PQS - entrance exam [5] Flashcards
1
Q
Coli-diarrhoea of rabbits is typically seen in suckling animals
A
False
2
Q
Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe
A
False
3
Q
Cough is a frequent clinical sign of swine typhoid
A
True
4
Q
Swine typhoid is a very frequent disease in Europe nowadays
A
False
5
Q
Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
A
True
6
Q
Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination
A
False
7
Q
Dermonecrotoxin of the agents is responsible for the clinical signs of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle
A
False
8
Q
Acute systemic pasteurellosis is caused by Pasteurella multocida
A
False
9
Q
The dermonecrotoxin of Pasteurella multocida damages the osteoclast cells
A
False
10
Q
Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale can cause disease in chicken and
turkey.
A
True
11
Q
Carrier animals shed the agent of yersiniosis in the faeces
A
True
12
Q
IBR and PI-3 virus can predispose cattle to disease caused by
Histophilus ovis.
A
True
13
Q
Infectious coryza occurs in chicken, turkey, and waterfowl
A
False
14
Q
Infectious coryza is a generalised disease
A
False
15
Q
Brucella ovis mainly causes abortion, clinical signs in males are rare
A
False
16
Q
Agar gel diusion test and ELISA are used to detection of infection
with Brucella ovis
A
True
17
Q
Mainly attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of
actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine
A
False
18
Q
Brucella suis causes swine brucellosis
A
True
19
Q
Brucella canis can infect dogs
A
True
20
Q
Brucella canis is the aetiological agent of canine brucellosis
A
True
21
Q
The causative agent of tularaemia is Francisella tularensis
A
True
22
Q
Herd replacement is the only way of eradication of porcine
brucellosis
A
True
23
Q
Bovine brucellosis has to be treated 4-6 weeks long with penicillins
A
False
24
Q
Brucella abortus can cause abortion of cattle
A
True
25
The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks
True
26
Avian bordetellosis has clinical signs only in turkey
False
27
Bartonella henselae can cause severe, generalised disease in cats
False
28
Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses
False
29
Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei
True
30
Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders
True
31
Pneumonia is a clinical sign of glanders in humans
True
32
Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis
True
33
Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis
False
34
Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis
True
35
Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis
True
36
Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
True
37
There are no vaccines for the prevention of Lyme borreliosis
False
38
Lyme borreliosis is a zoonosis
True
39
The agent of proliferative enteropathies can be detected using the silver impregnation test
True
40
Abortion is the main clinical sign of leptospirosis of dogs
False
41
Generally attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of
leptospirosis of pigs
False
42
Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of young dogs
True
43
Leptospira can be detected with silver impregnation test
True
44
Haemorrhages under the serous membranes are typical
postmortem lesions of swine dysentery
False
45
Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves
True
46
Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins
True
47
Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma
ovis.
True
48
Spasms, paddling and opisthotonus can be seen in the case of heartwater
True
49
Mycoplasma bovis can cause arthritis in cattle
True
50
Anaemia is a typical clinical sign of eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats.
True
51
Fibrinous pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of heartwater
False
52
Tick bite is the only way of infection with the agent of Q-fever
False
53
Chlamydiosis is a zoonosis
True
54
Parts of the genome of the agents can be detected with PCR
True
55
Asymptomatic infections can become manifest
True
56
Euryxen agents have a wide host range
True
57
Hemagglutination inhibition test is used to the detection of antigens of certain agents
False
58
In the case of generation shift the infected animals must be slaughtered at the
beginning of the eradication procedure
False
59
Ascites can be a clinical sign of Derzsy’s disease
True
60
The chicken infectious anaemia causes clinical signs similar to those seen in PDNS
False
61
In pigs the porcine circovirus 1 can cause PMWS
False
62
PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity
True
63
One of the most common pathological signs of PDNS is glomerulonephritis
True
64
Porcine circovirus 2 always causes clinical signs in cattle
False
65
Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months
True
66
The sarcoid is the disease of horse
True
67
Canine adenovirus 2 frequently causes abortion in dogs.
False
68
Herpesviruses are resistant to detergents
False
69
Herpesviruses can cause latent, persisting infections
True
70
In papillomavirus infection there is no viraemia
True
71
Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus
False
72
The European brown hare is not susceptible to the myxoma virus
False
73
Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus is transmitted by arthropods
False
74
Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of duck viral enteritis
True
75
Conjunctivitis and muco-purulent nasal discharge are frequent signs of feline
rhinotracheitis.
True
76
Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s disease
True
77
Lumpy skin disease is zoonotic
False
78
Vaccines are available to be used in the control of African swine fever
False
79
Respiratory signs can be seen in atypical forms of myxomatosis
False
80
Bovine papular stomatitis is zoonotic
True
81
Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of swine pox virus
True
82
The pseudocowpox virus is a zoonotic agent
True
83
Foot and mouth disease can be carried for long time in the hoof tissue
True
84
The African swine fever virus is serologically uniform, but several genotypes exist
True
85
Spasmodical paddling is a frequent clinical sign of duck hepatitis
True
86
Talfan disease can be seen in animals below 4 months of age
True
87
The African swine fever virus infects the swine by air.
False
88
Teschovirus is resistant, it remains infective in the faeces for a few weeks
True
89
Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks.
False
90
The VES infection results in clinical signs similar to that of FMD
True
91
Avian nephritis virus replicates in the gut
True
92
Birds serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus
False
93
The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection
False
94
Orbiviruses spread by droplet (aerosol) infection
False
95
Horse encephalosis is endemic in Africa
True
96
Horses and humans do not play a significant role in the transmission of West Nile virus.
True
97
Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses
False
98
Rotaviruses are typically transmitted via the faecal-oral route
True
99
Lameness is frequent symptom of bluetongue in sheep
True
100
The bluetongue virus is vectored by midges / gnats
True
101
Ischemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem lesions of subacute
Classical swine fever.
True
102
Bunyaviruses cause oral infection
False
103
Classical swine fever infection in the 2nd half of the pregnancy leads to the birth of
immunotolerant piglets.
False
104
The BVD virus typically damages endothelial-, epithelial- and lymphatic tissues
True
105
Classical swine fever virus can be transmitted by raw pork products
True
106
Classical swine fever infection results in immunosuppressio
True
107
In utero infection with non-cytopathic BVDV can cause immunotolerance
True
108
Bovine parainfluenza virus causes central nervous clinical signs in calves
False
109
Breeding mares should be vaccinated before the influenza season
False
110
Bovine RS virus causes low morbidity and high mortality
False
111
Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza
False
112
Earth is free from Rinderpest
True
113
Peste des petits ruminants is caused by a paramyxovirus
True
114
Eurasia is free from Newcastle disease
False
115
Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen in the case of rabies
True
116
Rabies virus appears in the saliva 2-3 days after the onset of the clinical signs
False
117
Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in chicken below 6 weeks
of age
True
118
The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI
True
119
Ephemeral fever virus can cause clinical signs in ruminants, pigs and horses
False
120
The eggs are not infected infectious bronchitis virus
True
121
Nephropathogen infectious bronchitis virus strains can cause nephritis and uricosis
True
122
Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups
True
123
Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be transmitted with blood
True
124
Feline leukosis virus can only be transmitted with saliva
False
125
Retroviruses are euryxemic agents
False
126
Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can infect foetuses of pregnant animals
True
127
The maedi virus and the visna virus are related but can be differentiated with PCR
False
128
Tumour formation in the lungs, liver and spleen is typical in ovine pulmonary
adenomatosis
False
129
Phospholipase C is a virulence factor of the agent of bacillary haemoglobinuria
True
130
Tetanus is seen only in horses
False
131
Infectious necrotic hepatitis is mainly seen in pigs
False
132
Incomplete blood clotting is a typical postmortem finding in the case of anthrax
True
133
Pregnant ewes can be vaccinated in order to prevent lamb dysentery
True
134
Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries
False
135
Classical swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot
False
136
Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per os
False
137
Clostridium chauvoei can produce acids and gas from carbohydrates
True
138
Warm weather is a predisposing factor of swine erysipelas
True
139
Lesions of pig enterotoxaemia can be seen in the small intestine
True
140
Morel’s disease is caused by Staphylococcus aureus subsp. aureus
False
141
Streptococcus equi subsp. equi is the causative agent of strangles
True
142
Flaccid paralysis is a frequent clinical sign of tetanus
False
143
Giant cells typically occur in tubercles
True
144
Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium caprae can cause bovine tuberculosis
True
145
Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis can only be seen in sheep
False
146
The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is
3.6 mm and there are local lesions or signs
False
147
The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
False
148
Positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection with
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
True
149
Infected cattle shed the agents of bovine tuberculosis in milk
True
150
Septicaemic Escherichia coli strains are responsible for E. coli diseases of poultry
True
151
Bovine coli septicaemia is caused by verotoxigenic Escherichia coli strains
False
152
Hypo-gammaglobulinemia can predispose cattle to coli septicaemia
True
153
Hygienic problems can predispose new-born calves to coli diarrhoea
True
154
Coli diarrhoea of new-born calves can be prevented by vaccinating the pregnant cows
True
155
Omphalitis is a frequent sign of Escherichia coli disease of day-old chicken
True
156
Neonatal coli diarrhoea of piglets is seen typically in 1-10-day-old animals
True
157
The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs and lesions of
salmonellosis of cattle
False
158
Salmonellosis can cause septicaemia in sheep
True
159
Rodents and hares are susceptible to Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
True
160
Salmonella Abortusequi causes abortion of horses
True
161
Salmonella abortion of mares happens always a few days before the expected birth
False
162
Arthritis can be a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis
True
163
Salmonella Bovis is the causative agent of bovine salmonellosis
False
164
Pasteurella multocida can cause pasteurellosis in small ruminants
False
165
The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the diaphragmatic
lobes.
False
166
Transportation is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves
True
167
Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
True
168
Fowl cholera occurs mainly in the winter in Europe
False
169
Aerosol infection is a common form of transmission of the agent of necrobacillosis
False
170
Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination
False
171
The agent of anatipestifer disease causes septicaemia
True
172
Only pigs are susceptible to Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
True
173
Infectious coryza is a generalised disease
False
174
Europe is free from Brucella ovis
False
175
Meningitis can occur in the case of Glässer’s disease
True
176
Histophilus ovis can cause pneumonia in cattle
True
177
Glässer’s disease occurs mainly in 1-2 months old piglets
True
178
The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks, mosquitoes, and other blood
sucking arthropods
True
179
Brucella abortus can infect dogs
True
180
Brucella abortus can cause abortion of cattle
True
181
Clinical signs of tularaemia are mainly seen in cattle
False
182
Bovine brucellosis has to be treated 4-6 weeks long with penicillins
False
183
Focal infection and necrosis can be seen in the parenchymal organs in the case of
tularaemia.
True
184
Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle
False
185
Avian bordetellosis has clinical signs only in turkey
False
186
The causative agent of avian bordetellosis is Bordetella bronchiseptica
False
187
Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders
True
188
Susceptible animals are mainly infected per os with the agent of glanders
True
189
Glanders occurs only in horses
False
190
Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis
True
191
Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei
True
192
Spirochaetes are resistant bacteria
False
193
Campylobacter suis causes proliferative enteropathies in pig
False
194
Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes
can predispose to campylobacteriosis.
True
195
Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus can cause bacteriaemia, septicaemia is small
ruminants.
True
196
Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis
True
197
Swine dysentery can mainly be seen in suckling piglets
False
198
Arthritis is a clinical sign of Lyme borreliosis in dogs
True
199
Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery
True
200
Wet pastures can predispose horses to leptospirosis
True
