PQS - Entrance exam [1] Flashcards
1
Q
Stenoxen agents have a wide host range.
A
False
2
Q
Foetuses have no immune reactions; they appear only in 2-4-week-
old animals.
A
False
3
Q
Avirulent strains can be used in live vaccines.
A
True
4
Q
Embryo transfer can be used as an eradication method.
A
True
5
Q
Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts.
A
True
6
Q
The age of the vaccinated animals can influence the efficacy of the
vaccination.
A
True
7
Q
The porcine parvovirus 1 causes renal disorders in adults.
A
False
8
Q
Porcine circovirus 2 always causes clinical signs in pigs.
A
False
9
Q
There is no neutralizing epitope of parvoviruses.
A
False
10
Q
SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus.
A
False
11
Q
In parrots porcine circovirus 2 causes the psittacine beak and feather disease.
A
False
12
Q
PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity.
A
False
13
Q
The turkey haemorrhagic enteritis virus can cause marble spleen disease in pheasants.
A
True
14
Q
Papillomavirus replicates in the kidney
A
False
15
Q
Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of infectious laryngotrachetitis.
A
True
16
Q
Derzsy’s disease is caused by a polyomavirus.
A
False
17
Q
Bovine herpesmamillitis virus can cause mastitis in cows.
A
False
18
Q
The sarcoid is the disease of cattle.
A
False
19
Q
The diphtheric (wet) form of fowlpox causes lesions on the mucous membranes.
A
True
20
Q
Clinical manifestation of swine inclusion body rhinitis is usually
seen in piglets less than 3 weeks of age.
A
True
21
Q
Myxomatosis may result over 90% mortality in susceptible animals
A
True
22
Q
Conjunctivitis and muco-purulent nasal discharge are frequent
signs of feline rhinotracheitis.
A
True
23
Q
Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of duck viral enteritis.
A
True
24
Q
In cattle, cowpox lesions are usually seen on the teats.
A
True
25
Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries.
False
26
The tick species vectoring African swine fever are present in Portugal and Spain.
True
27
Avian pox viruses are species specific.
False
28
The African swine fever virus replicates in lymphocytes.
False
29
Poxviruses usually induce cell proliferation in epithelial cells of the skin and mucosal surfaces.
True
30
Conjunctivitis is characteristic in the early phase of myxomatosis.
True
31
The foot and mouth disease virus is classified into 7 serotypes.
True
32
Ducks are infected with the duck hepatitis A virus generally per os.
True
33
The foot and mouth disease virus can retain its infectivity in dried milk for months.
True
34
The main clinical sign of Teschen disease in sheep is pneumonia.
False
35
In the control of foot and mouth disease vaccines are used in Europe.
False
36
Flaccid paralysis is a typical clinical sign of Talfan disease.
True
37
Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis.
True
38
The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection.
False
39
Bursitis virus infection can reduce the efficacy of vaccinations.
True
40
Avian nephritis virus replicates in the gut.
True
41
Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be seen in the first month of life.
True
42
The primary source of VES infection is sea-origin feed.
True
43
Bluetongue virus is also foetopathic.
True
44
African horse sickness is zoonotic.
False
45
Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur in summer and autumn.
True
46
Lameness is frequent symptom of bluetongue in sheep.
True
47
Mammalian orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis only in suckling animals.
False
48
Oedemas and haemorrhages are the most frequent lesions in
African horse sickness.
True
49
Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia
True
50
Classical swine fever virus targets the bone marrow stem cells.
True
51
Non-cytopathic strains of the Bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVDV) can cause immunosuppression.
True
52
Pestiviruses are zoonotic.
False
53
Akabane virus is zoonotic.
False
54
In utero infection with non-cytopathic BVDV can cause
immunotolerance.
True
55
Ischemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem
lesions of subacute Classical swine fever.
True
56
Influensavirusas have segmented genome. Influensavirusas have segmented genome.
True
57
Antigenic drift is behind the seasonal influensa epidemies.
True
58
Antigenic drift means serials of point mutations in the HA and NA genes.
True
59
Hendra virus can infect mainly swine and human.
False
60
Canine distemper virus has six serotypes
False
61
Natural hosts of rinderpest virus are cloven-hoofed animals.
True
62
Newcastle disease virus has virulence-variants.
True
63
Rabies virus is shed in the viraemic phase of the disease.
False
64
Ephemeral fever virus is shed in large amount in the saliva.
??
65
Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause clinical signs in horses.
True
66
Rhabdoviruses are generally good antigens.
True
67
Retroviruses are enveloped, their resistance is low.
True
68
Vaccine against Equine Viral Arteritis is never used in Europe
False
69
Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen in the case of rabies.
True
70
Maedi-visna can occur in sheep, goats and cattle.
False
71
Feline leukosis virus can cause immune tolerance.
True
72
Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus can infect sheep, goats and
cattle.
False
73
Mutation of retroviruses is very rare.
False
74
Retroviruses are frequently carried lifelong.
True
75
Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is carried lifelong.
True
76
Retroviruses can integrate into the genome of host cells.
True
77
In the case of transmissible encephalopathies meningoencephalitis
is a typical postmortem lesion.
??
78
Classical swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot.
False
79
Anthrax is a chronic disease in ruminants.
False
80
There are no vaccines for the prevention of bacillary
haemoglobinuria.
False
81
Soil contaminated frozen feed is a frequent predisposing factor of
bradsot.
True
82
Bacillary haemoglobinuria is mainly seen in cattle.
True
83
Infectious necrotic hepatitis is caused by Clostridium chauvoei.
False
84
Vesicles are formed in the case of exudative dermatitis.
True
85
Erysipelas can be an acute septicaemia in pigs.
True
86
The agent of tetanus is strictly aerobic.
False
87
Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei.
False
88
Humans are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas
through wounds
True
89
Clostridium botulinum generally causes wound infection.
False
90
In the case chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign.
False
91
Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be diagnosed using microscopy.
True
92
The skin intra dermal tuberculin test can be repeated within a
week if necessary
False
93
The incubation time of bovine tuberculosis is 1-2 weeks.
False
94
Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis
True
95
Saprophytic and facultative pathogenic mycobacteria cannot colonise warm blooded animals.
False
96
There is close antigen relationship between mycobacteria
True
97
Fibrinous pneumonia is a typical lesion of paratuberculosis.
False
98
Mycobacterium bovis can cause generalised tuberculosis in
badgers.
True
99
Pigs with neonatal coli diarrhoea have to be treated per os with antibiotics
True
100
Subcutaneous pyogranulomas can be seen in the case of canine
actinomycosis.
True
101
Bovine actinomycosis is typically a generalised disease.
False
102
Nocardia bacteria can cause inflammation of lymphatic vessels
True
103
Postmortem lesions of paratuberculosis can be seen in the small
intestine.
True
104
Hypo-gammaglobulinemia can predispose cattle to coli
septicaemia.
True
105
Abortion is the main clinical form of human salmonellosis.
False
106
Salmonella Typhisuis is the causative agent of swine typhoid.
True
107
Salmonella Typhimurium can cause salmonellosis of cattle.
True
108
Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe.
False
109
Enteritis is a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis.
True
110
Salmonella Choleraesuis can cause swine paratyphoid.
True
111
Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia.
False
112
Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis.
True
113
Mannheimia haemolytica causes rabbit pasteurellosis.
False
114
Diarrhoea is a common clinical sign of yersiniosis in pigs.
True
115
Waterfowl is more susceptible to fowl cholera than hens.
True
116
Dermonecrotoxin producing Bordetella bronchiseptica can cause
rhinitis in piglets.
True
117
The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis.
True
118
Sinusitis is a frequent clinical sign of ornithobacteriosis.
True
119
Europe is free from Brucella ovis.
False
120
Brucellae are facultative intracellular agents.
True
121
Mainly attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine.
False
122
Meningitis can occur in the case of Glässer’s disease.
True
123
Glässer’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis.
False
124
The agent of contagious equine metritis causes septicaemia in
horses.
False
125
Infected cattle carry brucellae lifelong.
True
126
Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae.
False
127
Tularaemia is a zoonosis.
True
128
The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks.
True
129
Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice.
True
130
The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks, mosquitoes, and other blood sucking arthropods.
True
131
The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare.
True
132
Glanders can occur in horses.
True
133
Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis.
True
134
Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses.
False
135
Melioidosis is endemic in the Mediterranean area.
False
136
There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis.
False
137
The clinical signs of glanders are more severe in horses than in donkeys.
False
138
Glanders occurs only in horses.
False
139
Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis.
True
140
Arthritis is a clinical sign of Lyme borreliosis in dogs.
True
141
Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteropathies in pigs.
True
142
Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis.
True
143
Melioidosis is a zoonosis.
True
144
Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis.
False
145
Lyme borreliosis is maintained by small rodents.
True
146
Abortion is the main clinical sign of leptospirosis of dogs.
False
147
Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of young dogs.
False
148
Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis.
False
149
Swine dysentery is caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.
True
150
Leptospirosis can be diagnosed based on the titre of antibodies in
the sow’s blood.
True
151
Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins.
True
152
Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery.
True
153
Q-fever is a zoonosis.
True
154
Severe pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of Potomac horse fever.
False
155
Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis.
True
156
Mycoplasmas frequently have immunosuppressive effect.
True
157
Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is diagnosed by isolation of
the agent.
False
158
The agent of contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is spreading in
aerosols.
True
159
Abortion caused by chlamydia can be diagnosed by microscopic
examination.
True
160
Zoonotic agents can cause disease in animals and humans.
True
161
Eradication with selection method is not done nowadays.
False
162
Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts.
True
163
New-born animals must be kept isolated when eradication with
generation shift is used.
True
164
Deletion vaccines can only be used as live vaccines.
False
165
Infection before self-recognition of the immune system can result
tolerated infections.
True
166
PDNS is a type IV. hypersensitivity.
False
167
Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks age.
False
168
PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
False
169
Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis.
False
170
Vertical infectious is not possible in chicken infectious anaemia.
False
171
Ascites can be a clinical sign of Derzsy’s disease.
True
172
Adenoviruses are poor antigens.
False
173
Canine adenovirus 2 can cause encephalitis in foxes.
False
174
175
Fowl cholera can occur is ducks and geese.
True
