PQS - entrance exam [8] Flashcards
1
Q
Brucella canis can infect dogs.
A
True
2
Q
Histophilus somni and Actinobacillus seminis can cause similar lesions in the genitals of rams as Brucella ovis
A
True
3
Q
Ticks are true vectors of tularaemia
A
True
4
Q
Clinical signs of tularaemia can be seen only in hares
A
False
5
Q
Mouse inoculation is a frequently used method during isolation of
Francisella tularensis from pathological samples
A
True
6
Q
Francisella tularensis can cause epidemics among slaughterhouse
workers.
A
False
7
Q
Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice
A
True
8
Q
Infectious coryza is mainly seen in the ๔rst weeks of life
A
False
9
Q
Germinative infection is common in the case of infectious coryza
A
False
10
Q
Lesions of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of pigs are generally limited to the lungs.
A
True
11
Q
Histophilus ovis can cause pneumonia in cattle
A
True
12
Q
Haemophilus (Glaesserella) parasuis can infect only pigs
A
True
13
Q
Mycobacterium bovis is an agent of bovine tuberculosis
A
True
14
Q
Fresh tuberculosis lesions in the lymph nodes are common in the early
generalisation
A
True
15
Q
The skin intra dermal tuberculin test can be repeated within a week if necessary
A
False
16
Q
Cough is a typical clinical sign of bovine pulmonary tuberculosis
A
True
17
Q
If the cellular immune reaction of cattle is week, mainly proliferative lesions
of tuberculosis can be seen
A
False
18
Q
Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause generalised tuberculosis in cattle
A
False
19
Q
BCG vaccination of badgers can result decreased shedding of
mycobacteria
A
True
20
Q
The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria.
A
False
21
Q
Drop of egg production is a clinical sign of avian tuberculosis
A
True
22
Q
The resistance of the agent of paratuberculosis is low, it cannot survive in the environment
A
False
23
Q
Actinomyces bovis is the causative agent of bovine actinomycosis
A
True
24
Q
Actinomyces species can cause diseases mainly in birds
A
False
25
The causative agent of foot rot is Dichelobacter nodosus
True
26
Actinomycosis is a noti!able disease
False
27
Mastitis is a common clinical sign of bovine nocardiosis
True
28
Hypo-gammaglobulinemia can predispose cattle to coli septicaemia
True
29
Calves are vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent coli septicaemia.
False
30
Rhodococcus equi can cause a disease mainly in swine
False
31
Nocardia are Gram-positive branching filaments
True
32
Lack of colostrum is an important predisposing factor in diseases in young
animals caused by E. coli
True
33
Hygienic problems can predispose new-born calves to coli diarrhoea
True
34
Verotoxigenic strains are responsible for oedema disease
True
35
In case of coli-diarrhoea of weaned piglets it is advisable to reduce the
amount of feed
True
36
High fever is a typical clinical sign of coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets
False
37
Oedema disease of weaned piglets is caused by enterotoxigenic E. coli
strains.
False
38
Salmonella Typhimurium can cause salmonellosis of cattle
True
39
Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis
True
40
The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs and
lesions of salmonellosis of cattle
False
41
Arthritis can occur in mares after salmonella abortion
True
42
Salmonellosis can cause septicaemia in sheep
True
43
Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe
False
44
Swine typhoid is a very frequent disease in Europe nowadays
False
45
Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid
True
46
Swine typhoid can be transmitted with infected pigs
True
47
Swine typhoid can be transmitted by contaminated utensils
True
48
Fowl paratyphoid has been eradicated in Europe
False
49
Salmonella Enteritidis can cause fowl paratyphoid
True
50
Lesions caused by Yersinia pseudotuberculosis are always limited to the
gut.
False
51
Rodents and hares are susceptible to Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
True
52
Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia
False
53
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis is a zoonotic agent
True
54
Transportation is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of
calves.
True
55
There are no vaccines for the prevention of haemorrhagic septicaemia of
cattle.
False
56
Fruits and vegetables can be the source of human infection by yersiniae
True
57
Bleeding from the nose is a frequent clinical sign of haemorrhagic
septicaemia of cattle
False
58
Mannheimia haemolytica leukotoxin (cytotoxin) damages the
macrophages.
True
59
The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the
diaphragmatic lobes
False
60
Lesions of atrophic rhinitis caused by Bordetella bronchiseptica are
irreversible.
False
61
Pasteurella multocida can cause pasteurellosis in small ruminants
True
62
The cytotoxin of Mannheimia haemolytica is responsible for the clinical
signs of ovine mastitis
True
63
Pasteurella multocida can infect humans
True
64
Feather pecking or force feeding can predispose animals to fowl cholera
True
65
High ammonia concentration in the air can predispose rabbits to
pasteurellosis.
True
66
Fowl cholera is caused by Pasteurella multocida A, D and F strains
True
67
Subcutaneous abscesses can be seen in the case of rabbit pasteurellosis
True
68
Clinical signs of anatipestifer disease are limited to the respiratory tract
False
69
Asymptomatic carriage of Pasteurella multocida can occur in birds
True
70
The endotoxin of the agent is responsible for the clinical signs of fowl cholera.
True
71
Parent birds have to be vaccinated just before laying in order to prevent
fowl cholera
False
72
Sinusitis is a frequent clinical sign of ornithobacteriosis
True
73
As a result of Kรถster-staining B. melitensis, B. abortus and B. suis are stained red
True
74
Abortion is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis
True
75
There is a serological relationship among some Brucella species, because
of the same polysaccharides in the cell wall
True
76
Brucella suis can infect only pigs.
False
77
Wild hares can be the carrier of Brucella suis
True
78
Brucella abortus can infect dogs
True
79
Agar gel diffusion test and ELISA are used to detection of infection with Brucella ovis
True
80
Brucella ovis can cause septicaemia in cattle
False
81
Brucella suis can cause abortion of pregnant sows in any gestation period
True
82
Brucella ovis occurs in most sheep-raising regions of the world
True
83
Lesions of bovine actinobacillosis can be found in the maxilla or the mandibula.
False
84
Bovine actinobacillosis is prevented by widespread vaccination with
inactivated vaccines
False
85
Francisella tularensis form Gram-positive, branching !laments
False
86
Increased salivation is a clinical sign of bovine actinobacillosis
True
87
Hunters can be infected with Francisella tularensis during skinning of wild
hares.
True
87
Actinobacillus seminis causes epididymitis and orchitis in rams and bocks
True
88
Actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of pigs can be chronic
True
89
Pigs are susceptible to Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
True
90
Glรคsserโs disease occurs mainly in 1-2 months old piglets
True
91
Histophilus ovis can cause disease in cattle and sheep
True
92
Bunyaviruses cause oral infections
False
93
African swine fever is resistant to environmental effects
True
94
Mosquitoes spread all bunyaviruses
False
95
The resistance of picornaviruses is good, they can survive in the environment.
True
96
Swine vesicular rash has similar clinical signs to Foot and Mouth Disease
True
97
Feline calicivirus infection can be recognised by ulcers on the tongue
True
98
Foot and Mouth virus can maintain its infectious ability for weeks in cold, wet/humid environments
True
99
Teschen disease occurs in swine and carnivores
False
100
Bluetongue disease is spread by ticks
False
101
Tick-borne encephalitis is maintained in nature by rodents and small mammals
True
102
The main vector of West Nile fever is Culex pipiens
True
103
Bluetongue disease can spread with sperm
True
104
All serotypes of Foot and Mouth Disease occur worldwide
False
105
Migratory birds play a central role in Bluetongue disease
False
106
Foot and Mouth Disease is spread by arthropods
False
107
Louping ill occurs mainly in Scottish and Scandinavian c
False
108
Nairobi sheep disease is spread by mosquitoes
False
109
Orthohepevirus A only causes clinical signs in humans
True
110
Avian hepatitis-E virus causes decreased egg production
True
111
In Europe, African swine fever is mainly spread by ticks.
False
112
Ruminants can carry Foot and Mouth disease for even 3 years
True
113
In Gumboro disease, we can see clinical signs in chickens older than 8 weeks
False
114
Talfan disease occurs in all age groups
False
115
Several clinical signs of Bluetongue disease are responsible for the virus caused blood vessel wall damage several clinical signs
True
116
Pestiviruses are zoonotic pathogens
False
117
Nairobi sheep disease causes bloody enteritis in infected animals
True
118
The most serious clinical signs in Foot and Mouth disease occur in sheep
False
119
In case of Teschen disease and Talfan disease, moribund (?) animals need to sent for investigations
True
120
The virulent strains of feline calicivirus cause generalised infections
True
121
Cross protection is observed among the 29 known serotypes of Bluetongue
False
122
The infection ability of bursitis virus is high
True
123
Intrauterine Bluetongue virus infection can result in a tolerated infection
True
124
In sheep, BVDV can cause foetal development disorders
True
125
Bursitis virus attacks immature T lymphocytes
False
126
Mucosal disease may develop in individuals persistently infected with BVDV
True
127
BVD viral infection can cause immune response in foetus
True
128
Haemorrhagic disease in rabbits mainly causes clinical signs in animals younger than 2 months.
False
129
In its chronic form, Foot and Mouth disease causes arthritis
False
130
Hantaviruses in humans can cause renal/kidney damage/ impairment
True
131
African horse sickness virus is zoonotic
False
132
Attenuated vaccines against Bovine viral diarrhoea can cause foetal damage
True
133
Togaviruses are spread by mosquitoes
True
134
Wild birds play the most important role in the spread of African horse sickness
False
135
Togavirus in horses can lead to abortion
False
136
Swine are infected per orally in Swine vesicular disease is spread per orally
True
137
Meat hybrids are more sensitive to Gumboro disease than layers
False
138
In the epidemiology of Venezuelan equine encephalitis, birds have a role as reservoirs
False
139
140
In case of BVD, central corneal opacity can be observed
True
141
In Swine Vesicular disease, blisters appear on the liver.
False
142
The equine encephalomyelitis viruses are zoonotic
True
143
The BVD viral infection in the fetus can cause newborn pancytopenia ( BNP Bo Neonatal
Pancytopenia)
False
144
Anemia and cyanosis can be a clinical sign in Gumboro Disease
True
145
In case of African swine fever necropsy the enlargement of the spleen is observable
True
146
The Avian encephalomyelitis disease does NOT spread in a germinative way
False
147
The birds are the reservoirs for the Eastern equine encephalomyelitis
True
148
The equine encephalitis caused by Togavirus is a seasonal disease
True
149
If there is an outbreak of equine influenza the animals must be culled
False
150
The typical pathological lesion in case of Classical swine fever is the bleeding in kidney
True
151
Against the protection of the Gumboro disease we apply in ovo vaccines
True
152
In case of the Avian encephalomyelitis the typical sign is shaking
True
153
The influenza in humans usually causes gastrointestinal signs
False
154
Swine flu outbreaks mainly occur during summer.
False
155
The HPAI ( High Pathogenic Avian Influenza) causes skin bleedings in swine
False
156
In case of subacute classical swine fever pneumonia is visible during the necropsy
True
157
In case of the Avian encephalomyelitis bleeding and spleen enlargement is visible
False
158
The day old calf infection caused by Rotavirus can be prevented by immunization of the cows
True
159
The equine encephalosis causes high mortality
False
160
Certain influenzaviruses high virulence is a result of a mutation on a HA gene
True
161
In a vaccinated stock the classical swine fever ( CSF) usually causes clinical signs in 6-12 week old
piglet
True
162
Certain strains of the Venezuelan equine encephalitis can spread from horse to horse
True
163
The date of vaccination against Gumboro disease for the stock is determined by measuring the yolk immunity
True
164
The swine is not susceptible to rotavirus infections
False
165
The Equine influenza is a highly pathogenic ( high morbidity) , fast spreading disease
True
166
HPAI (High pathogenic Avian Influenza) strains can cause clinical signs in waterfowl
True
167
In case of rotavirus infections the clinical signs are mainly visible in animals older than 2 weeks
False
168
The african swine fever is always a peracute disease
False
169
In Hungary the LPAI ( Low pathogenicity Avian Influenza) is a reportable disease
True
170
In Europe it is mandatory to vaccinate against classical swine fever
False
171
The Chikungunya virus causes fever, rash and bleeding followed by joint pain in man
True
172
The mammalian orthoreovirus serologically uniform
True
