PQS - Entrance exam [2] Flashcards
1
Q
The Aujeszky’s disease is a zoonosis.
A
False
2
Q
Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months.
A
True
3
Q
Liver lesions are frequently seen in puppies with Canid herpesvirus 1
infection.
A
True
4
Q
Aviadenoviruses can cause hepatitis-hydropericardium syndrome in
geese.
A
True
5
Q
Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease.
A
False
6
Q
Clinical manifestation of swine inclusion body rhinitis is usually seen
in piglets less than 3 weeks of age.
A
True
7
Q
Vaccination against bovine papular stomatitis provides life-long immunity.
A
False
8
Q
Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus
A
False
9
Q
Conjunctivitis and blepharitis are signs of infectious bovine
rhinotracheitis.
A
True
10
Q
The Marek’s disease virus is transmitted by inhalation.
A
True
11
Q
The primary replication site of African swine fever virus is the oronasal mucosa.
A
False
12
Q
The African swine fever virus replicates in lymphocytes.
A
False
13
Q
In Europe the main route of infection is the transmission of the
African swine fever virus by ticks.
A
False
14
Q
Heterologous viruses of avian pox frequently cause generalization.
A
False
15
Q
Cowpox virus frequently causes abortions and encephalitis of calves.
A
False
16
Q
Attenuated vaccines are forbidden to be used against fowlpox.
A
False
17
Q
Foot and mouth disease can be carried for long time in the hoof
tissue.
A
True
18
Q
Foot and mouth disease virus is serologically uniform.
A
False
19
Q
Duck hepatitis cannot be prevented with vaccination.
A
False
20
Q
Cattle shed foot and mouth disease virus for a shorter time comparing to swine.
A
False
21
Q
The primary replication site of foot and mouth disease is the bone
marrow.
A
False
22
Q
The clinical signs of Talfan disease are more severe than that of
Teschen disease.
A
False
23
Q
Bursitis virus targets the premature B lymphocytes.
A
True
24
Q
Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis.
A
True
25
RHD virus is used for biological control of rural rabbits.
True
26
Clinical signs caused by duck hepatitis A virus can be seen in the first
month of life.
True
27
Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens older than
8 weeks.
False
28
Equine encephalomyelitis viruses are zoonotic.
True
29
The natural reservoirs of the African horse sickness virus are mainly
zebras.
True
30
The Infectious equine arteritis and the African horse sickness may
have similar clinical signs.
True
31
The subacute form of African horse sickness is causing oedema
formation and heart failure.
True
32
Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses.
False
33
The Tick-borne encephalitis virus can be transmitted via consumption
of raw milk.
True
34
Vaccination against bluetongue results serotype specific immunity.
True
35
In acute Classical swine fever, at the beginning obstipation, later
diarrhoea can be observed.
True
36
The BVD virus typically damages endothelial-, epithelial- and
lymphatic tissues.
True
37
The border disease virus causes pneumonia in sheep.
??
38
Classical swine fever infection during the rst half of pregnancy
results in the birth of immunotolerant piglets.
True
39
The BVD virus can infect also pigs.
True
40
Ischemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem lesions
of subacute Classical swine fever.
True
41
Classical swine fever virus can retain its infectivity for 6 months in
frozen meat.
True
42
Newcastle disease virus can cause CNS signs in dogs.
False
43
Bovine RS virus can cause life threatening disease in calves.
True
44
Newcastle disease is a notiable disease.
False
45
Paramyxoviruses are good immunogens.
True
46
Natural hosts of rinderpest virus are cloven-hoofed animals.
True
47
In swine all influenza variants can be detected.
False
48
Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza.
False
49
Cats can beare regularly vaccinated against feline coronavirus.
??
50
Dogs can be vaccinated against canine enteric coronavirus.
True
51
Rhabdoviruses are resistant viruses they can remain infective in the
environment for several weeks.
False
52
Vesicular stomatitis virus can cause clinical signs in horses.
??
53
Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in
chicken below 6 weeks of age.
True
54
Bovine coronavirus causes watery diarrhoea in calf up to 3 weeks.
???
55
Bovine coronavirus causes rhinitis in calf up to 3 months.
??
56
Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can infect foetuses of pregnant animals.
??
57
Encephalitis caused by caprine arthritis-encephalitis virus is generally
seen in 2-4-month-old kids
True
58
Borna disease occurs only in horses.
False
59
Feline leukosis virus can cause horizontal and vertical infection
True
60
All avian leukosis viruses are oncogenic.
True
61
Retroviruses can integrate into the genome of host cells.
True
62
Maedi-visna can occur in sheep, goats and cattle.
False
63
BSE prion is shed in milk in large amount.
False
64
Bacillus anthracis cannot produce spores in the infected animals.
True
65
Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries.
False
66
Agents of transmissible encephalopathies are most frequently
detected with PCR.
False
67
Human anthrax cannot be treated with antibiotics.
False
68
Classical swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot.
False
69
Pulpy kidney disease generally occurs in 1-2-week-old lambs.
False
70
Not properly prepared silage can be the source of Listeria.
True
71
The toxin of Clostridium botulinum causes flaccid paralysis.
True
72
The agent of bovine pyelonephritis causes ascending infection.
True
73
The agent of erysipelas is carried by asymptomatic pigs in the tonsils.
True
74
Pig enterotoxaemia can be generally seen in weaned piglets.
False
75
The agent of exudative dermatitis of pigs produces exfoliative toxin.
True
76
Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei.
False
77
Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium caprae can cause bovine tuberculosis.
True
78
Bovine pyelonephritis occurs in adult animals.
True
79
The primary complex of bovine tuberculosis is generally seen in the
gastrointestinal tract.
False
80
Paratuberculosis occurs most frequently in pigs.
False
81
The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is
infected with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria.
False
82
Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be seen only
above 3-4 months of age.
True
83
The tuberculin test is used for the detection of infection of animals
with mycobacteria.
True
84
Air sacculitis is common in the case of E. coli disease of poultry.
True
85
Neonatal coli diarrhoea is more frequent in piglets of first farrowing
gilts.
True
86
Coli diarrhoea of new-born calves can be prevented by vaccinating
the pregnant cows.
True
87
High fever is a common clinical sign of neonatal coli diarrhoea of
calves.
??
88
Coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets is caused by enterotoxigenic
Escherichia coli strains.
True
89
The most severe clinical signs of paratuberculosis can be seen in
suckling calves.
False
90
The agent of paratuberculosis is shed in the faeces.
True
91
Fowl paratyphoid is caused by facultative pathogenic salmonellae.
True
92
The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs
and lesions of salmonellosis of cattle.
False
93
Salmonellosis of cattle occurs mainly in day-old calves.
False
94
Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis.
True
95
Lesions of swine typhoid are always limited to the intestine.
False
96
Fowl paratyphoid has been eradicated in Europe.
False
97
Carrier animals shed the agent of yersiniosis in the faeces.
True
98
Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination.
False
99
The agent of acute systemic pasteurellosis is zoonotic.
False
100
The resistance of the agent of fowl cholera is low.
True
101
Mannheimia haemolytica causes rabbit pasteurellosis.
False
102
Diarrhoea is the main clinical sign of bovine pasteurellosis.
False
103
Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative
agent of necrobacillosis.
True
104
Köster staining is used for staining of brucellae.
True
105
Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis.
??
106
Ataxia and spasms are common clinical signs of anatipestifer disease.
True
107
Brucella abortus and Brucella melitensis can cause bovine brucellosis.
True
108
Arthritis is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis.
True
109
Orchitis is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis.
??
110
Brucella suis causes swine brucellosis.
True
111
Brucella canis is shed in the semen.
True
112
Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae.
False
113
Osteomyelitis is a frequent sign of porcine brucellosis.
True
114
Bordetella canis is an agent of kennel cough of dogs.
??
115
Brucella abortus can colonise only pregnant cows or heifers.
False
116
Brucella melitensis can cause abortion of cattle.
True
117
Focal infection and necrosis can be seen in the parenchymal organs
in the case of tularaemia.
True
118
Melioidosis is endemic in the Mediterranean area.
False
119
Glanders can occur in horses.
True
120
There are no vaccines for the prevention of infectious bovine
keratoconjunctivitis.
False
121
Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses.
False
122
Moraxella ovis can cause keratoconjunctivitis only in sheep and goats.
False
123
The agent of avian bordetellosis can produce cytotoxin.
True
124
Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders.
True
125
Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is a zoonotic agent.
??
126
Lyme borreliosis is frequently asymptomatic in animals.
True
127
Lyme borreliosis is maintained by small rodents.
True
128
Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of
old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis.
True
129
There are no vaccines for the prevention of Lyme borreliosis.
False
130
Campylobacter hepaticus is the causative agent of infectious hepatitis
is pigs.
False
131
Salpingitis can be seen in the case of bovine genital
campylobacteriosis.
True
132
Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine
dysentery.
False
133
Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis.
False
134
Leptospira Tarassovi can cause abortion in pigs.
True
135
Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins.
True
136
Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery.
True
137
Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves.
True
138
Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery.
True
139
Q-fever is a zoonosis.
True
140
Wet cough and excretion of large amount of nasal discharge are
typical clinical signs of mycoplasma pneumonia of swine.
False
141
There are no vaccines for the prevention of Q-fever.
??
142
Animal pathogenic chlamydia species do not cause disease in
humans.
False
143
Mycoplasma synoviae is spreading vertically.
True
144
Tick bite is the only way of infection with the agent of Q-fever.
False
145
The agent of heartwater damages the endothelial cells.
True
146
The method of vaccination has no effect on the effcacy of the vaccination.
False
147
Eradication with generation shift can be used in cattle herds
True
148
There is a minimum number of agents that is necessary to infection of animals
True
149
Arthropod borne infections are direct infections.
False
150
Species specific resistance means that certain agents cannot infect certain hosts.
True
151
Attenuated strains can be used in live vaccines.
True
152
PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity.
True
153
PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity.
True
154
The replication of canine parvovirus 2 is in the crypt cells of large intestine.
False
155
Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks age.
False
156
In pigs the porcine circovirus 2 can cause PMWS.
True
157
SMEDI is caused by goose circovirus.
False
158
If 100-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus, dermatitis is a clinical sign.
False
159
Herpesviruses are generally good antigens.
False
160
The natural reservoir hosts of the Aujeszky’s disease virus are rodents.
False
161
The egg drop syndrome virus can be transmitted vertically.
True
162
Adenoviruses can cause purulent bronchoalveolar pneumonia in calves and lambs
False
163
The infectious laryngotracheitis can cause viraemia and pneumonia in young chicken
False
164
The egg drop syndrome virus causes severe inflammation of the ovaries in hens
False
165
The European brown hare is not susceptible to the myxoma virus.
False
166
Canid herpesvirus infection can cause abortion.
True
167
Swine pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs.
False
168
The pathologic lesions of acute Marek’s disease and avian leucosis can be similar.
True
169
Malignant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in sheep.
False
170
Herpesviruses are sensitive to detergents.
True
171
Swinepox virus can cause respiratory signs and abortion.
False
172
The African swine fever virus causes hemadsorption in cell cultures.
True
173
Skin nodules and ulcers can be signs of cowpox infection in cats.
True
174
Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries.
False
175
The tick species vectoring African swine fever are present in Portugal and Spain.
True
176
In the control of African swine fever decreasing the wild boar populations is helpful.
True
177
Duck hepatitis A virus does not cause viraemia.
False
178
The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low; it cannot survive in the environment.
False
179
Talfan disease is a disease of pigs.
True
180
Foot and mouth disease virus is serologically uniform.
False
181
For laboratory tests foot and mouth disease samples should be submitted in bu!ered
transport medium.
True
182
Lameness is a typical clinical sign of Teschen disease.
True
183
Urate deposition is a postmortem lesion of avian nephritis.
True
184
Togaviruses cause airborne infection.
False
185
VES causes mortality in piglets.
True
186
Bursitis virus targets the premature T lymphocytes.
False
187
Birds serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus.
False
188
The feline calicivirus infection can be recognised by the ulcers seen on the tongue.
True
