Flight Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Where can parachute jumping and glider operations information be found?

A

In the A/FD.

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2
Q

What do the letters VHF/DF in the A/FD mean? How would you use it?

A

That the airport has a Flight Service Station with equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.

You need to have a VHF transmitter and receiver to use it.

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3
Q

Decode some A/FD entries.

A

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4
Q

How do you get an Advisory Circular?

A

From the Government Printing Office.

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5
Q

What are the FAA Advisory Circular number codes for Airmen, Airspace, and Air Traffic Control and General Operations.

A

60, 70, 90

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6
Q

What are NOTAMs?

A

Notices to Airmen. They contain things that are important for you to know, such as runway or taxiway closures. There are two kinds:

  • FDC NOTAMs, having to do with regulatory changes or changes in Instrument Approach Procedures or nautical charts.
  • NOTAM D’s, having to do with airports and facilities.
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7
Q

How long are NOTAMs effective?

A

They have a very short effective period. If they are expected to remain in effect for at least 7 days, they will be published in a book called Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP).

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8
Q

When should you fill the fuel tanks?

A

After the last flight of the day, because this will prevent moisture condensation by elimination airspace in the tanks.

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9
Q

What should you use if the recommended octane is not available?

A

The next higher octane aviation gas.

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10
Q

What should be the first action after starting an aircraft engine?

A

Adjust for proper RPM and check for desired indications on the engine gauges.

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11
Q

What is one purpose of the dual ignition system, besides safety?

A

To provide for improved engine performance.

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12
Q

With an electrical failure, what will normally fail?

A

Avionics, but not the engine.

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13
Q

In the event of a power failure, what is the most important rule to remember?

A

Immediately establish the proper glide attitude and airspeed.

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14
Q

If the ground wire between the magneto and the ignition switch becomes disconnected, what will be the most noticeable result?

A

The engine cannot be shut down by turning the switch to the OFF position.

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15
Q

What is the advantage of a constant speed propeller?

A

It permits the pilot to select the blade angle for most efficient performance.

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16
Q

When using a constant speed propeller, what do the propeller control and the throttle do?

A

The propeller control regulates engine RPM, and the throttle controls power output as registered on the manifold pressure gauge.

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17
Q

What is one precaution when using a constant speed propeller?

A

Avoid high manifold pressure settings with low RPM.

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18
Q

What is the basic purpose of the fuel/air mixture control?

A

To decrease the fuel flow in order to compensate for decreased air density.

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19
Q

What happens if the fuel/air mixture is too rich?

A

The engine runs rough.

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20
Q

If during runup at a high elavation airport, you notice an engine roughness that is not affected by the magneto check, but grows worse during the carburetor heat check, what should you do?

A

Lean the mixture.

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21
Q

What happens to the mixture if you fail to adjust it on descent from high altitude?

A

It may become excessively lean.

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22
Q

What is the operating principle of float-type carburetors based upon?

A

The difference in air pressure at the venturi throat and the air inlet.

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23
Q

What are conditions favorable to carburetor icing?

A

Between 20°F and 70°F and high humidity.

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24
Q

What is the first indication of carburetor ice?

A

A loss of RPM (if the airplane has a fixed pitch propeller).

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25
Q

How can you verify carburetor icing?

A

By applying carburetor heat and noting a decrease in RPM, and then a gradual increase in RPM (in an airplane with a fixed pitch propeller).

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26
Q

How does applying carburetor heat affect engine performance and fuel/air mixture?

A

It riches the mixture, and decreases engine performance.

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27
Q

Which is more susceptible to icing? Float-type carburetor systems, or fuel injection?

A

Float-type carburetor systems.

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28
Q

What can excessively high engine temperatures cause?

A

Loss of power, excessive oil consumption, and possible permanent internal engine damage.

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29
Q

What are the causes of cylinder head temperature and engine oil temperature exceeding their normal ranges?

A

Using fuel with lower-than-specified octane rating, operating with too much power, and/or mixture set too lean.

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30
Q

How can you aid in cooling an overheating engine?

A

Rich the mixture, reduce rate of climb, increase airspeed.

31
Q

When does detonation occur in a reciprocating aircraft engine?

A

When the unburned charge in the cylinders explodes instead of burning normally.

32
Q

What is one likely cause of detonation?

A

Using a grade of fuel lower than specified for the engine.

33
Q

With a fixed-pitch propeller, if you suspect detonation during climb-out after takeoff, what should you do?

A

Lower the nose slightly to increase airspeed.

34
Q

What is pre-ignition?

A

The uncontrolled firing of the fuel/air charge in advance of the normal spark ignition.

35
Q

What are the four fundamentals in maneuvering an aircraft?

A

Straight and level flight, turns, descents, climbs.

36
Q

When flying an emergency approach, why is it important to maintain a constant glide speed?

A

Because variations in glide speed can nullify accuracy in judging glide distance and landing spot.

37
Q

In downwind emergency landings, what should you expect?

A

Faster groundspeed at touchdown, longer ground roll, and possible overshoot of touchdown point.

38
Q

How should you scan for other aircraft for collision avoidance during daylight hours?

A

A series of short, regularly spaced eye movements to search each 10° sector.

39
Q

If an aircraft is on a collision course with you, how would it appear?

A

There would be no apparent relative motion between your aircraft and the other aircraft.

40
Q

What effect does haze have on the appearance of traffic and terrain features.

A

It makes them appear to be farther away.

41
Q

How should you scan for other aircraft at night?

A

Use peripheral vision by slowly scanning small sectors and using off-center viewing.

42
Q

When do most midair collisions occur?

A

During clear days.

43
Q

When taking off from a runway intersection, what should you always do?

A

State your position on the airport to the controller, regardless of weather conditions.

44
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

A state of oxygen deficiency in the blood.

45
Q

What causes hyperventilation? How can you stop it?

A

Caused by emotional tension, anxiety, fear, or extra deep breathing while using oxygen.

Stop it by slowing breathing rate, breathing into a bag, or talking aloud.

46
Q

What can large accumulations of carbon monoxide in the body do?

A

Result in loss of muscular power.

47
Q

When does susceptibility to carbon monoxide poisoning increase?

A

With altitude.

48
Q

What are the color indications on a tri-color VASI?

A

Above glide slope: amber.

On glide slope: green.

Below glide slope: red.

49
Q

How are the lights arranged on a PAPI?

A

Four lights arranged in a row off to one side.

50
Q

What’s a PLASI?

A

A pulsating approach slope indicator. If you’re below glide slope, it shows a single flashing red light.

51
Q

How do VFR approaches to land at night differ from day?

A

They don’t.

52
Q

How should you set pilot-controlled high intensity runway lights to medium intensity?

A

7 microphone clicks, then 5, all within 5 seconds.

53
Q

How are taxiway edge lights identified at night?

A

By blue omnidirectional lights.

54
Q

How can military airports be identified at night?

A

A beacon with two quick white flashes and a green flash.

55
Q

Know these airport signs:

  • Taxiway direction sign
  • Taxiway destination sign
  • Location sign
  • Mandatory instruction sign
  • No entry sign
  • Runway boundary sign
  • Runway/Runway hold position sign
  • ILS Critical Boundary Area sign
  • Outbound destination sign
A

56
Q

What are runway hold position markings?

A

Hold short line. Two solid and two dashed yellow lines.

57
Q

What’s a displaced threshold?

A

A runway threshold at somewhere other than the physical beginning or end of the runway. You can use them for taxiing and takeoff, but not for landing. White arrows.

58
Q

What’s an overrun area?

A

Part of a runway used in emergencies only. Indicated by yellow chevrons.

59
Q

How do you taxi in a strong quartering headwind?

A

Hold the aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing, and the elevator neutral (or up in tailwheel).

60
Q

What is the most critical wind when taxiing a nosewheel-equipped high-wing airplane?

A

Quartering tailwind.

61
Q

How should you taxi in a strong quartering tailwind?

A

Hold the aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing, and the elevator down.

62
Q

What’s LAHSO?

A

Land and hold short operations. An ATC procedure in which you land and hold short of an intersecting runway.

63
Q

Can you decline a LAHSO clearance?

A

Yes. They are not mandatory.

64
Q

When should ATC not issue a LAHSO clearance?

A

With less than basic VFR conditions: 1,000 foot celing and 3 statute miles visibility.

65
Q

When planning a flight, how should you check for LAHSO procedures?

A

See whether the destination airport has LAHSO, in the A/FD. If it does, you’ll need to know the runway slope and how much runway is available for landing in each LAHSO runway.

66
Q

What are the four fundamental risk elements in aviation?

A

PAVE

  • Pilot
  • Aircraft
  • enVironment
  • External pressures (the Mission)
67
Q

What is the most common factor that affects most preventable accidents?

A

Human error.

68
Q

Why do aviation problems commonly occur?

A

Because the pilot failed to recognize risk, or because of his attitude towards risk-taking.

69
Q

Who is responsible for determining if the pilot is fit for a particular flight?

A

The pilot.

70
Q

What are the five hazardous aviation attitudes?

A
  • Antiauthority
  • Impulsivity
  • Invulnerability
  • Macho
  • Resignation
71
Q

What is the leading cause of accidents in general aviation flying?

A

Continuing VFR into instrument conditions.

72
Q

What is scud running?

A

Trying to maintain visual contact with the terrain in low ceilings and visibilities.

73
Q

What is a pilot’s primary job?

A

Risk managament.