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Epidemiology - FINAL PQS > PQS - Entrance exam [1] > Flashcards

PQS - Entrance exam [1] Flashcards

1
Q

Stenoxen agents have a wide host range.

A

False

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2
Q

Foetuses have no immune reactions; they appear only in 2-4-week-
old animals.

A

False

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3
Q

Avirulent strains can be used in live vaccines.

A

True

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4
Q

Embryo transfer can be used as an eradication method.

A

True

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5
Q

Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts.

A

True

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6
Q

The age of the vaccinated animals can influence the efficacy of the
vaccination.

A

True

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7
Q

The porcine parvovirus 1 causes renal disorders in adults.

A

False

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8
Q

Porcine circovirus 2 always causes clinical signs in pigs.

A

False

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9
Q

There is no neutralizing epitope of parvoviruses.

A

False

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10
Q

SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus.

A

False

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11
Q

In parrots porcine circovirus 2 causes the psittacine beak and feather disease.

A

False

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12
Q

PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity.

A

False

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13
Q

The turkey haemorrhagic enteritis virus can cause marble spleen disease in pheasants.

A

True

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14
Q

Papillomavirus replicates in the kidney

A

False

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15
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of infectious laryngotrachetitis.

A

True

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16
Q

Derzsy’s disease is caused by a polyomavirus.

A

False

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17
Q

Bovine herpesmamillitis virus can cause mastitis in cows.

A

False

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18
Q

The sarcoid is the disease of cattle.

A

False

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19
Q

The diphtheric (wet) form of fowlpox causes lesions on the mucous membranes.

A

True

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20
Q

Clinical manifestation of swine inclusion body rhinitis is usually
seen in piglets less than 3 weeks of age.

A

True

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21
Q

Myxomatosis may result over 90% mortality in susceptible animals

A

True

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22
Q

Conjunctivitis and muco-purulent nasal discharge are frequent
signs of feline rhinotracheitis.

A

True

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23
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of duck viral enteritis.

A

True

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24
Q

In cattle, cowpox lesions are usually seen on the teats.

A

True

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25
Q

Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries.

A

False

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26
Q

The tick species vectoring African swine fever are present in Portugal and Spain.

A

True

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27
Q

Avian pox viruses are species specific.

A

False

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28
Q

The African swine fever virus replicates in lymphocytes.

A

False

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29
Q

Poxviruses usually induce cell proliferation in epithelial cells of the skin and mucosal surfaces.

A

True

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30
Q

Conjunctivitis is characteristic in the early phase of myxomatosis.

A

True

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31
Q

The foot and mouth disease virus is classified into 7 serotypes.

A

True

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32
Q

Ducks are infected with the duck hepatitis A virus generally per os.

A

True

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33
Q

The foot and mouth disease virus can retain its infectivity in dried milk for months.

A

True

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34
Q

The main clinical sign of Teschen disease in sheep is pneumonia.

A

False

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35
Q

In the control of foot and mouth disease vaccines are used in Europe.

A

False

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36
Q

Flaccid paralysis is a typical clinical sign of Talfan disease.

A

True

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37
Q

Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis.

A

True

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38
Q

The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection.

A

False

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39
Q

Bursitis virus infection can reduce the efficacy of vaccinations.

A

True

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40
Q

Avian nephritis virus replicates in the gut.

A

True

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41
Q

Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be seen in the first month of life.

A

True

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42
Q

The primary source of VES infection is sea-origin feed.

A

True

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43
Q

Bluetongue virus is also foetopathic.

A

True

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44
Q

African horse sickness is zoonotic.

A

False

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45
Q

Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur in summer and autumn.

A

True

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46
Q

Lameness is frequent symptom of bluetongue in sheep.

A

True

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47
Q

Mammalian orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis only in suckling animals.

A

False

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48
Q

Oedemas and haemorrhages are the most frequent lesions in
African horse sickness.

A

True

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49
Q

Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia

A

True

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50
Q

Classical swine fever virus targets the bone marrow stem cells.

A

True

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51
Q

Non-cytopathic strains of the Bovine viral diarrhoea virus (BVDV) can cause immunosuppression.

A

True

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52
Q

Pestiviruses are zoonotic.

A

False

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53
Q

Akabane virus is zoonotic.

A

False

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54
Q

In utero infection with non-cytopathic BVDV can cause
immunotolerance.

A

True

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55
Q

Ischemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem
lesions of subacute Classical swine fever.

A

True

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56
Q

Influensavirusas have segmented genome. Influensavirusas have segmented genome.

A

True

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57
Q

Antigenic drift is behind the seasonal influensa epidemies.

A

True

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58
Q

Antigenic drift means serials of point mutations in the HA and NA genes.

A

True

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59
Q

Hendra virus can infect mainly swine and human.

A

False

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60
Q

Canine distemper virus has six serotypes

A

False

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61
Q

Natural hosts of rinderpest virus are cloven-hoofed animals.

A

True

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62
Q

Newcastle disease virus has virulence-variants.

A

True

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63
Q

Rabies virus is shed in the viraemic phase of the disease.

A

False

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64
Q

Ephemeral fever virus is shed in large amount in the saliva.

A

??

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65
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause clinical signs in horses.

A

True

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66
Q

Rhabdoviruses are generally good antigens.

A

True

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67
Q

Retroviruses are enveloped, their resistance is low.

A

True

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68
Q

Vaccine against Equine Viral Arteritis is never used in Europe

A

False

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69
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen in the case of rabies.

A

True

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70
Q

Maedi-visna can occur in sheep, goats and cattle.

A

False

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71
Q

Feline leukosis virus can cause immune tolerance.

A

True

72
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus can infect sheep, goats and
cattle.

A

False

73
Q

Mutation of retroviruses is very rare.

A

False

74
Q

Retroviruses are frequently carried lifelong.

A

True

75
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus is carried lifelong.

A

True

76
Q

Retroviruses can integrate into the genome of host cells.

A

True

77
Q

In the case of transmissible encephalopathies meningoencephalitis
is a typical postmortem lesion.

A

??

78
Q

Classical swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot.

A

False

79
Q

Anthrax is a chronic disease in ruminants.

A

False

80
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of bacillary
haemoglobinuria.

A

False

81
Q

Soil contaminated frozen feed is a frequent predisposing factor of
bradsot.

A

True

82
Q

Bacillary haemoglobinuria is mainly seen in cattle.

A

True

83
Q

Infectious necrotic hepatitis is caused by Clostridium chauvoei.

A

False

84
Q

Vesicles are formed in the case of exudative dermatitis.

A

True

85
Q

Erysipelas can be an acute septicaemia in pigs.

A

True

86
Q

The agent of tetanus is strictly aerobic.

A

False

87
Q

Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei.

A

False

88
Q

Humans are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas
through wounds

A

True

89
Q

Clostridium botulinum generally causes wound infection.

A

False

90
Q

In the case chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign.

A

False

91
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be diagnosed using microscopy.

A

True

92
Q

The skin intra dermal tuberculin test can be repeated within a
week if necessary

A

False

93
Q

The incubation time of bovine tuberculosis is 1-2 weeks.

A

False

94
Q

Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis

A

True

95
Q

Saprophytic and facultative pathogenic mycobacteria cannot colonise warm blooded animals.

A

False

96
Q

There is close antigen relationship between mycobacteria

A

True

97
Q

Fibrinous pneumonia is a typical lesion of paratuberculosis.

A

False

98
Q

Mycobacterium bovis can cause generalised tuberculosis in
badgers.

A

True

99
Q

Pigs with neonatal coli diarrhoea have to be treated per os with antibiotics

A

True

100
Q

Subcutaneous pyogranulomas can be seen in the case of canine
actinomycosis.

A

True

101
Q

Bovine actinomycosis is typically a generalised disease.

A

False

102
Q

Nocardia bacteria can cause inflammation of lymphatic vessels

A

True

103
Q

Postmortem lesions of paratuberculosis can be seen in the small
intestine.

A

True

104
Q

Hypo-gammaglobulinemia can predispose cattle to coli
septicaemia.

A

True

105
Q

Abortion is the main clinical form of human salmonellosis.

A

False

106
Q

Salmonella Typhisuis is the causative agent of swine typhoid.

A

True

107
Q

Salmonella Typhimurium can cause salmonellosis of cattle.

A

True

108
Q

Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe.

A

False

109
Q

Enteritis is a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis.

A

True

110
Q

Salmonella Choleraesuis can cause swine paratyphoid.

A

True

111
Q

Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia.

A

False

112
Q

Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis.

A

True

113
Q

Mannheimia haemolytica causes rabbit pasteurellosis.

A

False

114
Q

Diarrhoea is a common clinical sign of yersiniosis in pigs.

A

True

115
Q

Waterfowl is more susceptible to fowl cholera than hens.

A

True

116
Q

Dermonecrotoxin producing Bordetella bronchiseptica can cause
rhinitis in piglets.

A

True

117
Q

The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis.

A

True

118
Q

Sinusitis is a frequent clinical sign of ornithobacteriosis.

A

True

119
Q

Europe is free from Brucella ovis.

A

False

120
Q

Brucellae are facultative intracellular agents.

A

True

121
Q

Mainly attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine.

A

False

122
Q

Meningitis can occur in the case of Glässer’s disease.

A

True

123
Q

Glässer’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis.

A

False

124
Q

The agent of contagious equine metritis causes septicaemia in
horses.

A

False

125
Q

Infected cattle carry brucellae lifelong.

A

True

126
Q

Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae.

A

False

127
Q

Tularaemia is a zoonosis.

A

True

128
Q

The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks.

A

True

129
Q

Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice.

A

True

130
Q

The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks, mosquitoes, and other blood sucking arthropods.

A

True

131
Q

The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare.

A

True

132
Q

Glanders can occur in horses.

A

True

133
Q

Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis.

A

True

134
Q

Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses.

A

False

135
Q

Melioidosis is endemic in the Mediterranean area.

A

False

136
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis.

A

False

137
Q

The clinical signs of glanders are more severe in horses than in donkeys.

A

False

138
Q

Glanders occurs only in horses.

A

False

139
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis.

A

True

140
Q

Arthritis is a clinical sign of Lyme borreliosis in dogs.

A

True

141
Q

Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteropathies in pigs.

A

True

142
Q

Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis.

A

True

143
Q

Melioidosis is a zoonosis.

A

True

144
Q

Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis.

A

False

145
Q

Lyme borreliosis is maintained by small rodents.

A

True

146
Q

Abortion is the main clinical sign of leptospirosis of dogs.

A

False

147
Q

Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of young dogs.

A

False

148
Q

Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis.

A

False

149
Q

Swine dysentery is caused by Brachyspira hyodysenteriae.

A

True

150
Q

Leptospirosis can be diagnosed based on the titre of antibodies in
the sow’s blood.

A

True

151
Q

Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins.

A

True

152
Q

Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery.

A

True

153
Q

Q-fever is a zoonosis.

A

True

154
Q

Severe pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of Potomac horse fever.

A

False

155
Q

Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis.

A

True

156
Q

Mycoplasmas frequently have immunosuppressive effect.

A

True

157
Q

Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is diagnosed by isolation of
the agent.

A

False

158
Q

The agent of contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is spreading in
aerosols.

A

True

159
Q

Abortion caused by chlamydia can be diagnosed by microscopic
examination.

A

True

160
Q

Zoonotic agents can cause disease in animals and humans.

A

True

161
Q

Eradication with selection method is not done nowadays.

A

False

162
Q

Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts.

A

True

163
Q

New-born animals must be kept isolated when eradication with
generation shift is used.

A

True

164
Q

Deletion vaccines can only be used as live vaccines.

A

False

165
Q

Infection before self-recognition of the immune system can result
tolerated infections.

A

True

166
Q

PDNS is a type IV. hypersensitivity.

A

False

167
Q

Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks age.

A

False

168
Q

PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

A

False

169
Q

Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis.

A

False

170
Q

Vertical infectious is not possible in chicken infectious anaemia.

A

False

171
Q

Ascites can be a clinical sign of Derzsy’s disease.

A

True

172
Q

Adenoviruses are poor antigens.

A

False

173
Q

Canine adenovirus 2 can cause encephalitis in foxes.

A

False

174
Q
A
175
Q

Fowl cholera can occur is ducks and geese.

A

True

Epidemiology - FINAL PQS (9 decks)

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