, what is the *substitute* fuel?

A

The green 100 octane. NOT low-lead.

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43
Q

What are the voltages for the battery and system in 201TH?

A

24-volt battery and 28-volt system.

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44
Q

What is the alternator output?

A

60 amps.

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45
Q

How many electrical buses are in 201TH?

A

5 buses.

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46
Q

If you lost several electrical systems at once, what could be the cause?

A

Bus failure, or bus fuse failure.

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47
Q

When must you use supplemental oxygen?

A

Minimum required flight crew: over 12,500 cabin MSL pressure altitude for more than 30 minutes, and anytime over 14,000 MSL cabin pressure altitude. Each occupant must be *provided* with supplemental oxygen: above 15,000 MSL.

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48
Q

What oxygen is used for aviation?

A

Aviation-grade (low moisture content, so it won’t freeze).

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49
Q

What are the symptoms of hypoxia?

A

HEDCT Headache, euphoria, dizziness, cyanosis (blue finger tips and lips), tunnel vision.

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50
Q

What are the symptoms of CO poisoning?

A

Similar to hypoxia, with nausea and loss of muscle use.

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51
Q

If you suspect CO poisoning, what should you do?

A

Close the heating vents, turn off the heater, and open the windows.

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52
Q

How long does CO poisoning take to flush out of your system?

A

It can take days.

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53
Q

What are the three alcohol restrictions for flying?

A
  1. 8 hours bottle to throttle. 2. 3 hours for a single drink to clear. 3. Don’t fly hungover.
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54
Q

Describe slow flight.

A

Low airspeed, high angle of attack, high power setting. Maintain altitude and consistent airspeed, just above stall. Throttle to 1700 RPM. Flaps gradually to full. Pitch controls the airspeed, and throttle controls the altitude. To recover, apply full power, lower the nose, and use the rudder.

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55
Q

What do you do in case of engine failure during flight?

A
  1. Airspeed to 68. 2. Push in fuel shutoff valve, to turn it ON. 3. Set fuel selector valve to BOTH. 4. Turn auxiliary fuel pump switch ON. 5. Set mixture to full rich. 6. Set ignition switch to BOTH (or START if propeller is stopped).
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56
Q

What do you in case of a fire in flight?

A
  1. Mixture to idle cutoff. 2. Pull out fuel shutoff valve, to turn it OFF. 3. Auxiliary fuel pump switch OFF. 4. Master OFF. 5. Cabin heat and air OFF. 6. Airspeed at least 100 KIAS, to extinguish fire. 7. Execute forced landing.
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57
Q

What is the maximum demonstrated crosswind velocity for 201TH?

A

15 knots.

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58
Q

What are best rate-of-climb and best angle-of-climb for N201TH?

A

Best rate-of-climb: 73. Best angle-of-climb: 65.

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59
Q

What are the following landing speeds for 201TH: LANDING APPROACH Normal approach, flaps up. Normal approach, flaps 30°. Short field approach, flaps 30°. BALKED LANDING Max power, flaps 20°.

A

LANDING APPROACH Normal approach, flaps up: 70. Normal approach, flaps 30°: 65. Short field approach, flaps 30°: 61. BALKED LANDING Max power, flaps 20°: 60.

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60
Q

What’s VA for N201TH?

A

MAXIMUM RECOMMENDED TURBULENT AIR PENETRATION SPEED, or “MANEUVERING SPEED” (VA): 2500 pounds: 105. 2200 pounds: 98. 1900 pounds: 90.

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61
Q

When practicing stalls, what is the minimum stall recovery altitude?

A

1,500 AGL.

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62
Q

For situational awareness, what factors should you be able to state?

A

Weather, terrain, traffic, ATC situation, fuel status, and aircraft status.

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63
Q

What does IMSAFE stand for?

A

Illness Medication Stress Alcohol Fatigue Eating/Emotion

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64
Q

What is the DECIDE decision-making model?

A

Detect changes. Estimate the need for counter-measures to handle the changes. Choose a safe outcome. Identify actions needed in order to achieve the chosen option. Do the necessary actions to achieve change. Evaluation the effects of the action.

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65
Q

What is the 5P checklist, and when is it used?

A

Used at key decision points (preflight, pre-takeoff, hourly/midpoint, pre-descent, before entering pattern). Plan—planning, weather, route, fuel, publications, ATC reroutes/delays. Plane—mechanical status, database currency, automation status, backup systems. Pilot—illness, medication, stress, alcohol, fatigue, eating (IMSAFE). Passengers—pilot or non-pilot, experienced or inexperienced, nervous or calm, etc. Programming—GPS, autopilot, PFD/MFD, possible reroutes requiring reprogramming.

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66
Q

What is the 3P risk management process?

A

Perceive - Process - Perform Perceive: PAVE (Pilot, Aircraft, enVironment, External pressures) Process: CARE (Consequences, Alternatives, Reality, External pressures) Perform: ME (Mitigate risk, Evaluate outcomes)

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67
Q

Where are the following in N201TH? -Airworthiness certificate. -Registration certificate. -Operating limitations. -Logbook of airworthiness inspections and AD compliance. -POH. -Weight and balance data. -Equipment list.

A

-Airworthiness certificate. In plastic shield. -Registration certificate. Behind airworthiness. -Operating limitations. Placards, markings, and POH. -Logbook of airworthiness inspections and AD compliance in cabinet in office. -POH in plane. -Weight and balance data in POH. -Equipment list in the POH.

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68
Q

What’s the difference between pilotage and dead reckoning?

A

Pilotage is navigation by fixed visual references on the ground. Dead reckoning is calculating one’s position by using a previously determined position, and advancing based on known speed and elapsed time.

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69
Q

Where can you find airworthiness directives?

A

Search on FAA.gov.

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70
Q

At what altitude should ground reference maneuvers be made?

A

600 to 1,000 feet AGL.

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71
Q

What emergency and survival equipment should be on the airplane?

A

ELT and fire extinguisher.

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72
Q

What personal equipment is essential for night flight?

A

Flashlight with red and white lens, because when you preflight, you need to see the blue fuel, and the oil on the dipstick. Spare batteries. More than one of each flashlight.

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73
Q

What is somatogravic illusion?

A

A strong pitching sensation (up or down) when the body is exposed to abrupt acceleration or deceleration, due to inner ear interpretation.

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74
Q

What is black hole approach illusion?

A

Black hole approach illusion happens during an approach on a dark night, over water or unlit terrain, to a lighted runway beyond which the horizon is not visible. Because the pilot has no peripheral visual clues to be oriented relative to the earth, there may be the illusion of being upright, and the runway to be tilted and sloping.

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75
Q

What privileges would I have as a private pilot?

A

-Glider towing. -Can carry passengers. -Can be reimbursed pro-rata. -Can fly incidentally to my business. -Charitable participation, with limitations. -Search and rescue. -Aircraft salesman, with 200 flight hours.

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76
Q

What are the currency requirements?

A

Three takeoffs and landings within the past 90 days. Full stop at night or in tailwheel. Same category and class, and type if type rating is required.

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77
Q

When is type rating required?

A

Over 12,500 pounds takeoff weight, or turbojet.

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78
Q

What is a complex endorsement?

A

For an aircraft with retractable landing gear, flaps, and controllable pitch propeller.

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79
Q

What is a high performance endorsement?

A

Any aircraft with AN engine that has more than 200 horsepower.

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80
Q

What is a biannual flight review?

A

Every 24 calendar months, you have to fly with a CFI. Minimum of 1 hour ground and 1 hour flight. If CFI is not available, you can use an FAA inspector, or FAA designated examiner.

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81
Q

What documents do you need to have readily accessible in the plane?

A

-Photo ID -Medical -Pilot’s license

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82
Q

What must you log in your logbook?

A

Currency requirements. BFRs. Training towards a new certificate or rating.

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83
Q

How long is the aircraft registration good for?

A

3 years.

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84
Q

How long is the airworthiness certificate good for?

A

Perpetually, as long as the airworthiness directives are complied with, and the annual inspections have been performed.

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85
Q

Is the annual inspection calendar month, or date to date?

A

12 calendar months.

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86
Q

What are the required inspections for aircraft?

A

AVIATE Annual VOR check every 30 days (IFR)t. I is 1 for 100 hour. Altimeter/pitot-static every 24 months (IFR). Transponder every 24 months. ELT every 12 months.

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87
Q

When must the ELT batteries be checked?

A

-When they’ve been used continuously for 1 hour. -When half their shelf life has expired.

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88
Q

When you get a weather briefing, who do you talk to?

A

FSS.

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89
Q

What is the Flightwatch frequency?

A

122.0, anywhere.

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90
Q

What is the FSS frequency?

A

122.*, listed on a chart.

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91
Q

What’s a METAR?

A

Meteorological Aerodrome Report. METAR is an hourly observation that includes: wind direction and velocity, ceiling and visibility, temperature and dew point, altimeter setting.

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92
Q

What’s a TAF?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast. TAF is good for 5 nautical mile radius around the airport. 24-hour forecast that includes a 6-hour outlook. Some larger airports have 36-hour forecasts.

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93
Q

What’s an FA?

A

FA is an area forecast. Valid for 18 hours. Multiple states, broken down state by state. General conditions. It shows: -hazards and flight precautions -synopsis (VFR, MVFR, IFR) -icing -turbulence -significant clouds/weather Done 3 times daily.

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94
Q

What is a surface analysis chart?

A

Surface Analysis Chart shows low pressures, high pressures, and fronts.

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95
Q

What’s a radar summary chart?

A

Radar Summary Chart has precipitation type and intensity, echoes, and tops, and movement.

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96
Q

What’s a wind and temperatures aloft chart?

A

Winds and Temperatures Aloft Chart shows winds and temps at various altitudes. When you see a first number above 4, subtract 5, and add 100 knots to the wind velocity.

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97
Q

What’s a prog chart?

A

Significant Weather Prog Charts show freezing level, turbulence, VFR/MVFR/IFR. Surface Prog Charts show precip type and intensity, highs/lows, fronts.

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98
Q

What’s an AWOS/ASOS?

A

AWOS and ASOS are always magnetic. Different gov groups control them. ASOS tends to be better.

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99
Q

What’s an ATIS?

A

Automated Terminal Information Service. ATIS includes METAR, local NOTAMs, PIREPs. Updated hourly or upon special change.

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100
Q

What’s a PIREP?

A

PIREPs are real-time firsthand pilot reports.

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101
Q

Where do windshear reports come out?

A

-Windshear reports come out only on the ATIS. However, low-level wind shear is reported in an area forecast.

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102
Q

What do you do in the case of partial power loss?

A

Pull alternate intake air knob, check magnetos and use the one that’s working, turn on auxiliary fuel.

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103
Q

What do you do in the case of engine roughness or overheating?

A

Reduce power, lower nose, rich mixture, cool off.

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104
Q

How do you handle induction icing?

A

Pull open alternate intake air.

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105
Q

What do you do if you notice loss of oil pressure?

A

If the pressure is dropping slowly, but temp is normal, it’s a gauge failure. Otherwise, land ASAP.

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106
Q

How do you handle an electrical malfunction?

A

Use specific checklist. If there is an arcing smell, kill the master. Or, kill everything unnecessary, to save the battery.

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107
Q

What do you do in the case of vacuum failure?

A

This isn’t a real emergency. The attitude indicator and directional gyro will fail. Land.

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108
Q

How do you handle a pitot/static system malfunction?

A

Not a big emergency. Land as soon as practicable.

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109
Q

What do you do if the flaps malfunction?

A

Land without them.

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110
Q

What do you do if the trim becomes inoperative?

A

Use whatever force is required. Nose up trim would be better than nose down. Land as soon as practicable.

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111
Q

What do you do if a door pops open?

A

Try to push it out and see if it will come back in. Or, open window and pull by that.

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112
Q

What do you do if you get structural icing?

A

Turn the pitot heat on, maybe also alternate intake air on; turn around.

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113
Q

How do you handle a wing fire?

A

Lights off, pitot heat switch off. Perform sideslip so that flames stay away from the fuel tanks.

114
Q

What is a SIGMET?

A

Significant Meteorological Information. SIGMETS are significant warnings for all airplanes. There are two types of SIGMETs: convective and non-convective. The criteria for a non-convective SIGMET to be issued are: -Severe or greater turbulence over a 3,000-square-mile area -Severe or greater icing over a 3,000-square-mile area -IMC conditions over a 3,000-square-mile area due to dust, sand, or volcanic ash.

115
Q

What is a convective SIGMET?

A

Convective SIGMETs are issued for: -An area of thunderstorms affecting an area of 3,000 square miles or greater. -A line of thunderstorms at least 60 nm long. -Severe thunderstorms or embedded thunderstorms affecting any area that are expected to last 30 minutes or longer. “Severe” thunderstorms are characterized by tornado(s), hail 3/4 inches or greater, or wind gusts 50 knots or greater.

116
Q

What is an AIRMET?

A

Airman’s Meteorological Information. AIRMETS are now for all airplanes, and are like SIGMETs, but less severe. AIRMETS: -Tango (turbulence and sustained surface winds). -Sierra (mountain obscuration and IFR). -Zulu (moderate icing and freezing levels).

117
Q

What’s a SPECI?

A

A METAR that is issued when conditions change significantly.

118
Q

What is an INOP sticker for?

A

It’s on an instrument that is no longer used, but is still installed.

119
Q

What happens if the fuel vent gets blocked?

A

Fuel can not flow properly through the system.

120
Q

Where is the battery located?

A

On the firewall.

121
Q

Where is the flap motor located?

A

Right wing.

122
Q

Where are the fuel vents?

A

Under left wing, and on fuel caps.

123
Q

What are the primary and secondary flight controls?

A

Primary: rudder, ailerons, elevator. Secondary: flaps, trim.

124
Q

What is the total and total usable amount of fuel for N201TH?

A

56 and 53 gallons.

125
Q

What heats the cockpit?

A

Muffler shroud from engine heat.

126
Q

Why is the fuel selector set to “both” during takeoff?

A

To assure positive fuel flow if you tilt.

127
Q

What is the minimum and maximum oil for N201TH?

A

5 and 8 quarts.

128
Q

What drives the fuel pumps?

A

Main one is engine driven, auxiliary is electrical.

129
Q

When do you use the auxiliary fuel pump?

A

Priming, emergencies, and if the fuel pressure drops below the green arc.

130
Q

What kind of engine is in N201TH?

A

Lycoming 360. Horizontally opposed 4-cylinder. 2 spark plugs per cylinder (each magenta runs a different bank of spark plugs).

131
Q

What must be done with inoperative instruments or equipment?

A

They must be removed and their cockpit control placarded, or deactivated and placarded INOP. Deactivating and placarding INOP cannot be done by a pilot!

132
Q

What’s the difference between parts 91 and 61 in the FAR?

A

91 is General Operating and Flight Rules, and 61 is Certification: Pilots and Instructions.

133
Q

What sort of preflight action must you take?

A

Become familiar with all available information concerning the flight, which must include: FOR ANY FLIGHT: runway lengths at airports of intended use, takeoff and landing distance data, FOR A FLIGHT NOT IN VICINITY OF THE AIRPORT: weather, fuel requirements, alternatives, known traffic delays

134
Q

What are the rules surrounding safety belts and shoulder harnesses worn by crew members?

A

-Crewmembers must keep safety belts fastened. -During takeoff and landing, crew members must keep shoulder harnesses fastened.

135
Q

What are the rules surrounding safety belts and shoulder harnesses worn by passengers?

A
  • Passengers must be briefed on how to fasten and unfasten seat belts and shoulder harnesses.
  • Passengers must be notified to fasten their seat belts and shoulder harnesses during taxi, takeoff, and landing.
  • Passengers must wear seat belts and shoulder harnesses on taxi, takeoff, and landing.
  • Children under 2 years old may be held by an adult.
  • Children may be in an approved safety seat.
136
Q

What are the rules surrounding special VFR?

A

-Below 10,000’ MSL. -Requirements: ATC clearance, clear of clouds, ground visibility 1 statute mile, -At night (sunset->sunrise), pilot and plane must be IFR-equipped.

137
Q

What do you do if you lose comms?

A

-Squawk 7600 -Land as soon as practicable -Try FSS -Remain outside Class D airspace until direction of traffic and runway in use has been determined. Then, enter the pattern and fly a typical pattern, looking for light signals. -If you can receive, but not transmit, tower may request that you flash your lights, rock your wings, or squawk certain codes to acknowledge reception.

138
Q

What are all of the stall speeds for 201TH?

A

Vs - stall speed: 48 Vso - stall speed in landing config: 40 Vs1 - in “specific configuration”, usually clean, so just like Vs

139
Q

How do you enter a spin?

A

Aircraft is stalled. One wing is stalled more than the other. The differential in stall amount equals a differential in lift amount. The low wing in a spin is turning in a smaller radius, which creates a differential in angle of attack. The high, more lift-producing wing continues to try to roll the airplane. The resulting loss of vertical lift component drops the nose. High bank angle and low airspeed equals spin.

140
Q

How do you recover from a spin in N201TH?

A

Power idle. Neutralize ailerons. Apply full opposite rudder. Push forward briskly to break the stall after rudder reaches stop. Hold inputs until rotation stops. Gently recover.

141
Q

What causes a stall?

A

Excessive angle of attack (16-20 degrees), not necessarily low airspeed.

142
Q

Where do spins most frequently occur?

A

Just after takeoff. Just before touchdown. While practicing stalls. Base to final.

143
Q

When do most MACs and near-MACs occur?

A

In good VFR weather and during the daytime.

144
Q

When is wake turbulence greatest?

A

When the aircraft is clean, heavy, and slow.

145
Q

What is required for LAHSO?

A

Basic VFR = 1,000 feet ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility. Not student pilot.

146
Q

What is a runway incursion?

A

Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for the landing and take-off of aircraft. This is the ICAO definition that was adopted in ‘07.

147
Q

What are the three major areas contributing to runway incursions?

A

Communications Airport Knowledge Cockpit Procedures

148
Q

How can you minimize runway incursions?

A

Read back all runway/taxiway crossing and/or holding instructions. Review airport layouts. Review NOTAMs. Be familiar with airport signs and markings. When unsure of taxi route, ask for progressive taxi. Clear the runway ASAP when landing. Check for traffic before entering taxiway or runway. Write down complex taxi instructions.

149
Q

What is the main cause of CFIT?

A

The crew’s loss of situational awareness.

150
Q

What are the five hazardous attitudes?

A

Anti-authority. Impulsivity. Invulnerability. Macho. Resignation.

151
Q

Why are wire strikes dangerous?

A

You may not see the supporting wires around an obstruction. They may not be lighted or noted on a chart.

152
Q

What are the three major causes of runway incursions?

A

-Failure to comply with ATC instructions. -Unfamiliarity with airport. -Noncomformance with standard operating procedures.

153
Q

What can you do to avoid incursions?

A

Always use an airport diagram. Trace your route. Set your heading bug to the runway number before takeoff.

154
Q

What is an airport “hot spot”?

A

An intersection with a history of or potential for incursions. They are designated as open circles or polygons labeled “HS 1”, “HS 2”, etc.

155
Q

What is the difference between movement and non-movement areas?

A

Movement areas are all taxiways and runways, and are under the jurisdiction of the control tower.

156
Q

How is the boundary between a movement and non-movement area marked?

A

Two yellow lines, one solid and one dashed. The dashed line is on the movement side.

157
Q

If a takeoff clearance is not received within 90 seconds after receiving a “line up and wait” instruction, what should you do?

A

Contact ATC immediately.

158
Q

What are the MULTICOM frequencies?

A

122.9 and 122.925.

159
Q

If you are on a runway or taxiway, and radio communication with ATC fails, what should you do?

A

Turn toward the tower, flash your landing lights, and wait for a light signal. You can also call them on a cell phone.

160
Q

What is an enhanced taxiway centerline marking?

A

Yellow dashed lines on either side of the normal solid taxiway centerline, to warn you of an upcoming runway. They extend 150 feet prior to a runway holding position marking.

161
Q

What are wig-wag lights?

A

A pair of flashing elevated lights installed on either side of the taxiway, near the holding position sign.

162
Q

What must you consider before accepting a LAHSO clearance?

A

Runway lengths, aircraft landing performance, and runway slopes.

163
Q

When can you not do a LAHSO?

A

-Night -Less than 1,000 foot ceiling and 3 statute miles visibility. -Student pilot on solo. -Wet runway.

164
Q

What does an ATC instruction to “Hold short of the ILS critical area” mean?

A

Hold short of the yellow ladder marking crossing the taxiway, so that your airplane does not interfere with instrument landing broadcast signals.

165
Q

What is a yellow dashed line extending the width of the taxiway?

A

A taxiway/taxiway intersection. ATC may request that you hold short of this line.

166
Q

What colors are runway edge, centerline, and end lights?

A

Edge: white. End: red for departing aircraft, green for landing aircraft. Centerline: White until the last 3,000 feet, then alternating with red for 2,000 feet, then all red for the last 1,000 feet.

167
Q

What color are taxiway edge lights?

A

Blue.

168
Q

What increases load factor?

A

Climbs. Turns. Turbulence.

169
Q

What’s the difference in weight between taxi and takeoff weight?

A

1.4 gallons. 11.2 pounds.

170
Q

What is the danger of a too far forward CG?

A

Unable to flare during landing. Poor climb weight. Slower cruise speed. Burn more fuel.

171
Q

What are some collision avoidance tips?

A

Do clearing turns before maneuvers. When leaving an airport, drop the nose a bit to look around. Examine sky in 10° sectors during the day. At night, use offcenter viewing. Cones are for day, rods are for night (more sensitive to light). Only the fovea gets a good view.

172
Q

How do you get the most recent, up-to-date TFRs?

A

Telephone briefing.

173
Q

What are MTRs?

A

Military Training Routes. Use caution when crossing them. 3 digits means above 1,500 AGL, 4 digits means below.

174
Q

What are TRSA’s?

A

An “other” airspace that offers Class C services. Participation is non-mandatory.

175
Q

Describe single pilot resource management.

A

Using internal and external aids: INTERNAL -charts -gps EXTERNAL. ATC external.

176
Q

What are the two star markings on a chart?

A

Star over airport circle is rotating beacon sunset to sunrise. Star in information box is non-24 hour control tower.

177
Q

What do the runways outside of a circle mean?

A

Hard-surface runway length greater than 8,069 feet.

178
Q

What are the symptoms of hyperventilation?

A

Dizziness, rapid breathing, tingling in lips/hands/feet, headache, weakness.

179
Q

Why not fly sick or congested?

A

You lose your internal attitude indicator, and altitude changes may cause pain.

180
Q

What is the Coriolis illusion?

A

A misperception of body orientation due to Coriolis force. It creates the illusion of movement or rotation.

181
Q

What are the effects of dehydration?

A

Headache, hallucinations. Dry air at altitude can exacerbate dehydration.

182
Q

What is the maximum blood alcohol level for flying?

A

.04.

183
Q

What’s the difference between EFAS (FlightWatch) and FSS?

A

EFAS is enroute weather only. FSS is everything.

184
Q

What definition of night is used for night currency?

A

The period beginning one hour after sunset and ending one hour before sunrise.

185
Q

What’s the difference between CTAF, UNICOM, and MULTICOM?

A

CTAF is the voice frequency used to communicate between pilots, at airports with no control tower.

UNICOM is a private, licensed ground base station that can communicate with aircraft at airports with no tower or FSS.

MULTICOM is 122.9 or 122.95, and is used as a default CTAF.

CTAF is most often a UNICOM frequency.

186
Q

What is the difference between few clouds, scattered, broken, and overcast?

A

Few = 1-2 eights of sky covered with clouds.

Scattered = 3-4.

Broken = 5-7.

Overcast = 8.

187
Q

What is the standard lapse rate?

A

For every 1,000 feet increase in altitude, pressure decreases by 1 inch mercury, and 2 degrees celsius (3.5 degrees F).

188
Q

Which instruments are electrically powered? Vacuum? Which rely on pitot/static air?

A

Electrical: turn coordinator.

Vacuum: attitude indicator, directional gyro.

Pitot/static: altimeter, vertical speed indicator, airspeed indicator.

189
Q

What is the difference between course and heading?

A

Heading is the direction that the nose of the plane is pointed; course is the direction the plane is moving over the ground.

190
Q

What is pressure altitude? Density altitude?

A

Pressure altitude is the altitude that the altimeter displays when the pressure is set to 29.92. Density altitude is pressure altitude corrected for nonstandard temperature. When the temperature is higher than standard, the density altitude is higher than pressure altitude.

191
Q

What are the compass errors?

A

When the aircraft is accelerated or turned to a new heading, the following two rules apply:

  1. ANDS: When on an easterly or westerly heading, in the northern hemisphere, if the aircraft accelerates, it momentarily shows a turn toward the north. If it decelerates, it momentarily shows a turn toward the south.
  2. UNOS: When on a northerly heading and a turn towards the east or west is made, the compass will lag. When on a southerly heading, and turning east or west, the compass will lead the actual heading.
192
Q

Describe the category and class certifications.

A

With respect to certification of airCRAFT, category is Normal, Utility, Acrobatic (each is based on a structural strength rating) and class is Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Balloon.

With respect to certification of airMEN, category is Airplane, Rotorcraft, Glider, Lighter-than-Air, class is Single-Engine Land, Multi-Engine Land, etc.

193
Q

What are the entry requirements for A, B, C, and D airspace?

A

A: instrument rated, ATC clearance, mode C transponder and two-way radio.

B: private pilot or student with endorsement, ATC clearance, mode C transponder and two-way radio.

C: radio contact, mode C transponder, two-way radio.

D: radio contact, two-way radio.

194
Q

What are the fight visibility and cloud clearance requirements for B, C, D, E, and G airspace?

A

B: 3 statute miles, clear of clouds.

C: 3 statute miles and 1-5-2.

D: 3 statute miles and 1-5-2.

E: 3 statute miles and 1-5-2 when below 10,000’ MSL. 5 statute miles and 1-1-1 when at or above 10,000’ MSL.

G: 1,200 AGL or less: 1 statute mile and clear of clouds during the day, and 3 statute miles and 1-5-2 at night.

G: 1,200 AGL to 10,000 MSL: 1 statute mile and 1-5-2 during the day, and 3 statute miles and 1-5-2 at night.

G: Above 1,200 AGL and at and above 10,000’ MSL: 5 statute miles and 1-1-1.

195
Q

What do all of the light signals mean?

A

ON GROUND:

solid red: stop

flashing red: clear the runway

flashing white: return to starting position at airport

solid green: cleared for takeoff

flashing green: cleared to taxi

flashing red and green: exercise extreme caution

IN FLIGHT:

solid red: continue circling, give way to other aircraft

flashing red: airport unsafe, do not land

solid green: clear to land

flashing green: cleared to approach airport

flashing red and green: exercise extreme caution

196
Q

What are the rules for taxiing in winds?

A

Ailerons: turn into a quartering headwind, turn away from a quartering tailwind.

Elevator: dive away from a tailwind.

197
Q

What are the shapes of B, C, and D airspace?

A

Class B can be any shape, but is usually an inverted wedding cake.

Class C generally extends to 4,000’ AGL, has a core surface area with radius of 5 nautical miles, an upper “shelf” area with radius of 10 nautical miles, and a procedural “outer area” with radius of 20 nautical miles.

Class D is generally a cylinder extending up to 2,500’ AGL, and an outer radius of 4 nautical miles.

198
Q

What are the basic aviation speed limits?

A

Below 10,000’ MSL: 250 knots.

At or below 2,500 AGL within 4 nautical miles of the primary airport of Class C or D airspace, underlying Class B airspace, and VFR corridor through Class B airspace: 200 knots.

199
Q

What are the currency requirements?

A

3 takeoffs and landings within the preceding 90 days, in the same category, class, and type, if a type rating is required.

Night: the landings must be to a full stop, and must be done from 1 hour after sunset to 1 hour before sunrise.

200
Q

What are the right-of-way rules?

A

Aircraft in distress has right-of-way over all others.

When converging (except for head-on), the aircraft on the right has the right of way. This only applies to aircraft in the same category. If not the same category, the least maneuvable aircraft has the right of way.

When converging head-on, both aircraft shall give way to the right.

An aircraft towing has right-of-way over all other engine-driven aircraft.

Aircraft landing, or on final, has right of way over all other aircraft in flight or on the airport surface. You can’t dive to take advantage of this rule.

201
Q

What are the rules concerning distances over terrain?

A

Congested area: 1,000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal distance of less than 2,000 feet.

Other than congested: an altitude of 500 feet AGL.

Over Open Water or Sparsely Populated Areas: an altitude allowing for a linear distance greater than 500 from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.

Anywhere: an altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, a safe emergency landing without undue hazard to person or property on the surface.

202
Q

Describe these cloud types: stratus, cirrus, cumulus, nimbucumulus.

A

Cirrus: thin wispy strands, usually above 16,500’.

Stratus: low horizontal layers with uniform base.

Cumulus: puffy clouds.

Cumulonimbus: like cumulus, but associated with thunderstorms.

203
Q

How are latitude and longitude measured?

A

There are 360 degrees of longitude. Each degree is broken down into 60 minutes, and each minute into 60 seconds.

There are 90 degrees of latitude north of the equator, and 90 degrees south. For longitude, Greenwich, England is used as an arbitrary 0 degree point; the prime meridian.

A minute of latitude is 1 nautical mile.

Degrees of longitude vary in size.

Latitude comes first, then longitude.

204
Q

What are the rough approximate coordinates of KBJC?

A

40 degrees north latitude, 105 degrees west longitude.

205
Q

When are pilots “encouraged” (not required) to use supplemental oxygen?

A

Above 10,000’ MSL during the day, and above 5,000’ MSL at night.

206
Q

What increases stall speed?

A

Bank angle, load factor, increasing angle of attack, and increase in weight.

207
Q

For 201TH, on what frequencies does the ELT transmit?

A

121.5, the FAA emergency frequency, and 243.0, the military frequency.

208
Q

Around KBJC, what frequency is FSS? Denver approach?

A
  1. 2
  2. 1
209
Q

How do Vx and Vy change with altitude?

A

Vx increases with altitude, and Vy decreases. The altitude at which they are equal is known as absolute ceiling; that is the altitude at which the plane can no longer climb.

210
Q

What color is a civilian rotating beacon for a land airport? Military? Helicopter?

A

Civilian: white and green.

Military: white, white, green.

Helicopter: white, yellow, green.

211
Q

What is convection?

A

Expansion of a liquid or gas due to an increase in temperature. It becomes less dense and rises, then gets colder and sinks.

212
Q

When getting a flight briefing from FSS, what information should you give the briefer?

A
  • VFR or IFR flight
  • aircraft type
  • departure and destination airport
  • flight route
  • flight altitudes
  • ETD
  • ETA
  • aircraft identification
213
Q

What is precipitation?

A

Any kind of moisture falling from the sky, whether it reaches the ground or not.

214
Q

What instruments contain gyroscopes?

A

HAT:

Heading indicator (directional gyro).

Attitude indicator.

Turn coordinator.

215
Q

What are REIL?

A

Runway end identifier lights. A pair of synchronized flashing lights on each side of the runway threshold.

216
Q

In a METAR, how are clear skies encoded?

A

Manual METAR: SKC.

Automated METAR: CLR.

217
Q

What is a front?

A

A boundary between two air masses that contain different temperature, wind, and moisture properties.

218
Q

How does a wing create lift?

A
  • Deflecting air downward (air striking the bottom of the wing is shoved downward. Per Newton’s law of motion (Every action has an equal and opposite reaction), there is a corresponding upward force on the wing. Like holding your hand outside the window of a car when it is moving.
  • Causing an area of low pressure above the wing surface. The air has to flow a longer distance over the curved upper surface of the wing. This longer distance requires the air to flow faster, which results in lower pressure, per Bernoulli’s law (pressure decreases where speed increases).
219
Q

Describe PCL.

A

Pilot Controlled Lighting.

The pilot selects the proper radio frequency, and clicks the microphone seven times within 5 seconds for max brightness. Five more for medium, and three for low. They stay on for 15 minutes.

220
Q

What illusion does attempting to land on an upsloping runway create?

A

The illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude than it actually is. Downsloping has the opposite effect.

221
Q

What is a chord line?

A

A line drawn from the trailing edge to the leading edge of an airfoil.

222
Q

What are some performance deficiencies of an overloaded airplane?

A

Longer takeoff and landing roll.

Reduced climb speed.

Higher stall speed.

Shorter range.

223
Q

What illusion might a pilot experience when attempting to land on a wider-than-usual runway?

A

It can create the illusion that the aircraft is lower than it actually is.

224
Q

At what altitude and distance from an uncontrolled field should you be able to pick up its AWOS/ASOS broadcast?

A

25 NM, under 10,000’ MSL.

225
Q

What are the five hazardous attitudes?

A

Macho

Invulnerability

Impulsivity

Resignation

Anti-authority

226
Q

When a TAF says “TEMPO”, how long are the conditions expected to last.

A

Generally, less than an hour.

227
Q

Is Class E airspace considered “controlled”?

A

Yes. For example, ATC provides separation, and you can get flight following, even though the airports in Class E do not have control towers.

228
Q

What is adverse yaw?

A

The tendency of an airplane to turn in the opposite direction from which it is being banked.

229
Q

How often are TAFs generated? METARs? Area forecasts?

A

TAFs: 0000 UTC, 0600, 1200, 1800. Valid for 24 hours.

METARs: on the hour. No validity period; observation, not forecast.

Area forecast: 3 times daily, good for 18 hours.

230
Q

What is the primary cause of a spin?

A

Exceeding the critical AOA while applying excessive or insufficient rudder.

231
Q

What are the runway lengths at KBJC, KLMO, and KEIK?

A

KBJC: 9000 (29R) and 7000 (29L)

KLMO: 4800

KEIK: 4700

232
Q

Which parts of the eye are used for day viewing? Which for night?

A

Cones for day, rods for night.

233
Q

What is magnetic dip?

A

The tendency of the magnetic card to dip down. It’s least at the equator, and greatest at the magnetic poles.

234
Q

What is an in-pavement stop bar?

A

A row of in-pavement illuminated lights. If they are red, DO NOT CROSS, even if ATC says to.

235
Q

When should you expect wind shear?

A

In a temperature inversion when windspeed 2,000 to 4,000 AGL is 25 knots or more. And, in low-level temperature inversions, frontal zones, and clear air turbulence.

236
Q

When you adjust the elevator trim tab for nose-up trim, in what direction does the trim tab move?

A

Downward. The airflow then strikes the trim tab, which pushes the elevator up in the opposite direction of the trim tab deflection

237
Q

On a METAR, what does VV005 mean?

A

Vertical visibility, 500 feet.

238
Q

What is the altimeter window that shows adjusted pressure called?

A

A Kollsman window.

239
Q

What are the effects of too aft CG? Too far forward?

A

Too aft: unstable aircraft, harder to recover from stall

Too forward: higher stall speed, difficulty flaring

240
Q

How are the airspeed indicator and the stall warning indicator related?

A

They are not. The stall warning indicator is triggered by excessive angle of attack.

241
Q

If you are flying with an altimeter setting of 29.00, and you enter a new area where the recommended altimeter setting is 28.50, but you don’t adjust the altimeter, what kind of problems would you have?

A

The altimeter would read higher than actual altitude.

242
Q

How does temperature affect the altimeter?

A

When the temperature drops, the altimeter reads higher than actual. Hot to cold, look out below.

243
Q

Who monitors 121.5?

A

FSS and control towers.

244
Q

What would happen if the engine were run too lean?

A

Could run rough, and hot.

245
Q

What is the difference between detonation and pre-ignition?

A

Detonation is when pockets of air/fuel mixtures ignite outside the envelope of the normal combustion front. Pre-ignition is specifically when the fuel/air charge is ignited before the spark plug fires.

246
Q

What can happen with a too-rich mixture?

A

Spark plug fouling.

247
Q

On a runway, what’s the difference between chevrons and arrows?

A

Arrows indicate that you can taxi and takeoff in that area. Chevrons are for overrun only.

248
Q

What are the cross country recommended altitudes?

A

Over 3,000’ AGL, odd thousand plus 500 for 0-179° magnetic course, even thousand plus 500 for 180-359.

249
Q

What are victor airways?

A

They’re essentially highways in the sky. Airways for IFR or VFR operation, from 1200’ AGL to 18,000’ MSL.

250
Q

How are spins formed?

A

While the airplane is stalled, a yaw moment is introduced, often by rudder application, which causes one wing to be stalled more than the other. This causes the airplane to autorotate toward the deeper-stalled wing, due to its higher drag. The difference in lift between the two wings causes the airplane to roll, and the difference in drag causes it to yaw.

251
Q

When not designated, where does Class E airspace start?

A

1200’ AGL.

252
Q

When not designated otherwise, where does Class E airspace end? What about Class G?

A

Class E: up to, but not including, 18,000’ MSL.

Class G: 14,500’ MSL.

253
Q

For which airports are runway patterns depicted on charts?

A

Those with at least one hard-surfaced runway 1500’ or greater in length.

254
Q

In an airport information box on a chart, what does the “L” mean?

A

Lighting in operation sunset to sunrise. If there’s an asterisk preceding the L, it means that lighting limitations exist (consult AFD for more info).

255
Q

In a NAVAID box on a chart, what does an asterisk mean?

A

That the NAVAID operates less than continuous or on-request.

256
Q

If the PIC deviates from ATC clearance to deal with an emergency, when must ATC be notified?

A

As soon as possible, then obtain an amended clearance.

257
Q

In what direction does lift happen?

A

Perpendicular to the relative wind.

258
Q

What are the four stages of a four-stroke reciprocating engine?

A

Intake, compression, power, exhaust.

259
Q

What is a graveyard spiral?

A

The plane will be in a prolonged, constant-rate turn, but the pilot has the illusion of not turning. The pilot may notice the loss of altitude, and he will pull back on the controls, tightening the spiral and increasing loss of altitude.

260
Q

What are the requirements for towing gliders?

A

Private pilot.

100 hours of time in the same category.

Endorsement.

261
Q

What are the three axes of control, and which control surfaces control them?

A

Yaw, about the vertical axis: rudder

Pitch, about the lateral axis: elevators

Roll, about the longitudinal axis: ailerons

262
Q

What frequencies might the CTAF be?

A

UNICOM, MULTICOM, FSS, Tower.

263
Q

What is the effect of turbulence on stall speed, and why?

A

It raises stall speed, because you lose relative wind over the wing.

264
Q

What is an accelerated stall?

A

Any stall that happens above the regular stall speed (like in a steep bank).

265
Q

What is the difference between setting the mixture for maximum economy vs. maximum power?

A

Maximum power will be about a 50° high EGT temp than maximum economy.

266
Q

For what weight are “book values” for stall speeds?

A

Maximum gross weight.

267
Q

What is true airspeed?

A

Calibrated airspeed corrected for nonstandard pressure and temperature.

268
Q

What documentation is required after maintenance is completed on an aircraft?

A

An entry must be made in the aircraft’s maintenance record, including:

  • description of work performed
  • date the work was done
  • name, certificate number, and type of certificate of person performing work
269
Q

How much does engine oil weigh per gallon?

A

7.5 pounds per gallon.

270
Q

What is parasite drag?

A

Parasite drag has three elements: form drag from the shape of the airplane, skin friction, and interference drag from competing airflows flowing around different surfaces of the airplane.

271
Q

What is an airfoil, and what are the different parts of an airfoil?

A

Any part of an aircraft that is designed to produce lift (wing, prop, tail, etc.).

An airfoil has: a leading edge, a trailing edge, a chord, and camber (upper/lower/mean).

272
Q

When on a heading of north, and turning to the south, the compass will…

A

Undershoot the turn (and/or initially show a turn in the opposite direction).

273
Q

On a chart, in an airport info box, what does a light “C” in a dark circle mean?

A

That the CTAF is the UNICOM.

274
Q

What are the UNICOM frequencies?

A

Between 122.7 and 123.075.

275
Q

If a stratus cloud extends to the ground, what is it called?

A

Fog.

276
Q

All airspace between 14,500’ and 18,000’ that is not contained in other classes of airspace is which class?

A

Class E.

277
Q

Name some factors that influence how much lift a wing produces.

A
  • Shape.
  • Angle of attack.
  • Area.
  • Air density.
  • Flight speed.
  • Condition of the wing.
278
Q

What is ground effect?

A

A condition of improved performance when the plane is close to the ground.

279
Q

How is moment computed? How is CG computed?

A

Moment = weight * arm.

CG = total moment / total weight.

280
Q

What is the difference between a side slip and a forward slip?

A

A side slip is used to align the aircraft with the runway centerline during a crosswind landing approach. Ailerons into the wind, and just enough opposite rudder to keep a straight track down the runway.

A forward slip is used to lose altitude during a landing approach, with a cross-control configuration.

281
Q

What is total drag?

A

Induced drag plus parasite drag.

282
Q

What is lift-induced drag?

A

A drag force that occurs whenever a moving object redirects the airflow coming at it. It increases with angle of attack.

Aviation (19 decks)

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