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Epidemiology - FINAL PQS > PQS - Entrance exam [2] > Flashcards

PQS - Entrance exam [2] Flashcards

1
Q

The Aujeszky’s disease is a zoonosis.

A

False

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2
Q

Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months.

A

True

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3
Q

Liver lesions are frequently seen in puppies with Canid herpesvirus 1
infection.

A

True

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4
Q

Aviadenoviruses can cause hepatitis-hydropericardium syndrome in
geese.

A

True

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5
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease.

A

False

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6
Q

Clinical manifestation of swine inclusion body rhinitis is usually seen
in piglets less than 3 weeks of age.

A

True

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7
Q

Vaccination against bovine papular stomatitis provides life-long immunity.

A

False

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8
Q

Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus

A

False

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9
Q

Conjunctivitis and blepharitis are signs of infectious bovine
rhinotracheitis.

A

True

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10
Q

The Marek’s disease virus is transmitted by inhalation.

A

True

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11
Q

The primary replication site of African swine fever virus is the oronasal mucosa.

A

False

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12
Q

The African swine fever virus replicates in lymphocytes.

A

False

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13
Q

In Europe the main route of infection is the transmission of the
African swine fever virus by ticks.

A

False

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14
Q

Heterologous viruses of avian pox frequently cause generalization.

A

False

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15
Q

Cowpox virus frequently causes abortions and encephalitis of calves.

A

False

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16
Q

Attenuated vaccines are forbidden to be used against fowlpox.

A

False

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17
Q

Foot and mouth disease can be carried for long time in the hoof
tissue.

A

True

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18
Q

Foot and mouth disease virus is serologically uniform.

A

False

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19
Q

Duck hepatitis cannot be prevented with vaccination.

A

False

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20
Q

Cattle shed foot and mouth disease virus for a shorter time comparing to swine.

A

False

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21
Q

The primary replication site of foot and mouth disease is the bone
marrow.

A

False

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22
Q

The clinical signs of Talfan disease are more severe than that of
Teschen disease.

A

False

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23
Q

Bursitis virus targets the premature B lymphocytes.

A

True

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24
Q

Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis.

A

True

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25
Q

RHD virus is used for biological control of rural rabbits.

A

True

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26
Q

Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be seen in the first
month of life.

A

True

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27
Q

Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens older than
8 weeks.

A

False

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28
Q

Equine encephalomyelitis viruses are zoonotic.

A

True

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29
Q

The natural reservoirs of the African horse sickness virus are mainly
zebras.

A

True

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30
Q

The Infectious equine arteritis and the African horse sickness may
have similar clinical signs.

A

True

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31
Q

The subacute form of African horse sickness is causing oedema
formation and heart failure.

A

True

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32
Q

Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses.

A

False

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33
Q

The Tick-borne encephalitis virus can be transmitted via consumption
of raw milk.

A

True

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34
Q

Vaccination against bluetongue results serotype specific immunity.

A

True

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35
Q

In acute Classical swine fever, at the beginning obstipation, later
diarrhoea can be observed.

A

True

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36
Q

The BVD virus typically damages endothelial-, epithelial- and
lymphatic tissues.

A

True

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37
Q

The border disease virus causes pneumonia in sheep.

A

??

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38
Q

Classical swine fever infection during the 􀃕rst half of pregnancy
results in the birth of immunotolerant piglets.

A

True

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39
Q

The BVD virus can infect also pigs.

A

True

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40
Q

Ischemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem lesions
of subacute Classical swine fever.

A

True

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41
Q

Classical swine fever virus can retain its infectivity for 6 months in
frozen meat.

A

True

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42
Q

Newcastle disease virus can cause CNS signs in dogs.

A

False

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43
Q

Bovine RS virus can cause life threatening disease in calves.

A

True

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44
Q

Newcastle disease is a noti􀃕able disease.

A

False

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45
Q

Paramyxoviruses are good immunogens.

A

True

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46
Q

Natural hosts of rinderpest virus are cloven-hoofed animals.

A

True

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47
Q

In swine all influenza variants can be detected.

A

False

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48
Q

Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza.

A

False

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49
Q

Cats can beare regularly vaccinated against feline coronavirus.

A

??

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50
Q

Dogs can be vaccinated against canine enteric coronavirus.

A

True

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51
Q

Rhabdoviruses are resistant viruses they can remain infective in the
environment for several weeks.

A

False

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52
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause clinical signs in horses.

A

??

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53
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in
chicken below 6 weeks of age.

A

True

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54
Q

Bovine coronavirus causes watery diarrhoea in calf up to 3 weeks.

A

???

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55
Q

Bovine coronavirus causes rhinitis in calf up to 3 months.

A

??

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56
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can infect foetuses of pregnant animals.

A

??

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57
Q

Encephalitis caused by caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus is generally
seen in 2-4-month-old kids

A

True

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58
Q

Borna disease occurs only in horses.

A

False

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59
Q

Feline leukosis virus can cause horizontal and vertical infection

A

True

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60
Q

All avian leukosis viruses are oncogenic.

A

True

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61
Q

Retroviruses can integrate into the genome of host cells.

A

True

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62
Q

Maedi-visna can occur in sheep, goats and cattle.

A

False

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63
Q

BSE prion is shed in milk in large amount.

A

False

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64
Q

Bacillus anthracis cannot produce spores in the infected animals.

A

True

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65
Q

Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries.

A

False

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66
Q

Agents of transmissible encephalopathies are most frequently
detected with PCR.

A

False

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67
Q

Human anthrax cannot be treated with antibiotics.

A

False

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68
Q

Classical swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot.

A

False

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69
Q

Pulpy kidney disease generally occurs in 1-2-week-old lambs.

A

False

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70
Q

Not properly prepared silage can be the source of Listeria.

A

True

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71
Q

The toxin of Clostridium botulinum causes flaccid paralysis.

A

True

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72
Q

The agent of bovine pyelonephritis causes ascending infection.

A

True

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73
Q

The agent of erysipelas is carried by asymptomatic pigs in the tonsils.

A

True

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74
Q

Pig enterotoxaemia can be generally seen in weaned piglets.

A

False

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75
Q

The agent of exudative dermatitis of pigs produces exfoliative toxin.

A

True

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76
Q

Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei.

A

False

77
Q

Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium caprae can cause bovine tuberculosis.

A

True

78
Q

Bovine pyelonephritis occurs in adult animals.

A

True

79
Q

The primary complex of bovine tuberculosis is generally seen in the
gastrointestinal tract.

A

False

80
Q

Paratuberculosis occurs most frequently in pigs.

A

False

81
Q

The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is
infected with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria.

A

False

82
Q

Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be seen only
above 3-4 months of age.

A

True

83
Q

The tuberculin test is used for the detection of infection of animals
with mycobacteria.

A

True

84
Q

Air sacculitis is common in the case of E. coli disease of poultry.

A

True

85
Q

Neonatal coli diarrhoea is more frequent in piglets of first farrowing
gilts.

A

True

86
Q

Coli diarrhoea of new-born calves can be prevented by vaccinating
the pregnant cows.

A

True

87
Q

High fever is a common clinical sign of neonatal coli diarrhoea of
calves.

A

??

88
Q

Coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets is caused by enterotoxigenic
Escherichia coli strains.

A

True

89
Q

The most severe clinical signs of paratuberculosis can be seen in
suckling calves.

A

False

90
Q

The agent of paratuberculosis is shed in the faeces.

A

True

91
Q

Fowl paratyphoid is caused by facultative pathogenic salmonellae.

A

True

92
Q

The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs
and lesions of salmonellosis of cattle.

A

False

93
Q

Salmonellosis of cattle occurs mainly in day-old calves.

A

False

94
Q

Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis.

A

True

95
Q

Lesions of swine typhoid are always limited to the intestine.

A

False

96
Q

Fowl paratyphoid has been eradicated in Europe.

A

False

97
Q

Carrier animals shed the agent of yersiniosis in the faeces.

A

True

98
Q

Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination.

A

False

99
Q

The agent of acute systemic pasteurellosis is zoonotic.

A

False

100
Q

The resistance of the agent of fowl cholera is low.

A

True

101
Q

Mannheimia haemolytica causes rabbit pasteurellosis.

A

False

102
Q

Diarrhoea is the main clinical sign of bovine pasteurellosis.

A

False

103
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative
agent of necrobacillosis.

A

True

104
Q

Köster staining is used for staining of brucellae.

A

True

105
Q

Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis.

A

??

106
Q

Ataxia and spasms are common clinical signs of anatipestifer disease.

A

True

107
Q

Brucella abortus and Brucella melitensis can cause bovine brucellosis.

A

True

108
Q

Arthritis is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis.

A

True

109
Q

Orchitis is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis.

A

??

110
Q

Brucella suis causes swine brucellosis.

A

True

111
Q

Brucella canis is shed in the semen.

A

True

112
Q

Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae.

A

False

113
Q

Osteomyelitis is a frequent sign of porcine brucellosis.

A

True

114
Q

Bordetella canis is an agent of kennel cough of dogs.

A

??

115
Q

Brucella abortus can colonise only pregnant cows or heifers.

A

False

116
Q

Brucella melitensis can cause abortion of cattle.

A

True

117
Q

Focal infection and necrosis can be seen in the parenchymal organs
in the case of tularaemia.

A

True

118
Q

Melioidosis is endemic in the Mediterranean area.

A

False

119
Q

Glanders can occur in horses.

A

True

120
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bovine
keratoconjunctivitis.

A

False

121
Q

Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses.

A

False

122
Q

Moraxella ovis can cause keratoconjunctivitis only in sheep and goats.

A

False

123
Q

The agent of avian bordetellosis can produce cytotoxin.

A

True

124
Q

Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders.

A

True

125
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is a zoonotic agent.

A

??

126
Q

Lyme borreliosis is frequently asymptomatic in animals.

A

True

127
Q

Lyme borreliosis is maintained by small rodents.

A

True

128
Q

Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of
old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis.

A

True

129
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of Lyme borreliosis.

A

False

130
Q

Campylobacter hepaticus is the causative agent of infectious hepatitis
is pigs.

A

False

131
Q

Salpingitis can be seen in the case of bovine genital
campylobacteriosis.

A

True

132
Q

Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine
dysentery.

A

False

133
Q

Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis.

A

False

134
Q

Leptospira Tarassovi can cause abortion in pigs.

A

True

135
Q

Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins.

A

True

136
Q

Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery.

A

True

137
Q

Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves.

A

True

138
Q

Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery.

A

True

139
Q

Q-fever is a zoonosis.

A

True

140
Q

Wet cough and excretion of large amount of nasal discharge are
typical clinical signs of mycoplasma pneumonia of swine.

A

False

141
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of Q-fever.

A

??

142
Q

Animal pathogenic chlamydia species do not cause disease in
humans.

A

False

143
Q

Mycoplasma synoviae is spreading vertically.

A

True

144
Q

Tick bite is the only way of infection with the agent of Q-fever.

A

False

145
Q

The agent of heartwater damages the endothelial cells.

A

True

146
Q

The method of vaccination has no effect on the effcacy of the vaccination.

A

False

147
Q

Eradication with generation shift can be used in cattle herds

A

True

148
Q

There is a minimum number of agents that is necessary to infection of animals

A

True

149
Q

Arthropod borne infections are direct infections.

A

False

150
Q

Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts.

A

True

151
Q

Attenuated strains can be used in live vaccines.

A

True

152
Q

PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity.

A

True

153
Q

PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity.

A

True

154
Q

The replication of canine parvovirus 2 is in the crypt cells of large intestine.

A

False

155
Q

Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks age.

A

False

156
Q

In pigs the porcine circovirus 2 can cause PMWS.

A

True

157
Q

SMEDI is caused by goose circovirus.

A

False

158
Q

If 100-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus, dermatitis is a clinical sign.

A

False

159
Q

Herpesviruses are generally good antigens.

A

False

160
Q

The natural reservoir hosts of the Aujeszky’s disease virus are rodents.

A

False

161
Q

The egg drop syndrome virus can be transmitted vertically.

A

True

162
Q

Adenoviruses can cause purulent bronchoalveolar pneumonia in calves and lambs

A

False

163
Q

The infectious laryngotracheitis can cause viraemia and pneumonia in young chicken

A

False

164
Q

The egg drop syndrome virus causes severe inflammation of the ovaries in hens

A

False

165
Q

The European brown hare is not susceptible to the myxoma virus.

A

False

166
Q

Canid herpesvirus infection can cause abortion.

A

True

167
Q

Swine pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs.

A

False

168
Q

The pathologic lesions of acute Marek’s disease and avian leucosis can be similar.

A

True

169
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in sheep.

A

False

170
Q

Herpesviruses are sensitive to detergents.

A

True

171
Q

Swinepox virus can cause respiratory signs and abortion.

A

False

172
Q

The African swine fever virus causes hemadsorption in cell cultures.

A

True

173
Q

Skin nodules and ulcers can be signs of cowpox infection in cats.

A

True

174
Q

Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries.

A

False

175
Q

The tick species vectoring African swine fever are present in Portugal and Spain.

A

True

176
Q

In the control of African swine fever decreasing the wild boar populations is helpful.

A

True

177
Q

Duck hepatitis A virus does not cause viraemia.

A

False

178
Q

The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low; it cannot survive in the environment.

A

False

179
Q

Talfan disease is a disease of pigs.

A

True

180
Q

Foot and mouth disease virus is serologically uniform.

A

False

181
Q

For laboratory tests foot and mouth disease samples should be submitted in bu!ered
transport medium.

A

True

182
Q

Lameness is a typical clinical sign of Teschen disease.

A

True

183
Q

Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis.

A

True

184
Q

Togaviruses cause airborne infection.

A

False

185
Q

VES causes mortality in piglets.

A

True

186
Q

Bursitis virus targets the premature T lymphocytes.

A

False

187
Q

Birds serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus.

A

False

188
Q

The feline calicivirus infection can be recognised by the ulcers seen on the tongue.

A

True

Epidemiology - FINAL PQS (9 decks)

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