PQS - entrance exam [7] Flashcards

1
Q

Myxomatosis virus is used as vector virus to produce bivalent vaccine protecting rabbits
against myxomatosis and rabbit haemorrhagic disease.

A

True

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2
Q

In cattle pseudocowpox lesions are usually mild and transient

A

True

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3
Q

The primary replication sites of foot and mouth disease are the lymph nodes

A

False

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4
Q

The main host (reservoir) of foot and mouth disease virus is swine

A

False

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5
Q

Pigs are infected with swine vesicular disease virus per os.

A

True

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6
Q

The foot and mouth disease virus is very sensitive to acidic pH

A

True

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7
Q

The African swine fever virus can be inactivated by 2%NaOH within 1 day

A

True

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8
Q

Swine shed foot and mouth disease virus for a shorter time than cattle.

A

True

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9
Q

Talfan disease occurs in any age groups

A

False

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10
Q

Vaccines are available to control Gumboro disease

A

True

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11
Q

Bursitis virus targets the premature B lymphocytes

A

True

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12
Q

Genetic reassortments may cause significant antigenic changes in reovirus strains

A

True

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13
Q

Birds serve as reservoirs for the Eastern equine encephalomyelitis virus

A

True

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14
Q

Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens younger than 8 days

A

False

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15
Q

Losses due to rotavirus infection of young animals can be prevented by colostrum-feeding

A

True

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16
Q

The natural reservoirs of the African horse sickness virus are mainly zebras

A

True

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17
Q

Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle

A

False

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18
Q

Oedemas and haemorrhages are the most frequent lesions in African horse sickness

A

True

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19
Q

Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses

A

False

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20
Q

Classical swine fever virus strains are classified into several serotypes

A

False

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21
Q

Shedding of Classical swine fever virus starts 1 week after the infection

A

False

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22
Q

HA protein of influenza viruses is responsible for the attachment to the cell

A

True

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23
Q

The main host of in􀃖uenza is the swine

A

False

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24
Q

Nairobi sheep disease causes haemorrhagic enteritis in the infected animals

A

True

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25
Classical swine fever infection during the first half of pregnancy results in the birth of immunotolerant piglets
True
26
Louping ill is seen in cattle in North America
False
27
Classical swine fever infection during the first half of pregnancy can lead to abortion
True
28
Bovine parain􀃖uenza-3 virus can cause interstitial pneumonia in calves
True
29
Bovine RS virus can cause life threatening disease in calves
True
30
Canine distemper virus can produce a generalised infection
True
31
Rinderpest is a common disease in Africa
False
32
In􀃖uenza causes high morbidity but low mortality in swine
True
33
The mortality of swine in􀃖uenza is high
False
34
Horse is susceptible to Hendra virus infection
True
35
Equine Viral Arteritis virus can infect by inhalation
True
36
Rabies virus can only be transmitted with bite
False
37
Drop of milk production is a clinical sign of ephemeral fever
True
38
Rabies virus is uniform without serotypes, genotypes etc
False
39
Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in chicken below 6 weeks of age
True
40
Retroviruses are generally host specific viruses
True
41
The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against TGE
True
42
By slaughtering seropositive animals, ovine pulmonary adenomatosis can be eradicated
False
43
Proventricular dilatation disease can occur in parrots
True
44
Interstitial pneumonia is the main postmortem lesion of visna
False
45
Borna disease occurs only in horses
False
46
Maedi and visna are caused by the same virus species.
True
47
Feline leukosis virus can cause horizontal and vertical infection
True
48
B-lymphocytes are the targets of enzootic bovine leukosis virus
True
49
Teeth grinding can be a clinical sign of pulpy kidney disease
True
50
Anaculture or anatoxin vaccines are used for the prevention of malignant oedema
True
51
Itching is a frequent sign of scrapie
True
52
Bradsot is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
False
53
Lamb dysentery is generally seen in weaned lambs
False
54
Anthrax is frequently a peracute disease in cattle
True
55
Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries
False
56
Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per os
False
57
The agent of erysipelas is carried by asymptomatic pigs in the tonsils
True
58
Vesicles are formed in the case of exudative dermatitis
True
59
Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
False
60
The toxin of Clostridium botulinum has irreversible effect
True
61
Porcine streptococcosis is treated with penicillins
True
62
Rabbit staphylococcosis is mainly seen in weaned and young rabbits
True
63
False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection with certain Corynebacterium species.
True
64
The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is 4.2 mm and there are no local lesions or signs
False
65
The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if only short time (1-3 weeks) has passed since the infection
True
66
The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is 1.8 mm and there are no local lesions or signs
True
67
Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis can only be seen in sheep.
False
68
Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis
True
69
Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause generalised tuberculosis in pigs
True
70
Calves are vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent coli septicaemia
False
71
Oedema disease occurs most frequently in calves
False
72
Nocardia bacteria can cause inflammation of lymphatic vessels
True
73
Germinative infection does not occur in the case of E. coli diseases of poultry
False
74
Cattle are infected with nocardia bacteria from the soil
True
75
Neonatal coli diarrhoea of piglets is seen typically in 1-10-day-old animals
True
76
Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs
True
77
The agent of swine typhoid can cause focal in􀃖ammation and necrosis in the parenchymal organs.
True
78
Abortion is the main clinical form of human salmonellosis
False
79
Arthritis can be a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis
True
80
Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia
False
81
Salmonella Choleraesuis can cause swine paratyphoid
True
82
Mucoid and watery diarrhoea are typical in the case of coli-diarrhoea of rabbits
True
83
Lesions of swine typhoid are in the large intestine
True
84
Mannheimia haemolytica can cause respiratory pasteurellosis of calves
True
85
Germinative infection is a common way of transmission of the agent of ornithobacteriosis
False
86
Arthritis can be a clinical sign of ovine pasteurellosis
True
87
Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle
True
88
Otitis media can be a clinical sign of rabbit pasteurellosis
True
89
The most severe form of fowl cholera occurs in day-old birds
False
90
Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative agent of necrobacillosis.
True
91
Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis
False
92
Histophilus ovis can cause pneumonia in cattle
True
93
Abortion is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis
True
94
IBR and PI-3 virus can predispose cattle to disease caused by Histophilus ovis
True
95
Focal inflammation and necrosis in the liver is a common postmortem lesion on of fowl cholera
True
96
Infectious coryza occurs in chicken, turkey, and waterfowl
False
97
High fever is a clinical sign of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine
True
98
Brucella canis can infect humans
True
99
Brucella melitensis can cause abortion of cattle
True
100
The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks
True
101
Tularaemia is a zoonosis
True
102
The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare
True
103
Brucella suis can colonise the udder of cattle
True
104
Infected cattle carry brucellae lifelong
True
105
Glanders occurs only in horses
False
106
Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders
True
107
Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate distemper
True
108
Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate calicivirus infection of cats
True
109
Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders
True
110
The causative agent of avian bordetellosis is Bordetella bronchiseptica
False
111
Infection with the agent of glanders can be detected using the mallein test
True
112
Campylobacters are microaerophilic bacteria
True
113
Swine dysentery can mainly be seen in suckling piglets
False
114
Spirochaetes are resistant bacteria
False
115
Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus can cause bacteriaemia, septicaemia is small ruminants
True
116
Regional ileitis is a form of proliferative enteropathies
True
117
Salpingitis can be seen in the case of bovine genital campylobacteriosis
True
118
Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis
True
119
Leptospirosis of young dogs is manly caused by Leptospira Canis
False
120
Haemorrhages under the serous membranes are typical postmortem lesions of swine dysentery
False
121
Focal inflammation and necrosis can be seen in the liver in the case of swine dysentery
False
122
Abortion can be a clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
True
123
Set of foetuses can be seen in the case abortion of sows caused by Leptospira bacteria
True
124
Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves
True
125
Diarrhoea is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
False
126
Q-fever is caused by Coxiella bovis
False
127
The resistance of the agent of Q-fever is low, it cannot survive in the environment
False
128
The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks
True
129
Fibrinous pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of heartwater
False
130
Contagious agalactia of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma agalactiae
True
131
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia cannot be prevented by vaccination
False
132
Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides
True
133
Mycobacteria are acid and alcohol fast bacteria
True
134
Mycobacteria are facultative intracellular bacteria
True
135
Cough is a typical clinical sign of bovine pulmonary tuberculosis
True
136
Giant cells typically occur in tubercles
True
137
The thermal tuberculin test can be used in order to examine the organic reaction of bovine tuberculosis
True
138
Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp. paratuberculosis.
True
139
The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os
True
140
The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if only short time (1- 3 weeks) has passed since the infection
True
141
The agent of paratuberculosis is a facultative intracellular bacterium
True
142
Mycobacterium avium subsp. avium causes tuberculosis in humans
False
143
Actinomyces bovis is the causative agent of bovine actinomycosis
True
144
Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum causes necrobacillosis
True
145
The causative agent of foot rot is Dichelobacter nodosus
True
146
main virulence factors of Dichelobacter nodosus are toxins
False
147
Foot rot occurs only in sheep
False
148
Calves are vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent coli septicaemia
False
149
Nocardia are Gram-positive branching filaments
True
150
Examination of skin scraping under the microscope is important diagnostic method for the diagnosis of dermatophilosis
True
151
Rhodococcus equi causes mainly metritis and urinary tract infections
False
152
Dermatophilus congolensis is mainly a human pathogen
False
153
Oedema disease generally occurs 1-2 weeks after weaning
True
154
There is widespread vaccination for the prevention of oedema disease
False
155
Air sacculitis is common in the case of E. coli disease of poultry
False
156
E. coli O157:H7 strains can cause haemorrhagic enteritis in cattle
False
157
Omphalitis is a frequent sign of Escherichia coli disease of day-old chicken
True
158
Salmonellosis of cattle occurs mainly in day-old calves
False
159
Faeces of asymptomatic cattle can be the source of infection with zoonotic Escherichia coli strains.
True
160
Arthritis can be a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis
True
161
Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli strains are responsible for oedema disease
False
162
Cattle shed salmonellae in the faeces
True
163
Inflammation of the small intestine is a postmortem lesion of swine paratyphoid
True
164
Swine typhoid occurs in endemic herds above 3 months of age
True
165
Necrotic enterocolitis is a postmortem lesion of of typhocolitis of swine.
True
166
Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid
True
167
Swine paratyphoid is mainly seen in suckling piglets
False
168
Salmonella Typhimurium can infect humans
True
169
Fowl typhoid is caused by Salmonella Avium
False
170
Fowl typhoid can be seen sporadically in zoo birds in Europe
True
171
Omphalitis is a clinical sign of fowl typhoid
True
172
Salmonella Avium is the main aetiological agent of fowl paratyphoid
False
173
Fruits and vegetables can be the source of human infection by yersiniae.
True
174
Haemorrhagic septicaemia of cattle is generally a chronic disease
False
175
Capsule can be virulence factor of Pasteurella multocida
True
176
Yersinia enterocolitica generally infects hosts per os
True
177
Primary pasteurellosis diseases are caused by obligate pathogenic Pasteurella bacteria.
False
178
Ewes have to be culled after mastitis caused by Mannheimia haemolytica because the udder cannot regenerate
False
179
Inactivated vaccines can be used for the prevention of ovine pasteurellosis.
True
180
Respiratory viruses can predispose sheep to pasteurellosis
True
181
Acute systemic pasteurellosis occurs mainly among 3-12 months old lambs.
False
182
Acute systemic pasteurellosis is caused by Pasteurella multocida
False
183
The mortality of fowl cholera is low
False
184
Rabbit pasteurellosis is a generalised disease
True
185
The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis
True
186
Pasteurella multocida can infect humans
True
187
The dermonecrotoxin of Pasteurella multocida damages the osteoclast cells
False
188
Asymptomatic carriage of Pasteurella multocida can occur in birds
True
189
Per os antibiotic treatment must be used in the case of fowl cholera
True
190
Deformation of the eggshell can be seen in the case of ornithobacteriosis.
True
191
Antibiotics cannot be used for the treatment of fowl cholera
False
192
Brucellosis is generally a notifiable disease
True
193
In case of brucellosis our aim is eradication and maintain the disease free status
True
194
Brucella abortus can cause necrosis in the chorionic villi of pregnant cattle.
True
195
ABR test can detect antibodies against Brucella abortus in milk
True
196
Wild boars and wild hares can serve as reservoir species of swine brucellosis.
True
197
Herd replacement is the only way of eradication of porcine brucellosis.
True
198
Cattle can be asymptomatic carriers of brucellae
True
199
Brucella ovis can infect bulls and can cause epididymitis and orchitis
False
200
Undulant fever, malaise, inappetence, fatigue, and muscle and joint pains can be the clinical sings of human brucellosis.
True