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Epidemiology - FINAL PQS > PQS - entrance exam [5] > Flashcards

PQS - entrance exam [5] Flashcards

1
Q

Coli-diarrhoea of rabbits is typically seen in suckling animals

A

False

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2
Q

Swine paratyphoid has been eradicated from Europe

A

False

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3
Q

Cough is a frequent clinical sign of swine typhoid

A

True

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4
Q

Swine typhoid is a very frequent disease in Europe nowadays

A

False

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5
Q

Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis

A

True

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6
Q

Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination

A

False

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7
Q

Dermonecrotoxin of the agents is responsible for the clinical signs of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle

A

False

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8
Q

Acute systemic pasteurellosis is caused by Pasteurella multocida

A

False

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9
Q

The dermonecrotoxin of Pasteurella multocida damages the osteoclast cells

A

False

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10
Q

Ornithobacterium rhinotracheale can cause disease in chicken and
turkey.

A

True

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11
Q

Carrier animals shed the agent of yersiniosis in the faeces

A

True

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12
Q

IBR and PI-3 virus can predispose cattle to disease caused by
Histophilus ovis.

A

True

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13
Q

Infectious coryza occurs in chicken, turkey, and waterfowl

A

False

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14
Q

Infectious coryza is a generalised disease

A

False

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15
Q

Brucella ovis mainly causes abortion, clinical signs in males are rare

A

False

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16
Q

Agar gel di􀃠usion test and ELISA are used to detection of infection
with Brucella ovis

A

True

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17
Q

Mainly attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of
actinobacillus pleuropneumonia of swine

A

False

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18
Q

Brucella suis causes swine brucellosis

A

True

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19
Q

Brucella canis can infect dogs

A

True

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20
Q

Brucella canis is the aetiological agent of canine brucellosis

A

True

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21
Q

The causative agent of tularaemia is Francisella tularensis

A

True

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22
Q

Herd replacement is the only way of eradication of porcine
brucellosis

A

True

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23
Q

Bovine brucellosis has to be treated 4-6 weeks long with penicillins

A

False

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24
Q

Brucella abortus can cause abortion of cattle

A

True

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25
Q

The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks

A

True

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26
Q

Avian bordetellosis has clinical signs only in turkey

A

False

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27
Q

Bartonella henselae can cause severe, generalised disease in cats

A

False

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28
Q

Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses

A

False

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29
Q

Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei

A

True

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30
Q

Humans are susceptible to the agent of glanders

A

True

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31
Q

Pneumonia is a clinical sign of glanders in humans

A

True

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32
Q

Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis

A

True

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33
Q

Rabbit syphilis is a zoonosis

A

False

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34
Q

Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis

A

True

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35
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis

A

True

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36
Q

Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei

A

True

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37
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of Lyme borreliosis

A

False

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38
Q

Lyme borreliosis is a zoonosis

A

True

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39
Q

The agent of proliferative enteropathies can be detected using the silver impregnation test

A

True

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40
Q

Abortion is the main clinical sign of leptospirosis of dogs

A

False

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41
Q

Generally attenuated vaccines are used for the prevention of
leptospirosis of pigs

A

False

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42
Q

Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis of young dogs

A

True

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43
Q

Leptospira can be detected with silver impregnation test

A

True

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44
Q

Haemorrhages under the serous membranes are typical
postmortem lesions of swine dysentery

A

False

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45
Q

Leptospirosis can be an acute disease in calves

A

True

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46
Q

Bovine leptospirosis can be successfully treated with penicillins

A

True

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47
Q

Eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma
ovis.

A

True

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48
Q

Spasms, paddling and opisthotonus can be seen in the case of heartwater

A

True

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49
Q

Mycoplasma bovis can cause arthritis in cattle

A

True

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50
Q

Anaemia is a typical clinical sign of eperythrozoonosis of sheep and goats.

A

True

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51
Q

Fibrinous pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of heartwater

A

False

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52
Q

Tick bite is the only way of infection with the agent of Q-fever

A

False

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53
Q

Chlamydiosis is a zoonosis

A

True

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54
Q

Parts of the genome of the agents can be detected with PCR

A

True

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55
Q

Asymptomatic infections can become manifest

A

True

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56
Q

Euryxen agents have a wide host range

A

True

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57
Q

Hemagglutination inhibition test is used to the detection of antigens of certain agents

A

False

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58
Q

In the case of generation shift the infected animals must be slaughtered at the
beginning of the eradication procedure

A

False

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59
Q

Ascites can be a clinical sign of Derzsy’s disease

A

True

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60
Q

The chicken infectious anaemia causes clinical signs similar to those seen in PDNS

A

False

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61
Q

In pigs the porcine circovirus 1 can cause PMWS

A

False

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62
Q

PDNS is a type III. hypersensitivity

A

True

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63
Q

One of the most common pathological signs of PDNS is glomerulonephritis

A

True

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64
Q

Porcine circovirus 2 always causes clinical signs in cattle

A

False

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65
Q

Dogs carry the canine adenovirus in the kidneys for several months

A

True

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66
Q

The sarcoid is the disease of horse

A

True

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67
Q

Canine adenovirus 2 frequently causes abortion in dogs.

A

False

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68
Q

Herpesviruses are resistant to detergents

A

False

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69
Q

Herpesviruses can cause latent, persisting infections

A

True

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70
Q

In papillomavirus infection there is no viraemia

A

True

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71
Q

Sheep should be immunised against malignant catarrhal fever virus

A

False

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72
Q

The European brown hare is not susceptible to the myxoma virus

A

False

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73
Q

Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus is transmitted by arthropods

A

False

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74
Q

Conjunctivitis is a frequent sign of duck viral enteritis

A

True

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75
Q

Conjunctivitis and muco-purulent nasal discharge are frequent signs of feline
rhinotracheitis.

A

True

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76
Q

Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s disease

A

True

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77
Q

Lumpy skin disease is zoonotic

A

False

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78
Q

Vaccines are available to be used in the control of African swine fever

A

False

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79
Q

Respiratory signs can be seen in atypical forms of myxomatosis

A

False

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80
Q

Bovine papular stomatitis is zoonotic

A

True

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81
Q

Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of swine pox virus

A

True

82
Q

The pseudocowpox virus is a zoonotic agent

A

True

83
Q

Foot and mouth disease can be carried for long time in the hoof tissue

A

True

84
Q

The African swine fever virus is serologically uniform, but several genotypes exist

A

True

85
Q

Spasmodical paddling is a frequent clinical sign of duck hepatitis

A

True

86
Q

Talfan disease can be seen in animals below 4 months of age

A

True

87
Q

The African swine fever virus infects the swine by air.

A

False

88
Q

Teschovirus is resistant, it remains infective in the faeces for a few weeks

A

True

89
Q

Horse encephalomyelitis viruses are transmitted by ticks.

A

False

90
Q

The VES infection results in clinical signs similar to that of FMD

A

True

91
Q

Avian nephritis virus replicates in the gut

A

True

92
Q

Birds serve as reservoirs for Venezuelan horse encephalomyelitis virus

A

False

93
Q

The bursitis virus mostly causes germinative infection

A

False

94
Q

Orbiviruses spread by droplet (aerosol) infection

A

False

95
Q

Horse encephalosis is endemic in Africa

A

True

96
Q

Horses and humans do not play a significant role in the transmission of West Nile virus.

A

True

97
Q

Acute form of African horse sickness occurs mainly in zebras and horses

A

False

98
Q

Rotaviruses are typically transmitted via the faecal-oral route

A

True

99
Q

Lameness is frequent symptom of bluetongue in sheep

A

True

100
Q

The bluetongue virus is vectored by midges / gnats

A

True

101
Q

Ischemic infarcts at the edges of the spleen are postmortem lesions of subacute
Classical swine fever.

A

True

102
Q

Bunyaviruses cause oral infection

A

False

103
Q

Classical swine fever infection in the 2nd half of the pregnancy leads to the birth of
immunotolerant piglets.

A

False

104
Q

The BVD virus typically damages endothelial-, epithelial- and lymphatic tissues

A

True

105
Q

Classical swine fever virus can be transmitted by raw pork products

A

True

106
Q

Classical swine fever infection results in immunosuppressio

A

True

107
Q

In utero infection with non-cytopathic BVDV can cause immunotolerance

A

True

108
Q

Bovine parainfluenza virus causes central nervous clinical signs in calves

A

False

109
Q

Breeding mares should be vaccinated before the influenza season

A

False

110
Q

Bovine RS virus causes low morbidity and high mortality

A

False

111
Q

Bats have an important role in the epidemiology of influenza

A

False

112
Q

Earth is free from Rinderpest

A

True

113
Q

Peste des petits ruminants is caused by a paramyxovirus

A

True

114
Q

Eurasia is free from Newcastle disease

A

False

115
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusion bodies can be seen in the case of rabies

A

True

116
Q

Rabies virus appears in the saliva 2-3 days after the onset of the clinical signs

A

False

117
Q

Infectious bronchitis virus causes tracheitis and pneumonia in chicken below 6 weeks
of age

A

True

118
Q

The clinical signs of PRRS can be abortion like SMEDI

A

True

119
Q

Ephemeral fever virus can cause clinical signs in ruminants, pigs and horses

A

False

120
Q

The eggs are not infected infectious bronchitis virus

A

True

121
Q

Nephropathogen infectious bronchitis virus strains can cause nephritis and uricosis

A

True

122
Q

Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups

A

True

123
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can be transmitted with blood

A

True

124
Q

Feline leukosis virus can only be transmitted with saliva

A

False

125
Q

Retroviruses are euryxemic agents

A

False

126
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can infect foetuses of pregnant animals

A

True

127
Q

The maedi virus and the visna virus are related but can be differentiated with PCR

A

False

128
Q

Tumour formation in the lungs, liver and spleen is typical in ovine pulmonary
adenomatosis

A

False

129
Q

Phospholipase C is a virulence factor of the agent of bacillary haemoglobinuria

A

True

130
Q

Tetanus is seen only in horses

A

False

131
Q

Infectious necrotic hepatitis is mainly seen in pigs

A

False

132
Q

Incomplete blood clotting is a typical postmortem finding in the case of anthrax

A

True

133
Q

Pregnant ewes can be vaccinated in order to prevent lamb dysentery

A

True

134
Q

Bradsot occurs mainly in tropical and subtropical countries

A

False

135
Q

Classical swine fever is a frequent predisposing factor of bradsot

A

False

136
Q

Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per os

A

False

137
Q

Clostridium chauvoei can produce acids and gas from carbohydrates

A

True

138
Q

Warm weather is a predisposing factor of swine erysipelas

A

True

139
Q

Lesions of pig enterotoxaemia can be seen in the small intestine

A

True

140
Q

Morel’s disease is caused by Staphylococcus aureus subsp. aureus

A

False

141
Q

Streptococcus equi subsp. equi is the causative agent of strangles

A

True

142
Q

Flaccid paralysis is a frequent clinical sign of tetanus

A

False

143
Q

Giant cells typically occur in tubercles

A

True

144
Q

Mycobacterium bovis and Mycobacterium caprae can cause bovine tuberculosis

A

True

145
Q

Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis can only be seen in sheep

A

False

146
Q

The intradermal tuberculin test is negative if the increase of the thickness of the skin is
3.6 mm and there are local lesions or signs

A

False

147
Q

The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

False

148
Q

Positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection with
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

True

149
Q

Infected cattle shed the agents of bovine tuberculosis in milk

A

True

150
Q

Septicaemic Escherichia coli strains are responsible for E. coli diseases of poultry

A

True

151
Q

Bovine coli septicaemia is caused by verotoxigenic Escherichia coli strains

A

False

152
Q

Hypo-gammaglobulinemia can predispose cattle to coli septicaemia

A

True

153
Q

Hygienic problems can predispose new-born calves to coli diarrhoea

A

True

154
Q

Coli diarrhoea of new-born calves can be prevented by vaccinating the pregnant cows

A

True

155
Q

Omphalitis is a frequent sign of Escherichia coli disease of day-old chicken

A

True

156
Q

Neonatal coli diarrhoea of piglets is seen typically in 1-10-day-old animals

A

True

157
Q

The enterotoxins of the agents are responsible for the clinical signs and lesions of
salmonellosis of cattle

A

False

158
Q

Salmonellosis can cause septicaemia in sheep

A

True

159
Q

Rodents and hares are susceptible to Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

A

True

160
Q

Salmonella Abortusequi causes abortion of horses

A

True

161
Q

Salmonella abortion of mares happens always a few days before the expected birth

A

False

162
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of bovine salmonellosis

A

True

163
Q

Salmonella Bovis is the causative agent of bovine salmonellosis

A

False

164
Q

Pasteurella multocida can cause pasteurellosis in small ruminants

A

False

165
Q

The lesions of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves are generally in the diaphragmatic
lobes.

A

False

166
Q

Transportation is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves

A

True

167
Q

Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis

A

True

168
Q

Fowl cholera occurs mainly in the winter in Europe

A

False

169
Q

Aerosol infection is a common form of transmission of the agent of necrobacillosis

A

False

170
Q

Foot rot cannot be prevented by vaccination

A

False

171
Q

The agent of anatipestifer disease causes septicaemia

A

True

172
Q

Only pigs are susceptible to Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

True

173
Q

Infectious coryza is a generalised disease

A

False

174
Q

Europe is free from Brucella ovis

A

False

175
Q

Meningitis can occur in the case of Glässer’s disease

A

True

176
Q

Histophilus ovis can cause pneumonia in cattle

A

True

177
Q

Glässer’s disease occurs mainly in 1-2 months old piglets

A

True

178
Q

The agent of tularaemia can be transmitted by ticks, mosquitoes, and other blood
sucking arthropods

A

True

179
Q

Brucella abortus can infect dogs

A

True

180
Q

Brucella abortus can cause abortion of cattle

A

True

181
Q

Clinical signs of tularaemia are mainly seen in cattle

A

False

182
Q

Bovine brucellosis has to be treated 4-6 weeks long with penicillins

A

False

183
Q

Focal infection and necrosis can be seen in the parenchymal organs in the case of
tularaemia.

A

True

184
Q

Brucella bovis can cause abortion of cattle

A

False

185
Q

Avian bordetellosis has clinical signs only in turkey

A

False

186
Q

The causative agent of avian bordetellosis is Bordetella bronchiseptica

A

False

187
Q

Granulomas in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders

A

True

188
Q

Susceptible animals are mainly infected per os with the agent of glanders

A

True

189
Q

Glanders occurs only in horses

A

False

190
Q

Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis

A

True

191
Q

Glanders is caused by Burkholderia mallei

A

True

192
Q

Spirochaetes are resistant bacteria

A

False

193
Q

Campylobacter suis causes proliferative enteropathies in pig

A

False

194
Q

Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant ewes
can predispose to campylobacteriosis.

A

True

195
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. fetus can cause bacteriaemia, septicaemia is small
ruminants.

A

True

196
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi causes Lyme borreliosis

A

True

197
Q

Swine dysentery can mainly be seen in suckling piglets

A

False

198
Q

Arthritis is a clinical sign of Lyme borreliosis in dogs

A

True

199
Q

Blood in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery

A

True

200
Q

Wet pastures can predispose horses to leptospirosis

A

True

Epidemiology - FINAL PQS (9 decks)

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