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Epidemiology - FINAL PQS > PQS - entrance exam [6] > Flashcards

PQS - entrance exam [6] Flashcards

1
Q

Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery

A

True

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2
Q

Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of
young dogs.

A

True

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3
Q

Leptospira can cause moon blindness of horses

A

True

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4
Q

Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine dysentery

A

False

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5
Q

Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs

A

True

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6
Q

Haemorrhagic, necrotic placentitis is a postmortem lesion of Q-fever

A

True

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7
Q

Q-fever is a zoonosis

A

True

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8
Q

Ehrlichia ruminantium is the causative agent of heartwater

A

True

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9
Q

Mycoplasma bovis can cause arthritis in cattle

A

True

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10
Q

Severe haemolysis is a clinical sign of bovine anaplasmosis

A

False

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11
Q

Arthritis is a clinical sign of contagious agalactia of sheep and goats

A

True

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12
Q

The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks

A

True

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13
Q

Stenoxen agents have a wide host range

A

False

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14
Q

The method of vaccination has no effect on the efficacy of the
vaccination.

A

False

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15
Q

New-born animals cannot be infected from the milk thanks to the colostral antibodies.

A

False

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16
Q

Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals

A

False

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17
Q

In the case of latent infection, the genome of the agent is integrated
in the genome of the host

A

True

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18
Q

In the case of marker vaccines, the field strains and the vaccine
strains can be differentiated

A

True

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19
Q

One of the most common pathological signs of PMWS is
glomerulonephritis.

A

False

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20
Q

The reproduction of the circovirus continuous in the dividing cells

A

True

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21
Q

SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus

A

False

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22
Q

Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks
age.

A

False

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23
Q

PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity

A

False

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24
Q

Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis

A

False

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25
Q

The egg drop syndrome virus can be transmitted vertically

A

True

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26
Q

Adenoviral pneumoenteritis is rarely fatal in calves and lambs

A

True

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27
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of infectious laryngotrachetitis

A

True

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28
Q

Haemorrhagic nephritis virus is a polyomavirus

A

True

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29
Q

Equine rhinopneumonitis virus can cause purulent metritis

A

False

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30
Q

The turkey haemorrhagic enteritis virus can cause marble spleen disease in pheasants.

A

True

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31
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease

A

False

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32
Q

Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus

A

False

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33
Q

In cattle, cowpox lesions are usually seen on the teats

A

True

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34
Q

Encephalitis is a frequent complication in infectious laryngotracheitis
of chickens

A

False

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35
Q

Pregnant mares abort usually in the acute phase of equine
rhinopneumonitis

A

False

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36
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in
sheep

A

False

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37
Q

Sheep pox is a generalized disease with fever

A

True

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38
Q

In African swine fever cases of abortion are never observed

A

False

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39
Q

Myxomatosis virus causes tumour formation in rabbits

A

True

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40
Q

Sheeppox virus is zoonotic

A

False

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41
Q

Calves should be vaccinated against bovine papular stomatitis

A

False

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42
Q

In cattle pseudocowpox lesions are usually mild and transient

A

True

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43
Q

The main host (reservoir) of foot and mouth disease virus is swine

A

False

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44
Q

The mortality of swine vesicular disease is very high; it can be 50-60%

A

False

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45
Q

The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low; it cannot
survive in the environment

A

False

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46
Q

Swine vesicular disease virus replicates in the epithelium of the throat and tonsils

A

True

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47
Q

The resistance of duck hepatitis A virus is high

A

True

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48
Q

Several virulence variants of African swine fever virus exist.

A

True

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49
Q

The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection

A

False

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50
Q

RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture

A

False

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51
Q

Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks

A

False

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52
Q

Rodents serve as reservoirs for the Western equine encephalomyelitis
virus.

A

True

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53
Q

The Orthohepevirus A causes clinical symptoms only in human

A

True

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54
Q

Abortion is the main clinical sign of togavirus infection results in
abortion of horses.

A

False

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55
Q

Lameness and abortions are signs of bluetongue

A

True

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56
Q

Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle.

A

False

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57
Q

Rotaviruses infect only mammals

A

False

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58
Q

Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur in summer and autumn

A

True

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59
Q

Orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis in calves

A

True

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60
Q

In subacute Classical swine fever, we can observe signs of pneumonia during necropsies

A

True

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61
Q

In acute Classical swine fever skin haemorrhages and bloody nasal |discharge can be observed

A

True

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62
Q

Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia.

A

True

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63
Q

Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA
proteins.

A

False

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64
Q

Normal sized spleen can be observed in uncomplicated cases of subacute Classical swine fever.

A

True

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65
Q

Nairobi sheep disease leads to abortion in the infected pregnant
animals.

A

True

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66
Q

Pigs infected with BVDV turn seropositive to classical swine fever

A

True

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67
Q

Mucosal disease can develop in cattle persistently infected with BVDV

A

True

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68
Q

Bovine parain􀃖uenza virus causes central nervous clinical signs in calves.

A

False

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69
Q

In humans inactivated vaccines are used for the immunisation against influenza.

A

True

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70
Q

Bovine parainfluenza-3 virus infection is usually endemic in cattle farms.

A

True

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71
Q

Mesogenic strains of NDV causes respiratory disease in birds

A

True

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72
Q

Canine distemper virus can produce a generalised infection

A

True

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73
Q

Canine distemper virus has six serotypes

A

False

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74
Q

The serotype of influenza viruses is determined by their HA and NA proteins.

A

True

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75
Q

The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI

A

True

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76
Q

Nephropathogen infectious bronchitis virus strains can cause
nephritis and uricosis

A

True

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77
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is a widespread disease all over the world

A

False

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78
Q

The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus

A

False

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79
Q

Dogs can be vaccinated against canine enteric coronavirus

A

True

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80
Q

Rabies occurs only in tropical countries

A

False

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81
Q

The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against TGE

A

True

82
Q

Dyspnoea is the main clinical sign of borna disease

A

False

83
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus can infect sheep, goats and
cattle.

A

False

84
Q

Lymphoid leukosis is the most frequent clinical form of avian
leukosis

A

True

85
Q

Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups

A

True

86
Q

Maedi-visna is maintained by persistently infected sheep

A

True

87
Q

Equine infectious anaemia virus disappears from animals after the viraemia.

A

False

88
Q

There is intensive vaccination against caprine arthritis-encephalitis in
endemic countries

A

False

89
Q

Anthrax is caused by Clostridium anthracis

A

False

90
Q

Incomplete blood clotting is a typical postmortem finding in the case of anthrax

A

True

91
Q

Scrapie prion is detected with PCR

A

False

92
Q

Oedema factor is a virulence factor of the agent of anthrax

A

True

93
Q

Animals showing clinical signs of anthrax have to be killed, treatment
is not allowed.

A

False

94
Q

Infectious necrotic hepatitis is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

A

False

95
Q

Generally live vaccines are used for the prevention of anthrax

A

True

96
Q

Ulcerative lymphangitis of horses is caused by Corynebacterium equi

A

False

97
Q

Erysipelas occurs only in pigs

A

False

98
Q

Coagulase production is a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus

A

True

99
Q

Corynebacterium renale can cause bovine pyelonephritis

A

True

100
Q

Encephalitis is a frequent clinical sign of listeriosis in sheep

A

True

101
Q

In the case chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign

A

False

102
Q

Clostridium chauvoei can produce acids and gas from carbohydrates

A

True

103
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the
thickness of the skin is 3.6 mm and there are no local lesions or signs

A

False

104
Q

Mycobacteria are highly resistant thanks to lipids and waxes in the
cell wall

A

True

105
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is an acute disease

A

False

106
Q

False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by pre-allergy

A

False

107
Q

The primary complex of bovine tuberculosis is generally seen in the gastrointestinal tract.

A

False

108
Q

The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os

A

True

109
Q

Poultry are widely vaccinated for the prevention of avian tuberculosis.

A

False

110
Q

Postmortem lesions of paratuberculosis can be seen in the small intestine.

A

True

111
Q

The most severe clinical signs of paratuberculosis can be seen in
suckling calves.

A

False

112
Q

Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs

A

True

113
Q

Verotoxigenic Escherichia coli strains cause neonatal coli diarrhoea of
pigs.

A

False

114
Q

Dermatophilosis occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in
winter

A

False

115
Q

Coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets is caused by fimbriated Escherichia coli strains

A

True

116
Q

Coli septicaemia of calves is seen most frequently after weaning

A

False

117
Q

High fibre content of the feed can prevent coli- diarrhoea of rabbits

A

True

118
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of rabbits is typically seen in suckling animals

A

False

119
Q

Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis

A

True

120
Q

Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid

A

True

121
Q

Swine typhoid is a chronic disease

A

True

122
Q

Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe

A

False

123
Q

Swine paratyphoid is an acute disease

A

True

124
Q

Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis

A

True

125
Q

Fibrinous pneumonia is a frequent postmortem lesion of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves

A

True

126
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative
agent of necrobacillosis.

A

True

127
Q

Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of
cattle.

A

True

128
Q

The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the
diaphragmatic lobes.

A

False

129
Q

The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis.

A

True

130
Q

Aerosol infection is a common form of transmission of the agent of necrobacillosis.

A

False

131
Q

Köster staining is used for staining of brucellae

A

True

132
Q

Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis

A

False

133
Q

Glässer’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis

A

False

134
Q

Brucellae are facultative intracellular agents

A

True

135
Q

High fever is a clinical sign of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine.

A

True

136
Q

Histophilus ovis can cause disease in cattle and sheep

A

True

137
Q

Fowl cholera cannot be prevented by vaccination

A

False

138
Q

The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare

A

True

139
Q

Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae

A

False

140
Q

Brucella abortus can infect dogs

A

True

141
Q

Brucella suis can colonise the udder of cattle

A

True

142
Q

The causative agent of tularaemia is Francisella tularensis

A

True

143
Q

Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice

A

True

144
Q

Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle

A

False

145
Q

Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders

A

True

146
Q

The agent of avian bordetellosis can produce cytotoxin

A

True

147
Q

Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis

A

True

148
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate distemper

A

True

149
Q

Contact animals are treated with penicillin in the case of glanders

A

False

150
Q

Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses

A

False

151
Q

Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei

A

True

152
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis is a zoonotic agent

A

False

153
Q

Campylobacter hepaticus is the causative agent of infectious hepatitis is pigs.

A

False

154
Q

Bovine genital campylobacteriosis is maintained by bulls

A

True

155
Q

Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis

A

False

156
Q

Rabbit syphilis is caused by Treponema paraluiscunniculi

A

True

157
Q

Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei

A

True

158
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is a zoonotic agent

A

True

159
Q

Leptospira can be detected with silver impregnation test

A

True

160
Q

Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery

A

True

161
Q

Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery

A

True

162
Q

Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs

A

True

163
Q

Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery

A

True

164
Q

Leptospira can cause moon blindness of horses

A

True

165
Q

Generally attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of
leptospirosis of pigs

A

False

166
Q

Resistance of mycoplasmas is good; they can survive in the
environment for several months

A

False

167
Q

Spasms, paddling and opisthotonus can be seen in the case of heartwater

A

True

168
Q

Chlamydiosis is a zoonosis

A

True

169
Q

The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks

A

True

170
Q

The haemotropic mycoplasmas cannot be cultured on media

A

True

171
Q

Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis

A

True

172
Q

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma bovis

A

False

173
Q

The immunoglobulin content of the colostrum is influenced by the nutrition of the dam

A

True

174
Q

Veterinarians can cause iatrogenic infections

A

True

175
Q

Foetuses do not have immune reactions

A

False

176
Q

Avirulent strains can be used in live vaccines

A

True

177
Q

Embryo transfer can be used as an eradication method

A

True

178
Q

The health state of the vaccinated animals can influence the efficacy of the vaccination

A

True

179
Q

The porcine parvovirus 1 causes renal disorders in adults

A

True

180
Q

PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

A

False

181
Q

If 100-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus, weak piglets can be seen

A

True

182
Q

PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity

A

False

183
Q

Maternal antibodies against parvoviral enteritis of dogs protect not longer than 2 weeks

A

False

184
Q

PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity.

A

True

185
Q

Abortion of sows can be a sign of Aujeszky’s disease

A

True

186
Q

No vaccine is available against Canine adenovirus 2

A

False

187
Q

Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months

A

True

188
Q

Polyomavirus infects parrots

A

True

189
Q

Colostrum uptake may in􀃖uence the resistance of calves to adenoviral pneumoenteritis

A

True

190
Q

Feline infectious rhinotracheitis often results high mortality in susceptible young kittens.

A

True

191
Q

Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s disease

A

True

192
Q

Cowpox virus can cause milker’s nodules in humans

A

True

193
Q

Wild boars are not susceptible to Aujeszky’s disease virus

A

False

194
Q

Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus

A

False

195
Q

Equid herpesvirus 3 can cause lesions on the genital mucosa without abortion

A

True

196
Q

Canid herpesvirus infection can cause blue eye disease

A

False

197
Q

The lumpy skin disease is only present in Africa

A

False

198
Q

Contagious pustular dermatitis (orf) virus may survive in the environment for years

A

True

199
Q

Serological cross-protectivity exists between certain poxvirus species but only within genus

A

True

200
Q

Lumpy skin disease is caused by parapox viruses

A

False

Epidemiology - FINAL PQS (9 decks)

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