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Epidemiology - FINAL PQS > PQS - entrance exam [7] > Flashcards

PQS - entrance exam [7] Flashcards

1
Q

Myxomatosis virus is used as vector virus to produce bivalent vaccine protecting rabbits
against myxomatosis and rabbit haemorrhagic disease.

A

True

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2
Q

In cattle pseudocowpox lesions are usually mild and transient

A

True

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3
Q

The primary replication sites of foot and mouth disease are the lymph nodes

A

False

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4
Q

The main host (reservoir) of foot and mouth disease virus is swine

A

False

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5
Q

Pigs are infected with swine vesicular disease virus per os.

A

True

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6
Q

The foot and mouth disease virus is very sensitive to acidic pH

A

True

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7
Q

The African swine fever virus can be inactivated by 2%NaOH within 1 day

A

True

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8
Q

Swine shed foot and mouth disease virus for a shorter time than cattle.

A

True

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9
Q

Talfan disease occurs in any age groups

A

False

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10
Q

Vaccines are available to control Gumboro disease

A

True

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11
Q

Bursitis virus targets the premature B lymphocytes

A

True

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12
Q

Genetic reassortments may cause significant antigenic changes in reovirus strains

A

True

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13
Q

Birds serve as reservoirs for the Eastern equine encephalomyelitis virus

A

True

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14
Q

Clinical signs of Gumboro disease can be seen in chickens younger than 8 days

A

False

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15
Q

Losses due to rotavirus infection of young animals can be prevented by colostrum-feeding

A

True

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16
Q

The natural reservoirs of the African horse sickness virus are mainly zebras

A

True

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17
Q

Rotaviruses cause mainly respiratory signs in cattle

A

False

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18
Q

Oedemas and haemorrhages are the most frequent lesions in African horse sickness

A

True

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19
Q

Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses

A

False

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20
Q

Classical swine fever virus strains are classified into several serotypes

A

False

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21
Q

Shedding of Classical swine fever virus starts 1 week after the infection

A

False

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22
Q

HA protein of influenza viruses is responsible for the attachment to the cell

A

True

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23
Q

The main host of in􀃖uenza is the swine

A

False

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24
Q

Nairobi sheep disease causes haemorrhagic enteritis in the infected animals

A

True

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25
Q

Classical swine fever infection during the first half of pregnancy results in the birth of
immunotolerant piglets

A

True

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26
Q

Louping ill is seen in cattle in North America

A

False

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27
Q

Classical swine fever infection during the first half of pregnancy can lead to abortion

A

True

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28
Q

Bovine parain􀃖uenza-3 virus can cause interstitial pneumonia in calves

A

True

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29
Q

Bovine RS virus can cause life threatening disease in calves

A

True

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30
Q

Canine distemper virus can produce a generalised infection

A

True

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31
Q

Rinderpest is a common disease in Africa

A

False

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32
Q

In􀃖uenza causes high morbidity but low mortality in swine

A

True

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33
Q

The mortality of swine in􀃖uenza is high

A

False

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34
Q

Horse is susceptible to Hendra virus infection

A

True

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35
Q

Equine Viral Arteritis virus can infect by inhalation

A

True

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36
Q

Rabies virus can only be transmitted with bite

A

False

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37
Q

Drop of milk production is a clinical sign of ephemeral fever

A

True

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38
Q

Rabies virus is uniform without serotypes, genotypes etc

A

False

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39
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in chicken below 6 weeks of age

A

True

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40
Q

Retroviruses are generally host specific viruses

A

True

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41
Q

The antibodies against porcine respiratory coronavirus protect the pigs against TGE

A

True

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42
Q

By slaughtering seropositive animals, ovine pulmonary adenomatosis can be eradicated

A

False

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43
Q

Proventricular dilatation disease can occur in parrots

A

True

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44
Q

Interstitial pneumonia is the main postmortem lesion of visna

A

False

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45
Q

Borna disease occurs only in horses

A

False

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46
Q

Maedi and visna are caused by the same virus species.

A

True

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47
Q

Feline leukosis virus can cause horizontal and vertical infection

A

True

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48
Q

B-lymphocytes are the targets of enzootic bovine leukosis virus

A

True

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49
Q

Teeth grinding can be a clinical sign of pulpy kidney disease

A

True

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50
Q

Anaculture or anatoxin vaccines are used for the prevention of malignant oedema

A

True

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51
Q

Itching is a frequent sign of scrapie

A

True

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52
Q

Bradsot is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

A

False

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53
Q

Lamb dysentery is generally seen in weaned lambs

A

False

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54
Q

Anthrax is frequently a peracute disease in cattle

A

True

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55
Q

Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries

A

False

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56
Q

Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per os

A

False

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57
Q

The agent of erysipelas is carried by asymptomatic pigs in the tonsils

A

True

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58
Q

Vesicles are formed in the case of exudative dermatitis

A

True

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59
Q

Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

A

False

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60
Q

The toxin of Clostridium botulinum has irreversible effect

A

True

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61
Q

Porcine streptococcosis is treated with penicillins

A

True

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62
Q

Rabbit staphylococcosis is mainly seen in weaned and young rabbits

A

True

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63
Q

False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection with certain
Corynebacterium species.

A

True

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64
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is 4.2
mm and there are no local lesions or signs

A

False

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65
Q

The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if only short time (1-3 weeks) has passed
since the infection

A

True

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66
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is 1.8
mm and there are no local lesions or signs

A

True

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67
Q

Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis can only be seen in sheep.

A

False

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68
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep is caused by Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

A

True

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69
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis can cause generalised tuberculosis in pigs

A

True

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70
Q

Calves are vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent coli septicaemia

A

False

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71
Q

Oedema disease occurs most frequently in calves

A

False

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72
Q

Nocardia bacteria can cause inflammation of lymphatic vessels

A

True

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73
Q

Germinative infection does not occur in the case of E. coli diseases of poultry

A

False

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74
Q

Cattle are infected with nocardia bacteria from the soil

A

True

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75
Q

Neonatal coli diarrhoea of piglets is seen typically in 1-10-day-old animals

A

True

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76
Q

Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs

A

True

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77
Q

The agent of swine typhoid can cause focal in􀃖ammation and necrosis in the parenchymal
organs.

A

True

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78
Q

Abortion is the main clinical form of human salmonellosis

A

False

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79
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis

A

True

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80
Q

Fowl paratyphoid is limited to the gut, there is no septicaemia

A

False

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81
Q

Salmonella Choleraesuis can cause swine paratyphoid

A

True

82
Q

Mucoid and watery diarrhoea are typical in the case of coli-diarrhoea of rabbits

A

True

83
Q

Lesions of swine typhoid are in the large intestine

A

True

84
Q

Mannheimia haemolytica can cause respiratory pasteurellosis of calves

A

True

85
Q

Germinative infection is a common way of transmission of the agent of ornithobacteriosis

A

False

86
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of ovine pasteurellosis

A

True

87
Q

Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle

A

True

88
Q

Otitis media can be a clinical sign of rabbit pasteurellosis

A

True

89
Q

The most severe form of fowl cholera occurs in day-old birds

A

False

90
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum is the causative agent of necrobacillosis.

A

True

91
Q

Orchitis is a frequent clinical sign of contagious equine metritis

A

False

92
Q

Histophilus ovis can cause pneumonia in cattle

A

True

93
Q

Abortion is a clinical sign of bovine brucellosis

A

True

94
Q

IBR and PI-3 virus can predispose cattle to disease caused by Histophilus ovis

A

True

95
Q

Focal inflammation and necrosis in the liver is a common postmortem lesion on of fowl
cholera

A

True

96
Q

Infectious coryza occurs in chicken, turkey, and waterfowl

A

False

97
Q

High fever is a clinical sign of actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine

A

True

98
Q

Brucella canis can infect humans

A

True

99
Q

Brucella melitensis can cause abortion of cattle

A

True

100
Q

The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks

A

True

101
Q

Tularaemia is a zoonosis

A

True

102
Q

The reservoir host of the agent of tularaemia is the hare

A

True

103
Q

Brucella suis can colonise the udder of cattle

A

True

104
Q

Infected cattle carry brucellae lifelong

A

True

105
Q

Glanders occurs only in horses

A

False

106
Q

Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders

A

True

107
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate distemper

A

True

108
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate calicivirus infection of cats

A

True

109
Q

Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders

A

True

110
Q

The causative agent of avian bordetellosis is Bordetella bronchiseptica

A

False

111
Q

Infection with the agent of glanders can be detected using the mallein test

A

True

112
Q

Campylobacters are microaerophilic bacteria

A

True

113
Q

Swine dysentery can mainly be seen in suckling piglets

A

False

114
Q

Spirochaetes are resistant bacteria

A

False

115
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus can cause bacteriaemia, septicaemia is small ruminants

A

True

116
Q

Regional ileitis is a form of proliferative enteropathies

A

True

117
Q

Salpingitis can be seen in the case of bovine genital campylobacteriosis

A

True

118
Q

Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can
predispose to campylobacteriosis

A

True

119
Q

Leptospirosis of young dogs is manly caused by Leptospira Canis

A

False

120
Q

Haemorrhages under the serous membranes are typical postmortem lesions of swine
dysentery

A

False

121
Q

Focal inflammation and necrosis can be seen in the liver in the case of swine dysentery

A

False

122
Q

Abortion can be a clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis

A

True

123
Q

Set of foetuses can be seen in the case abortion of sows caused by Leptospira bacteria

A

True

124
Q

Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves

A

True

125
Q

Diarrhoea is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis

A

False

126
Q

Q-fever is caused by Coxiella bovis

A

False

127
Q

The resistance of the agent of Q-fever is low, it cannot survive in the environment

A

False

128
Q

The agent of Q-fever is transmitted by ticks

A

True

129
Q

Fibrinous pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of heartwater

A

False

130
Q

Contagious agalactia of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma agalactiae

A

True

131
Q

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia cannot be prevented by vaccination

A

False

132
Q

Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma mycoides subsp. mycoides

A

True

133
Q

Mycobacteria are acid and alcohol fast bacteria

A

True

134
Q

Mycobacteria are facultative intracellular bacteria

A

True

135
Q

Cough is a typical clinical sign of bovine pulmonary tuberculosis

A

True

136
Q

Giant cells typically occur in tubercles

A

True

137
Q

The thermal tuberculin test can be used in order to examine the
organic reaction of bovine tuberculosis

A

True

138
Q

Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp.
paratuberculosis.

A

True

139
Q

The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os

A

True

140
Q

The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if only short time (1- 3 weeks) has passed since the infection

A

True

141
Q

The agent of paratuberculosis is a facultative intracellular bacterium

A

True

142
Q

Mycobacterium avium subsp. avium causes tuberculosis in humans

A

False

143
Q

Actinomyces bovis is the causative agent of bovine actinomycosis

A

True

144
Q

Fusobacterium necrophorum subsp. necrophorum causes
necrobacillosis

A

True

145
Q

The causative agent of foot rot is Dichelobacter nodosus

A

True

146
Q

main virulence factors of Dichelobacter nodosus are toxins

A

False

147
Q

Foot rot occurs only in sheep

A

False

148
Q

Calves are vaccinated with inactivated vaccines in order to prevent coli septicaemia

A

False

149
Q

Nocardia are Gram-positive branching filaments

A

True

150
Q

Examination of skin scraping under the microscope is important diagnostic method for the diagnosis of dermatophilosis

A

True

151
Q

Rhodococcus equi causes mainly metritis and urinary tract infections

A

False

152
Q

Dermatophilus congolensis is mainly a human pathogen

A

False

153
Q

Oedema disease generally occurs 1-2 weeks after weaning

A

True

154
Q

There is widespread vaccination for the prevention of oedema
disease

A

False

155
Q

Air sacculitis is common in the case of E. coli disease of poultry

A

False

156
Q

E. coli O157:H7 strains can cause haemorrhagic enteritis in cattle

A

False

157
Q

Omphalitis is a frequent sign of Escherichia coli disease of day-old chicken

A

True

158
Q

Salmonellosis of cattle occurs mainly in day-old calves

A

False

159
Q

Faeces of asymptomatic cattle can be the source of infection with zoonotic Escherichia coli strains.

A

True

160
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis

A

True

161
Q

Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli strains are responsible for oedema disease

A

False

162
Q

Cattle shed salmonellae in the faeces

A

True

163
Q

Inflammation of the small intestine is a postmortem lesion of swine paratyphoid

A

True

164
Q

Swine typhoid occurs in endemic herds above 3 months of age

A

True

165
Q

Necrotic enterocolitis is a postmortem lesion of of typhocolitis of swine.

A

True

166
Q

Vaccination is not recommended for the prevention of swine typhoid

A

True

167
Q

Swine paratyphoid is mainly seen in suckling piglets

A

False

168
Q

Salmonella Typhimurium can infect humans

A

True

169
Q

Fowl typhoid is caused by Salmonella Avium

A

False

170
Q

Fowl typhoid can be seen sporadically in zoo birds in Europe

A

True

171
Q

Omphalitis is a clinical sign of fowl typhoid

A

True

172
Q

Salmonella Avium is the main aetiological agent of fowl paratyphoid

A

False

173
Q

Fruits and vegetables can be the source of human infection by
yersiniae.

A

True

174
Q

Haemorrhagic septicaemia of cattle is generally a chronic disease

A

False

175
Q

Capsule can be virulence factor of Pasteurella multocida

A

True

176
Q

Yersinia enterocolitica generally infects hosts per os

A

True

177
Q

Primary pasteurellosis diseases are caused by obligate pathogenic Pasteurella bacteria.

A

False

178
Q

Ewes have to be culled after mastitis caused by Mannheimia
haemolytica because the udder cannot regenerate

A

False

179
Q

Inactivated vaccines can be used for the prevention of ovine
pasteurellosis.

A

True

180
Q

Respiratory viruses can predispose sheep to pasteurellosis

A

True

181
Q

Acute systemic pasteurellosis occurs mainly among 3-12 months old
lambs.

A

False

182
Q

Acute systemic pasteurellosis is caused by Pasteurella multocida

A

False

183
Q

The mortality of fowl cholera is low

A

False

184
Q

Rabbit pasteurellosis is a generalised disease

A

True

185
Q

The block of the lachrymal channel is a clinical sign of atrophic rhinitis

A

True

186
Q

Pasteurella multocida can infect humans

A

True

187
Q

The dermonecrotoxin of Pasteurella multocida damages the osteoclast cells

A

False

188
Q

Asymptomatic carriage of Pasteurella multocida can occur in birds

A

True

189
Q

Per os antibiotic treatment must be used in the case of fowl cholera

A

True

190
Q

Deformation of the eggshell can be seen in the case of
ornithobacteriosis.

A

True

191
Q

Antibiotics cannot be used for the treatment of fowl cholera

A

False

192
Q

Brucellosis is generally a notifiable disease

A

True

193
Q

In case of brucellosis our aim is eradication and maintain the disease free
status

A

True

194
Q

Brucella abortus can cause necrosis in the chorionic villi of pregnant cattle.

A

True

195
Q

ABR test can detect antibodies against Brucella abortus in milk

A

True

196
Q

Wild boars and wild hares can serve as reservoir species of swine brucellosis.

A

True

197
Q

Herd replacement is the only way of eradication of porcine
brucellosis.

A

True

198
Q

Cattle can be asymptomatic carriers of brucellae

A

True

199
Q

Brucella ovis can infect bulls and can cause epididymitis and orchitis

A

False

200
Q

Undulant fever, malaise, inappetence, fatigue, and muscle and joint pains can be the clinical sings of human brucellosis.

A

True

Epidemiology - FINAL PQS (9 decks)

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