PQS - entrance exam [6] Flashcards
1
Q
Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery
A
True
2
Q
Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of
young dogs.
A
True
3
Q
Leptospira can cause moon blindness of horses
A
True
4
Q
Attenuated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine dysentery
A
False
5
Q
Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs
A
True
6
Q
Haemorrhagic, necrotic placentitis is a postmortem lesion of Q-fever
A
True
7
Q
Q-fever is a zoonosis
A
True
8
Q
Ehrlichia ruminantium is the causative agent of heartwater
A
True
9
Q
Mycoplasma bovis can cause arthritis in cattle
A
True
10
Q
Severe haemolysis is a clinical sign of bovine anaplasmosis
A
False
11
Q
Arthritis is a clinical sign of contagious agalactia of sheep and goats
A
True
12
Q
The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks
A
True
13
Q
Stenoxen agents have a wide host range
A
False
14
Q
The method of vaccination has no effect on the efficacy of the
vaccination.
A
False
15
Q
New-born animals cannot be infected from the milk thanks to the colostral antibodies.
A
False
16
Q
Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals
A
False
17
Q
In the case of latent infection, the genome of the agent is integrated
in the genome of the host
A
True
18
Q
In the case of marker vaccines, the field strains and the vaccine
strains can be differentiated
A
True
19
Q
One of the most common pathological signs of PMWS is
glomerulonephritis.
A
False
20
Q
The reproduction of the circovirus continuous in the dividing cells
A
True
21
Q
SMEDI is caused by porcine circovirus
A
False
22
Q
Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus protect only till 2 weeks
age.
A
False
23
Q
PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity
A
False
24
Q
Aleutian mink disease virus causes enteritis
A
False
25
The egg drop syndrome virus can be transmitted vertically
True
26
Adenoviral pneumoenteritis is rarely fatal in calves and lambs
True
27
Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of infectious laryngotrachetitis
True
28
Haemorrhagic nephritis virus is a polyomavirus
True
29
Equine rhinopneumonitis virus can cause purulent metritis
False
30
The turkey haemorrhagic enteritis virus can cause marble spleen disease in pheasants.
True
31
Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of acute Marek’s disease
False
32
Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus
False
33
In cattle, cowpox lesions are usually seen on the teats
True
34
Encephalitis is a frequent complication in infectious laryngotracheitis
of chickens
False
35
Pregnant mares abort usually in the acute phase of equine
rhinopneumonitis
False
36
Malignant catarrhal fever causes only mild respiratory disease in
sheep
False
37
Sheep pox is a generalized disease with fever
True
38
In African swine fever cases of abortion are never observed
False
39
Myxomatosis virus causes tumour formation in rabbits
True
40
Sheeppox virus is zoonotic
False
41
Calves should be vaccinated against bovine papular stomatitis
False
42
In cattle pseudocowpox lesions are usually mild and transient
True
43
The main host (reservoir) of foot and mouth disease virus is swine
False
44
The mortality of swine vesicular disease is very high; it can be 50-60%
False
45
The resistance of swine vesicular disease virus is very low; it cannot
survive in the environment
False
46
Swine vesicular disease virus replicates in the epithelium of the throat and tonsils
True
47
The resistance of duck hepatitis A virus is high
True
48
Several virulence variants of African swine fever virus exist.
True
49
The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection
False
50
RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture
False
51
Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks
False
52
Rodents serve as reservoirs for the Western equine encephalomyelitis
virus.
True
53
The Orthohepevirus A causes clinical symptoms only in human
True
54
Abortion is the main clinical sign of togavirus infection results in
abortion of horses.
False
55
Lameness and abortions are signs of bluetongue
True
56
Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle.
False
57
Rotaviruses infect only mammals
False
58
Bluetongue outbreaks mainly occur in summer and autumn
True
59
Orthoreoviruses can cause pneumoenteritis in calves
True
60
In subacute Classical swine fever, we can observe signs of pneumonia during necropsies
True
61
In acute Classical swine fever skin haemorrhages and bloody nasal |discharge can be observed
True
62
Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia.
True
63
Influenza viruses are classified into genera by their HA and NA
proteins.
False
64
Normal sized spleen can be observed in uncomplicated cases of subacute Classical swine fever.
True
65
Nairobi sheep disease leads to abortion in the infected pregnant
animals.
True
66
Pigs infected with BVDV turn seropositive to classical swine fever
True
67
Mucosal disease can develop in cattle persistently infected with BVDV
True
68
Bovine parainuenza virus causes central nervous clinical signs in calves.
False
69
In humans inactivated vaccines are used for the immunisation against influenza.
True
70
Bovine parainfluenza-3 virus infection is usually endemic in cattle farms.
True
71
Mesogenic strains of NDV causes respiratory disease in birds
True
72
Canine distemper virus can produce a generalised infection
True
73
Canine distemper virus has six serotypes
False
74
The serotype of influenza viruses is determined by their HA and NA proteins.
True
75
The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI
True
76
Nephropathogen infectious bronchitis virus strains can cause
nephritis and uricosis
True
77
Vesicular stomatitis is a widespread disease all over the world
False
78
The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus
False
79
Dogs can be vaccinated against canine enteric coronavirus
True
80
Rabies occurs only in tropical countries
False
81
The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against TGE
True
82
Dyspnoea is the main clinical sign of borna disease
False
83
Ovine pulmonary adenomatosis virus can infect sheep, goats and
cattle.
False
84
Lymphoid leukosis is the most frequent clinical form of avian
leukosis
True
85
Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups
True
86
Maedi-visna is maintained by persistently infected sheep
True
87
Equine infectious anaemia virus disappears from animals after the viraemia.
False
88
There is intensive vaccination against caprine arthritis-encephalitis in
endemic countries
False
89
Anthrax is caused by Clostridium anthracis
False
90
Incomplete blood clotting is a typical postmortem finding in the case of anthrax
True
91
Scrapie prion is detected with PCR
False
92
Oedema factor is a virulence factor of the agent of anthrax
True
93
Animals showing clinical signs of anthrax have to be killed, treatment
is not allowed.
False
94
Infectious necrotic hepatitis is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
False
95
Generally live vaccines are used for the prevention of anthrax
True
96
Ulcerative lymphangitis of horses is caused by Corynebacterium equi
False
97
Erysipelas occurs only in pigs
False
98
Coagulase production is a virulence factor of Staphylococcus aureus
True
99
Corynebacterium renale can cause bovine pyelonephritis
True
100
Encephalitis is a frequent clinical sign of listeriosis in sheep
True
101
In the case chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign
False
102
Clostridium chauvoei can produce acids and gas from carbohydrates
True
103
The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the
thickness of the skin is 3.6 mm and there are no local lesions or signs
False
104
Mycobacteria are highly resistant thanks to lipids and waxes in the
cell wall
True
105
Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is an acute disease
False
106
False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by pre-allergy
False
107
The primary complex of bovine tuberculosis is generally seen in the gastrointestinal tract.
False
108
The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os
True
109
Poultry are widely vaccinated for the prevention of avian tuberculosis.
False
110
Postmortem lesions of paratuberculosis can be seen in the small intestine.
True
111
The most severe clinical signs of paratuberculosis can be seen in
suckling calves.
False
112
Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs
True
113
Verotoxigenic Escherichia coli strains cause neonatal coli diarrhoea of
pigs.
False
114
Dermatophilosis occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in
winter
False
115
Coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets is caused by fimbriated Escherichia coli strains
True
116
Coli septicaemia of calves is seen most frequently after weaning
False
117
High fibre content of the feed can prevent coli- diarrhoea of rabbits
True
118
Coli-diarrhoea of rabbits is typically seen in suckling animals
False
119
Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis
True
120
Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid
True
121
Swine typhoid is a chronic disease
True
122
Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe
False
123
Swine paratyphoid is an acute disease
True
124
Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
True
125
Fibrinous pneumonia is a frequent postmortem lesion of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves
True
126
Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative
agent of necrobacillosis.
True
127
Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of
cattle.
True
128
The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the
diaphragmatic lobes.
False
129
The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis.
True
130
Aerosol infection is a common form of transmission of the agent of necrobacillosis.
False
131
Köster staining is used for staining of brucellae
True
132
Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis
False
133
Glässer’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis
False
134
Brucellae are facultative intracellular agents
True
135
High fever is a clinical sign of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine.
True
136
Histophilus ovis can cause disease in cattle and sheep
True
137
Fowl cholera cannot be prevented by vaccination
False
138
The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare
True
139
Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae
False
140
Brucella abortus can infect dogs
True
141
Brucella suis can colonise the udder of cattle
True
142
The causative agent of tularaemia is Francisella tularensis
True
143
Tularaemia is a fast and acute disease in mice
True
144
Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle
False
145
Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders
True
146
The agent of avian bordetellosis can produce cytotoxin
True
147
Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis
True
148
Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate distemper
True
149
Contact animals are treated with penicillin in the case of glanders
False
150
Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses
False
151
Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei
True
152
Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis is a zoonotic agent
False
153
Campylobacter hepaticus is the causative agent of infectious hepatitis is pigs.
False
154
Bovine genital campylobacteriosis is maintained by bulls
True
155
Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis
False
156
Rabbit syphilis is caused by Treponema paraluiscunniculi
True
157
Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
True
158
Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus is a zoonotic agent
True
159
Leptospira can be detected with silver impregnation test
True
160
Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery
True
161
Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery
True
162
Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs
True
163
Necrosis of the gut epithelium is a lesion of swine dysentery
True
164
Leptospira can cause moon blindness of horses
True
165
Generally attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of
leptospirosis of pigs
False
166
Resistance of mycoplasmas is good; they can survive in the
environment for several months
False
167
Spasms, paddling and opisthotonus can be seen in the case of heartwater
True
168
Chlamydiosis is a zoonosis
True
169
The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks
True
170
The haemotropic mycoplasmas cannot be cultured on media
True
171
Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma ovis
True
172
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma bovis
False
173
The immunoglobulin content of the colostrum is influenced by the nutrition of the dam
True
174
Veterinarians can cause iatrogenic infections
True
175
Foetuses do not have immune reactions
False
176
Avirulent strains can be used in live vaccines
True
177
Embryo transfer can be used as an eradication method
True
178
The health state of the vaccinated animals can influence the efficacy of the vaccination
True
179
The porcine parvovirus 1 causes renal disorders in adults
True
180
PDNS is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction
False
181
If 100-day-old swine foetuses are infected with parvovirus, weak piglets can be seen
True
182
PMWS is a type III. hypersensitivity
False
183
Maternal antibodies against parvoviral enteritis of dogs protect not longer than 2 weeks
False
184
PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity.
True
185
Abortion of sows can be a sign of Aujeszky’s disease
True
186
No vaccine is available against Canine adenovirus 2
False
187
Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months
True
188
Polyomavirus infects parrots
True
189
Colostrum uptake may inuence the resistance of calves to adenoviral pneumoenteritis
True
190
Feline infectious rhinotracheitis often results high mortality in susceptible young kittens.
True
191
Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s disease
True
192
Cowpox virus can cause milker’s nodules in humans
True
193
Wild boars are not susceptible to Aujeszky’s disease virus
False
194
Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus
False
195
Equid herpesvirus 3 can cause lesions on the genital mucosa without abortion
True
196
Canid herpesvirus infection can cause blue eye disease
False
197
The lumpy skin disease is only present in Africa
False
198
Contagious pustular dermatitis (orf) virus may survive in the environment for years
True
199
Serological cross-protectivity exists between certain poxvirus species but only within genus
True
200
Lumpy skin disease is caused by parapox viruses
False
