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Epidemiology - FINAL PQS > PQS - entrance exam [4] > Flashcards

PQS - entrance exam [4] Flashcards

1
Q

Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei

A

False

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2
Q

Exudative dermatitis of pigs is caused by Staphylococcus aureus subsp. anaerobius

A

False

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3
Q

High ammonia concentration is a predisposing factor of rabbit staphylococcosis

A

True

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4
Q

Corynebacterium renale causes septicaemia in cattle

A

False

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5
Q

The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with
Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

False

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6
Q

The tuberculin has to be injected in the skin fold in the skin intra dermal test

A

True

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7
Q

Arthritis can be a clinical sign of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep.

A

True

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8
Q

False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection
with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria

A

True

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9
Q

Mycobacteria are intracellular bacteria

A

True

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10
Q

Giant cells typically occur in tubercles.

A

True

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11
Q

Arthritis is the most frequent clinical sign of canine actinomycosis

A

False

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12
Q

Mastitis is a common clinical sign of bovine nocardiosis

A

True

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13
Q

High fever is a typical clinical sign of bovine coli-septicaemia

A

True

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14
Q

Per os antibiotics are recommended for the treatment of neonatal coli diarrhoea of
calves.

A

True

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15
Q

Subcutaneous pyogranulomas can be seen in the case of canine actinomycosis.

A

True

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16
Q

Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs

A

True

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17
Q

Dermatophilus congolensis is the agent of dermatophilosis

A

True

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18
Q

Salmonella Enteritidis can cause salmonellosis in sheep

A

True

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19
Q

The agent of swine typhoid can cause focal inflammation and necrosis in the
parenchymal organs.

A

True

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20
Q

Salmonella Typhimurium can cause salmonellosis of cattle

A

True

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21
Q

Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis

A

True

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22
Q

Some viral infections can predispose animals to fowl paratyphoid

A

True

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23
Q

Weaning is a predisposing factor of oedema disease

A

True

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24
Q

Swine typhoid is a very frequent disease in Europe nowadays

A

False

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25
Q

Mannheimia haemolytica can cause pasteurellosis in cattle

A

True

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26
Q

Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis

A

True

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27
Q

Fibrinous pleuropneumonia is the main postmortem lesion of acute systemic
pasteurellosis

A

False

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28
Q

Fowl cholera occurs mainly in the winter in Europe

A

False

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29
Q

Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle

A

True

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30
Q

Transportation is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves

A

True

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31
Q

Respiratory pasteurellosis occurs only among cattle above 6 months of age

A

False

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32
Q

Germinative infection is a frequent way of transmission of the agent of fowl
cholera

A

False

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33
Q

Fowl cholera cannot be prevented by vaccination

A

False

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34
Q

Brucella ovis mainly causes abortion, clinical signs in males are rare

A

False

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35
Q

The clinical signs of anatipestifer disease are more severe in hens than in ducks

A

False

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36
Q

Glässer’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis

A

False

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37
Q

Ataxia and spasms are common clinical signs of anatipestifer disease

A

True

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38
Q

Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae generally causes septicaemia

A

False

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39
Q

Infected cattle carry brucellae lifelong

A

True

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40
Q

Brucella melitensis can cause abortion of cattle

A

True

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41
Q

Tularaemia is a zoonosis.

A

True

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42
Q

Brucella canis can infect dogs.

A

True

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43
Q

Brucella suis can infect dogs

A

True

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44
Q

Brucella melitensis can infect dogs

A

True

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45
Q

Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae

A

False

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46
Q

Glanders occurs only in horses

A

False

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47
Q

Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate calicivirus infection of cats

A

True

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48
Q

Avian bordetellosis is generally limited to the respiratory tract, bacteriaemia is rare

A

True

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49
Q

Bartonella henselae can cause severe, generalised disease in cats

A

False

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50
Q

Ulcers in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders

A

True

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51
Q

Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses

A

False

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52
Q

Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis

A

True

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53
Q

Orchitis and epididymitis are clinical signs of bovine genital campylobacteriosis

A

False

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54
Q

Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei

A

True

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55
Q

Lyme borreliosis is a zoonosis

A

True

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56
Q

Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteropathies in pigs

A

True

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57
Q

Rabbit syphilis is caused by Treponema paraluiscunniculi

A

True

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58
Q

Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis is a zoonotic agent

A

False

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59
Q

Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant
ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis

A

True

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60
Q

Diarrhoea is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis

A

False

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61
Q

Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis

A

False

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62
Q

Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis
of young dogs

A

True

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63
Q

Inactivated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine dysentery

A

False

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64
Q

Leptospira Icterohaemorrhagiae can cause acute disease of young dogs

A

True

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65
Q

Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery

A

True

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66
Q

Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs

A

True

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67
Q

Contagious agalactia of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma agalactiae

A

True

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68
Q

Chlamydia pecorum can cause arthritis in cattle

A

True

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69
Q

Severe pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of Potomac horse fever

A

False

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70
Q

Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis is mainly seen in warmer climate

A

True

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71
Q

Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma caprae

A

False

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72
Q

Chlamydia felis causes mainly abortion of cats

A

False

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73
Q

Leptospirosis is a zoonosis

A

True

74
Q

In the case of marker vaccines, the field strains and the vaccine
strains can be differentiated

A

True

75
Q

Euryxen agents have a wide host range

A

true

76
Q

In the case of latent infection, the agents are continuously shed

A

False

77
Q

The normal microflora of the gut is essential for animals; they
cannot live without it

A

False

78
Q

Stenoxen agents have a wide host range

A

False

79
Q

Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals

A

False

80
Q

PCR is used for the detection of antibodies against porcine
parvovirus 1

A

False

81
Q

Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus can protect till 4 months age

A

True

82
Q

SMEDI is caused by goose circovirus

A

False

83
Q

The PMWS is a type IV hypersensitivity

A

False

84
Q

The porcine circovirus can replicate in the foetus

A

True

85
Q

In pigs the porcine circovirus 1 can cause PMWS

A

False

86
Q

Herpesviruses can cause latent, persisting infections

A

True

87
Q

Adenoviruses may cause urolithiasis in sheep

A

True

88
Q

Polyomavirus infects parrots

A

True

89
Q

Canine adenovirus 2 can cause upper respiratory tract
inflammation

A

True

90
Q

The primary replication of haemorrhagic nephritis enteritis virus is
in small intestine

A

True

91
Q

Adenoviruses can cause purulent bronchoalveolar pneumonia in
calves and lambs

A

False

92
Q

The Aujeszky’s disease in cats is usually a mild respiratory disease
with quick recovery

A

False

93
Q

For immunisation against equine rhinopneumonitis virus mostly
marker vaccines are used

A

False

94
Q

Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s
disease

A

True

95
Q

The Marek’s disease virus causes immunosuppression

A

True

96
Q

Swine pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs

A

False

97
Q

Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of lumpy
skin disease virus

A

True

98
Q

Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of sheeppox
virus.

A

False

99
Q

Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of fowlpox
virus.

A

True

100
Q

The African swine fever virus causes hemadsorption in cell cultures

A

True

101
Q

Calves should be vaccinated against bovine papular stomatitis

A

False

102
Q

The pseudocowpox virus is a zoonotic agent

A

True

103
Q

Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries

A

False

104
Q

Pigs are infected with swine vesicular disease virus per os

A

True

105
Q

Teschovirus is resistant, it remains infective in the faeces for a few weeks

A

True

106
Q

Teschen disease occurs in cattle, sheep and pigs

A

False

107
Q

Asymptomatic animals can carry Teschovirus

A

True

108
Q

In acute African swine fever cases we can observe high mortality in
sows.

A

True

109
Q

The foot and mouth disease virus is classified into 7 serotypes

A

True

110
Q

Haemorrhages are frequent postmortem lesions of avian
encephalomyelitis.

A

False

111
Q

Birds serve as reservoirs for the Eastern equine encephalomyelitis
virus.

A

True

112
Q

RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture

A

False

113
Q

Orbiviruses spread by droplet (aerosol) infection

A

False

114
Q

Clinical signs of avian nephritis can be seen in the 􀃕rst four weeks
of life

A

True

115
Q

There are several virulence variants of bursitis virus

A

True

116
Q

Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses

A

False

117
Q

Bluetongue virus is also foetopathic.

A

True

118
Q

The border disease is present only in the United Kingdom

A

False

119
Q

Goats are not susceptible to bluetongue virus

A

False

120
Q

Horse encephalosis occurs only in America

A

False

121
Q

Bluetongue disease occurs only in Africa

A

False

122
Q

Bunyaviruses cause oral infection

A

False

123
Q

Classical swine fever can cause transplacental infection

A

True

124
Q

During necropsy of acute Classical swine fever cases,
haemorrhages can be seen in the gastric mucosa

A

True

125
Q

All bunyaviruses are transmitted by mosquitoes

A

False

126
Q

Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia

A

True

127
Q

Antigenic shift is behind the influenza pandemics

A

True

128
Q

Classical swine fever virus can retain its infectivity for 6 months in frozen meat.

A

True

129
Q

Newcastle disease is a notifiable disease

A

True

130
Q

The virulence of avian influenza is determined by the i.v. pathogeny index and mortality

A

True

131
Q

Paramyxoviruses cannot cause strong cytopathogenic effect in cell cultures

A

False

132
Q

Antigenic drift means serials of point mutations in the HA and NA
genes

A

True

133
Q

Bovine parainfluenza-3 virus infection is usually endemic in cattle farms

A

True

134
Q

Natural reservoir of Hendra virus is flying fox

A

True

135
Q

Lentogenic Newcastle disease virus cause severe fatal infection

A

False

136
Q

The PRRS is caused by a coronavirus

A

False

137
Q

Cats can beare regularly vaccinated against feline coronavirus

A

False

138
Q

Vesicular stomatitis virus is transmitted by blood sucking
arthropods and direct contact

A

True

139
Q

Foxes maintain sylvatic rabies in Europe

A

True

140
Q

The porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus causes disease in calf

A

False

141
Q

Vesicular stomatitis is a zoonotic disease

A

True

142
Q

Vaccine against Equine Viral Arteritis is never used in Europe

A

False

143
Q

There are no vaccines for the prevention of feline leukosi

A

False

144
Q

Proventricular dilatation disease is a zoonosis

A

False

145
Q

Equine infectious anaemia virus is transmitted with blood of the
infected animals.

A

True

146
Q

Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can spread from cattle to sheep,
goats and other ruminants

A

False

147
Q

Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups

A

True

148
Q

Avian leukosis virus can cause only lymphoid leukosis

A

False

149
Q

Proventricular dilatation disease can occur in parrots

A

True

150
Q

Bacillary haemoglobinuria is caused by Clostridium haemolyticum

A

True

151
Q

Liver flukes can predispose animals to infectious necrotic hepatitis.

A

True

152
Q

Pulpy kidney disease generally occurs in 1-2-week-old lambs

A

False

153
Q

Pulpy kidney disease is caused by Clostridium perfringens D

A

True

154
Q

In the case of transmissible encephalopathies lesions can only be seen in the central nervous system

A

True

155
Q

Anaculture or anatoxin vaccines are used for the prevention of
blackleg

A

True

156
Q

In the case of transmissible encephalopathies always degenerative
lesions can be seen

A

True

157
Q

Morel’s disease occurs mainly in cattle, small ruminants and pigs

A

False

158
Q

The agent of tetanus is strictly aerobic

A

False

159
Q

Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per
os.

A

False

160
Q

Streptococcosis of pigs is caused by Streptococcus hyicus

A

False

161
Q

Clinical signs of porcine streptococcosis can mainly be seen in piglets

A

True

162
Q

In the case chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign

A

False

163
Q

Diamond skin disease is a clinical form of erysipela

A

True

164
Q

Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp.
paratuberculosis

A

True

165
Q

The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os.

A

True

166
Q

Infected cattle shed the agents of bovine tuberculosis in tracheal
discharge.

A

True

167
Q

Only aerosol infection occurs in the case of bovine tuberculosis

A

False

168
Q

Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep occurs in tropical countries but
not in Europe

A

False

169
Q

Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be seen only above 3-4 months of age

A

True

170
Q

The tuberculin test is used for the detection of infection of animals
with mycobacteria

A

True

171
Q

Dermatophilosis occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in
winter

A

False

172
Q

Septicaemic Escherichia coli strains are responsible for E. coli
diseases of poultry

A

True

173
Q

Coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets is caused by 􀃕mbriated
Escherichia coli strains

A

True

174
Q

Coli septicaemia of calves is seen most frequently after weaning

A

False

175
Q

Mastitis is a common clinical sign of bovine nocardiosis

A

True

176
Q

Dermatophilus congolensis is the agent of dermatophilosis

A

True

177
Q

Actinomyces bovis is the causative agent of bovine actinomycosis

A

True

178
Q

Salmonella Avium is the main aetiological agent of fowl
paratyphoid

A

False

179
Q

Humans are infected with salmonellae mainly per os

A

True

180
Q

All serotypes of salmonellae can cause salmonellosis in humans

A

False

Epidemiology - FINAL PQS (9 decks)

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