PQS - entrance exam [6] Flashcards

1
Q

Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of
young dogs.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Leptospira can cause moon blindness of horses

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine dysentery

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Haemorrhagic, necrotic placentitis is a postmortem lesion of Q-fever

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Q-fever is a zoonosis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Ehrlichia ruminantium is the causative agent of heartwater

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Mycoplasma bovis can cause arthritis in cattle

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Severe haemolysis is a clinical sign of bovine anaplasmosis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Arthritis is a clinical sign of contagious agalactia of sheep and goats

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Stenoxen agents have a wide host range

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The method of vaccination has no effect on the efficacy of the
vaccination.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

New-born animals cannot be infected from the milk thanks to the colostral antibodies.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

In the case of latent infection, the genome of the agent is integrated
in the genome of the host

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In the case of marker vaccines, the field strains and the vaccine
strains can be differentiated

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

One of the most common pathological signs of PMWS is
glomerulonephritis.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The reproduction of the circovirus continuous in the dividing cells

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks
age.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The egg drop syndrome virus can be transmitted vertically

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Adenoviral pneumoenteritis is rarely fatal in calves and lambs

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of infectious laryngotrachetitis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Haemorrhagic nephritis virus is a polyomavirus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Equine rhinopneumonitis virus can cause purulent metritis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The turkey haemorrhagic enteritis virus can cause marble spleen disease in pheasants.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In cattle, cowpox lesions are usually seen on the teats

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Encephalitis is a frequent complication in infectious laryngotracheitis
of chickens

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Pregnant mares abort usually in the acute phase of equine
rhinopneumonitis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Malignant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in
sheep

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Sheep pox is a generalized disease with fever

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

In African swine fever cases of abortion are never observed

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Myxomatosis virus causes tumour formation in rabbits

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Sheeppox virus is zoonotic

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Calves should be vaccinated against bovine papular stomatitis

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

In cattle pseudocowpox lesions are usually mild and transient

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The main host (reservoir) of foot and mouth disease virus is swine

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

The mortality of swine vesicular disease is very high; it can be 50-60%

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low; it cannot
survive in the environment

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Swine vesicular disease virus replicates in the epithelium of the throat and tonsils

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The resistance of duck hepatitis A virus is high

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Several virulence variants of African swine fever virus exist.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Rodents serve as reservoirs for the Western equine encephalomyelitis
virus.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

The Orthohepevirus A causes clinical symptoms only in human

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Abortion is the main clinical sign of togavirus infection results in
abortion of horses.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Lameness and abortions are signs of bluetongue

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Rotaviruses infect only mammals

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur in summer and autumn

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis in calves

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

In subacute Classical swine fever, we can observe signs of pneumonia during necropsies

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

In acute Classical swine fever skin haemorrhages and bloody nasal |discharge can be observed

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA
proteins.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Normal sized spleen can be observed in uncomplicated cases of subacute Classical swine fever.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Nairobi sheep disease leads to abortion in the infected pregnant
animals.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Pigs infected with BVDV turn seropositive to classical swine fever

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Mucosal disease can develop in cattle persistently infected with BVDV

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Bovine parain􀃖uenza virus causes central nervous clinical signs in calves.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In humans inactivated vaccines are used for the immunisation against influenza.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Bovine parainfluenza-3 virus infection is usually endemic in cattle farms.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Mesogenic strains of NDV causes respiratory disease in birds

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Canine distemper virus can produce a generalised infection

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Canine distemper virus has six serotypes

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The serotype of influenza viruses is determined by their HA and NA proteins.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Nephropathogen infectious bronchitis virus strains can cause
nephritis and uricosis

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is a widespread disease all over the world

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Dogs can be vaccinated against canine enteric coronavirus

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Rabies occurs only in tropical countries

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against TGE

82
Q

Dyspnoea is the main clinical sign of borna disease

83
Q

Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus can infect sheep, goats and
cattle.

84
Q

Lymphoid leukosis is the most frequent clinical form of avian
leukosis

85
Q

Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups

86
Q

Maedi-visna is maintained by persistently infected sheep

87
Q

Equine infectious anaemia virus disappears from animals after the viraemia.

88
Q

There is intensive vaccination against caprine arthritis-encephalitis in
endemic countries

89
Q

Anthrax is caused by Clostridium anthracis

90
Q

Incomplete blood clotting is a typical postmortem finding in the case of anthrax

91
Q

Scrapie prion is detected with PCR

92
Q

Oedema factor is a virulence factor of the agent of anthrax

93
Q

Animals showing clinical signs of anthrax have to be killed, treatment
is not allowed.

94
Q

Infectious necrotic hepatitis is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

95
Q

Generally live vaccines are used for the prevention of anthrax

96
Q

Ulcerative lymphangitis of horses is caused by Corynebacterium equi

97
Q

Erysipelas occurs only in pigs

98
Q

Coagulase production is a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus

99
Q

Corynebacterium renale can cause bovine pyelonephritis

100
Q

Encephalitis is a frequent clinical sign of listeriosis in sheep

101
Q

In the case chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign

102
Q

Clostridium chauvoei can produce acids and gas from carbohydrates

103
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the
thickness of the skin is 3.6 mm and there are no local lesions or signs

104
Q

Mycobacteria are highly resistant thanks to lipids and waxes in the
cell wall

105
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is an acute disease

106
Q

False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by pre-allergy

107
Q

The primary complex of bovine tuberculosis is generally seen in the gastrointestinal tract.

108
Q

The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os

109
Q

Poultry are widely vaccinated for the prevention of avian tuberculosis.

110
Q

Postmortem lesions of paratuberculosis can be seen in the small intestine.

111
Q

The most severe clinical signs of paratuberculosis can be seen in
suckling calves.

112
Q

Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs

113
Q

Verotoxigenic Escherichia coli strains cause neonatal coli diarrhoea of
pigs.

114
Q

Dermatophilosis occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in
winter

115
Q

Coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets is caused by fimbriated Escherichia coli strains

116
Q

Coli septicaemia of calves is seen most frequently after weaning

117
Q

High fibre content of the feed can prevent coli- diarrhoea of rabbits

118
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of rabbits is typically seen in suckling animals

119
Q

Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis

120
Q

Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid

121
Q

Swine typhoid is a chronic disease

122
Q

Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe

123
Q

Swine paratyphoid is an acute disease

124
Q

Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis

125
Q

Fibrinous pneumonia is a frequent postmortem lesion of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves

126
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative
agent of necrobacillosis.

127
Q

Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of
cattle.

128
Q

The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the
diaphragmatic lobes.

129
Q

The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis.

130
Q

Aerosol infection is a common form of transmission of the agent of necrobacillosis.

131
Q

Köster staining is used for staining of brucellae

132
Q

Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis

133
Q

Glässer’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis

134
Q

Brucellae are facultative intracellular agents

135
Q

High fever is a clinical sign of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine.

136
Q

Histophilus ovis can cause disease in cattle and sheep

137
Q

Fowl cholera cannot be prevented by vaccination

138
Q

The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare

139
Q

Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae

140
Q

Brucella abortus can infect dogs

141
Q

Brucella suis can colonise the udder of cattle

142
Q

The causative agent of tularaemia is Francisella tularensis

143
Q

Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice

144
Q

Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle

145
Q

Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders

146
Q

The agent of avian bordetellosis can produce cytotoxin

147
Q

Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis

148
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate distemper

149
Q

Contact animals are treated with penicillin in the case of glanders

150
Q

Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses

151
Q

Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei

152
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis is a zoonotic agent

153
Q

Campylobacter hepaticus is the causative agent of infectious hepatitis is pigs.

154
Q

Bovine genital campylobacteriosis is maintained by bulls

155
Q

Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis

156
Q

Rabbit syphilis is caused by Treponema paraluiscunniculi

157
Q

Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei

158
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is a zoonotic agent

159
Q

Leptospira can be detected with silver impregnation test

160
Q

Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery

161
Q

Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery

162
Q

Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs

163
Q

Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery

164
Q

Leptospira can cause moon blindness of horses

165
Q

Generally attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of
leptospirosis of pigs

166
Q

Resistance of mycoplasmas is good; they can survive in the
environment for several months

167
Q

Spasms, paddling and opisthotonus can be seen in the case of heartwater

168
Q

Chlamydiosis is a zoonosis

169
Q

The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks

170
Q

The haemotropic mycoplasmas cannot be cultured on media

171
Q

Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis

172
Q

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma bovis

173
Q

The immunoglobulin content of the colostrum is influenced by the nutrition of the dam

174
Q

Veterinarians can cause iatrogenic infections

175
Q

Foetuses do not have immune reactions

176
Q

Avirulent strains can be used in live vaccines

177
Q

Embryo transfer can be used as an eradication method

178
Q

The health state of the vaccinated animals can influence the efficacy of the vaccination

179
Q

The porcine parvovirus 1 causes renal disorders in adults

180
Q

PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction

181
Q

If 100-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus, weak piglets can be seen

182
Q

PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity

183
Q

Maternal antibodies against parvoviral enteritis of dogs protect not longer than 2 weeks

184
Q

PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity.

185
Q

Abortion of sows can be a sign of Aujeszky’s disease

186
Q

No vaccine is available against Canine adenovirus 2

187
Q

Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months

188
Q

Polyomavirus infects parrots

189
Q

Colostrum uptake may in􀃖uence the resistance of calves to adenoviral pneumoenteritis

190
Q

Feline infectious rhinotracheitis often results high mortality in susceptible young kittens.

191
Q

Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s disease

192
Q

Cowpox virus can cause milker’s nodules in humans

193
Q

Wild boars are not susceptible to Aujeszky’s disease virus

194
Q

Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus

195
Q

Equid herpesvirus 3 can cause lesions on the genital mucosa without abortion

196
Q

Canid herpesvirus infection can cause blue eye disease

197
Q

The lumpy skin disease is only present in Africa

198
Q

Contagious pustular dermatitis (orf) virus may survive in the environment for years

199
Q

Serological cross-protectivity exists between certain poxvirus species but only within genus

200
Q

Lumpy skin disease is caused by parapox viruses