PQS - entrance exam [4] Flashcards
1
Q
Malignant oedema is caused by Clostridium chauvoei
A
False
2
Q
Exudative dermatitis of pigs is caused by Staphylococcus aureus subsp. anaerobius
A
False
3
Q
High ammonia concentration is a predisposing factor of rabbit staphylococcosis
A
True
4
Q
Corynebacterium renale causes septicaemia in cattle
A
False
5
Q
The tuberculin test in cattle can be false negative if the animal is infected with
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
A
False
6
Q
The tuberculin has to be injected in the skin fold in the skin intra dermal test
A
True
7
Q
Arthritis can be a clinical sign of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep.
A
True
8
Q
False positive reactions of the tuberculin test in cattle can be caused by infection
with facultative pathogenic mycobacteria
A
True
9
Q
Mycobacteria are intracellular bacteria
A
True
10
Q
Giant cells typically occur in tubercles.
A
True
11
Q
Arthritis is the most frequent clinical sign of canine actinomycosis
A
False
12
Q
Mastitis is a common clinical sign of bovine nocardiosis
A
True
13
Q
High fever is a typical clinical sign of bovine coli-septicaemia
A
True
14
Q
Per os antibiotics are recommended for the treatment of neonatal coli diarrhoea of
calves.
A
True
15
Q
Subcutaneous pyogranulomas can be seen in the case of canine actinomycosis.
A
True
16
Q
Actinomyces hordeovulneris can cause actinomycosis of dogs
A
True
17
Q
Dermatophilus congolensis is the agent of dermatophilosis
A
True
18
Q
Salmonella Enteritidis can cause salmonellosis in sheep
A
True
19
Q
The agent of swine typhoid can cause focal inflammation and necrosis in the
parenchymal organs.
A
True
20
Q
Salmonella Typhimurium can cause salmonellosis of cattle
A
True
21
Q
Mixing animals is a predisposing factor of bovine salmonellosis
A
True
22
Q
Some viral infections can predispose animals to fowl paratyphoid
A
True
23
Q
Weaning is a predisposing factor of oedema disease
A
True
24
Q
Swine typhoid is a very frequent disease in Europe nowadays
A
False
25
Mannheimia haemolytica can cause pasteurellosis in cattle
True
26
Overcrowding can predispose animals to ornithobacteriosis
True
27
Fibrinous pleuropneumonia is the main postmortem lesion of acute systemic
pasteurellosis
False
28
Fowl cholera occurs mainly in the winter in Europe
False
29
Overcrowding is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of cattle
True
30
Transportation is a predisposing factor of respiratory pasteurellosis of calves
True
31
Respiratory pasteurellosis occurs only among cattle above 6 months of age
False
32
Germinative infection is a frequent way of transmission of the agent of fowl
cholera
False
33
Fowl cholera cannot be prevented by vaccination
False
34
Brucella ovis mainly causes abortion, clinical signs in males are rare
False
35
The clinical signs of anatipestifer disease are more severe in hens than in ducks
False
36
Glässer’s disease is caused by Actinobacillus suis
False
37
Ataxia and spasms are common clinical signs of anatipestifer disease
True
38
Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae generally causes septicaemia
False
39
Infected cattle carry brucellae lifelong
True
40
Brucella melitensis can cause abortion of cattle
True
41
Tularaemia is a zoonosis.
True
42
Brucella canis can infect dogs.
True
43
Brucella suis can infect dogs
True
44
Brucella melitensis can infect dogs
True
45
Cattle cannot infect humans with brucellae
False
46
Glanders occurs only in horses
False
47
Bordetella bronchiseptica can complicate calicivirus infection of cats
True
48
Avian bordetellosis is generally limited to the respiratory tract, bacteriaemia is rare
True
49
Bartonella henselae can cause severe, generalised disease in cats
False
50
Ulcers in the skin are frequent clinical signs of glanders
True
51
Glanders is mainly an acute disease in horses
False
52
Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is caused by Moraxella bovis
True
53
Orchitis and epididymitis are clinical signs of bovine genital campylobacteriosis
False
54
Melioidosis is caused by Burkholderia pseudomallei
True
55
Lyme borreliosis is a zoonosis
True
56
Lawsonia intracellularis causes proliferative enteropathies in pigs
True
57
Rabbit syphilis is caused by Treponema paraluiscunniculi
True
58
Campylobacter fetus subsp. venerealis is a zoonotic agent
False
59
Introduction of young ewes in their first pregnancy into the flock of old pregnant
ewes can predispose to campylobacteriosis
True
60
Diarrhoea is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
False
61
Pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign of bovine leptospirosis
False
62
Clinical signs of the central nervous system can be seen in the case of leptospirosis
of young dogs
True
63
Inactivated vaccines are widely used for the prevention of swine dysentery
False
64
Leptospira Icterohaemorrhagiae can cause acute disease of young dogs
True
65
Mucous in the faeces is typical in the case of swine dysentery
True
66
Leptospira Pomona can cause abortion in pigs
True
67
Contagious agalactia of sheep and goats is caused by Mycoplasma agalactiae
True
68
Chlamydia pecorum can cause arthritis in cattle
True
69
Severe pneumonia is a postmortem lesion of Potomac horse fever
False
70
Canine monocytic ehrlichiosis is mainly seen in warmer climate
True
71
Contagious caprine pleuropneumonia is caused by Mycoplasma caprae
False
72
Chlamydia felis causes mainly abortion of cats
False
73
Leptospirosis is a zoonosis
True
74
In the case of marker vaccines, the field strains and the vaccine
strains can be differentiated
True
75
Euryxen agents have a wide host range
true
76
In the case of latent infection, the agents are continuously shed
False
77
The normal microflora of the gut is essential for animals; they
cannot live without it
False
78
Stenoxen agents have a wide host range
False
79
Germinative infection is very frequent in mammals
False
80
PCR is used for the detection of antibodies against porcine
parvovirus 1
False
81
Maternal antibodies against cat parvovirus can protect till 4 months age
True
82
SMEDI is caused by goose circovirus
False
83
The PMWS is a type IV hypersensitivity
False
84
The porcine circovirus can replicate in the foetus
True
85
In pigs the porcine circovirus 1 can cause PMWS
False
86
Herpesviruses can cause latent, persisting infections
True
87
Adenoviruses may cause urolithiasis in sheep
True
88
Polyomavirus infects parrots
True
89
Canine adenovirus 2 can cause upper respiratory tract
inflammation
True
90
The primary replication of haemorrhagic nephritis enteritis virus is
in small intestine
True
91
Adenoviruses can cause purulent bronchoalveolar pneumonia in
calves and lambs
False
92
The Aujeszky’s disease in cats is usually a mild respiratory disease
with quick recovery
False
93
For immunisation against equine rhinopneumonitis virus mostly
marker vaccines are used
False
94
Turkey herpesvirus can be used for vaccination against Marek’s
disease
True
95
The Marek’s disease virus causes immunosuppression
True
96
Swine pox is frequently generalized in adult pigs
False
97
Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of lumpy
skin disease virus
True
98
Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of sheeppox
virus.
False
99
Arthropods play an important role in the transmission of fowlpox
virus.
True
100
The African swine fever virus causes hemadsorption in cell cultures
True
101
Calves should be vaccinated against bovine papular stomatitis
False
102
The pseudocowpox virus is a zoonotic agent
True
103
Fowlpox is eradicated from most of the European countries
False
104
Pigs are infected with swine vesicular disease virus per os
True
105
Teschovirus is resistant, it remains infective in the faeces for a few weeks
True
106
Teschen disease occurs in cattle, sheep and pigs
False
107
Asymptomatic animals can carry Teschovirus
True
108
In acute African swine fever cases we can observe high mortality in
sows.
True
109
The foot and mouth disease virus is classified into 7 serotypes
True
110
Haemorrhages are frequent postmortem lesions of avian
encephalomyelitis.
False
111
Birds serve as reservoirs for the Eastern equine encephalomyelitis
virus.
True
112
RHD virus can be propagated in cell culture
False
113
Orbiviruses spread by droplet (aerosol) infection
False
114
Clinical signs of avian nephritis can be seen in the rst four weeks
of life
True
115
There are several virulence variants of bursitis virus
True
116
Orthoreoviruses frequently cause tenosynovitis of horses
False
117
Bluetongue virus is also foetopathic.
True
118
The border disease is present only in the United Kingdom
False
119
Goats are not susceptible to bluetongue virus
False
120
Horse encephalosis occurs only in America
False
121
Bluetongue disease occurs only in Africa
False
122
Bunyaviruses cause oral infection
False
123
Classical swine fever can cause transplacental infection
True
124
During necropsy of acute Classical swine fever cases,
haemorrhages can be seen in the gastric mucosa
True
125
All bunyaviruses are transmitted by mosquitoes
False
126
Classical swine fever infection results in thrombocytopaenia
True
127
Antigenic shift is behind the influenza pandemics
True
128
Classical swine fever virus can retain its infectivity for 6 months in frozen meat.
True
129
Newcastle disease is a notifiable disease
True
130
The virulence of avian influenza is determined by the i.v. pathogeny index and mortality
True
131
Paramyxoviruses cannot cause strong cytopathogenic effect in cell cultures
False
132
Antigenic drift means serials of point mutations in the HA and NA
genes
True
133
Bovine parainfluenza-3 virus infection is usually endemic in cattle farms
True
134
Natural reservoir of Hendra virus is flying fox
True
135
Lentogenic Newcastle disease virus cause severe fatal infection
False
136
The PRRS is caused by a coronavirus
False
137
Cats can beare regularly vaccinated against feline coronavirus
False
138
Vesicular stomatitis virus is transmitted by blood sucking
arthropods and direct contact
True
139
Foxes maintain sylvatic rabies in Europe
True
140
The porcine epidemic diarrhoea virus causes disease in calf
False
141
Vesicular stomatitis is a zoonotic disease
True
142
Vaccine against Equine Viral Arteritis is never used in Europe
False
143
There are no vaccines for the prevention of feline leukosi
False
144
Proventricular dilatation disease is a zoonosis
False
145
Equine infectious anaemia virus is transmitted with blood of the
infected animals.
True
146
Enzootic bovine leukosis virus can spread from cattle to sheep,
goats and other ruminants
False
147
Avian leukosis viruses have several subgroups
True
148
Avian leukosis virus can cause only lymphoid leukosis
False
149
Proventricular dilatation disease can occur in parrots
True
150
Bacillary haemoglobinuria is caused by Clostridium haemolyticum
True
151
Liver flukes can predispose animals to infectious necrotic hepatitis.
True
152
Pulpy kidney disease generally occurs in 1-2-week-old lambs
False
153
Pulpy kidney disease is caused by Clostridium perfringens D
True
154
In the case of transmissible encephalopathies lesions can only be seen in the central nervous system
True
155
Anaculture or anatoxin vaccines are used for the prevention of
blackleg
True
156
In the case of transmissible encephalopathies always degenerative
lesions can be seen
True
157
Morel’s disease occurs mainly in cattle, small ruminants and pigs
False
158
The agent of tetanus is strictly aerobic
False
159
Sheep are generally infected with the agent of swine erysipelas per
os.
False
160
Streptococcosis of pigs is caused by Streptococcus hyicus
False
161
Clinical signs of porcine streptococcosis can mainly be seen in piglets
True
162
In the case chronic erysipelas pneumonia is a frequent clinical sign
False
163
Diamond skin disease is a clinical form of erysipela
True
164
Paratuberculosis is caused by Mycobacterium avium subsp.
paratuberculosis
True
165
The agent of avian tuberculosis infects animals generally per os.
True
166
Infected cattle shed the agents of bovine tuberculosis in tracheal
discharge.
True
167
Only aerosol infection occurs in the case of bovine tuberculosis
False
168
Caseous lymphadenitis of sheep occurs in tropical countries but
not in Europe
False
169
Clinical signs of caseous lymphadenitis of sheep can be seen only above 3-4 months of age
True
170
The tuberculin test is used for the detection of infection of animals
with mycobacteria
True
171
Dermatophilosis occurs mainly in moderate climate, especially in
winter
False
172
Septicaemic Escherichia coli strains are responsible for E. coli
diseases of poultry
True
173
Coli diarrhoea of new-born piglets is caused by mbriated
Escherichia coli strains
True
174
Coli septicaemia of calves is seen most frequently after weaning
False
175
Mastitis is a common clinical sign of bovine nocardiosis
True
176
Dermatophilus congolensis is the agent of dermatophilosis
True
177
Actinomyces bovis is the causative agent of bovine actinomycosis
True
178
Salmonella Avium is the main aetiological agent of fowl
paratyphoid
False
179
Humans are infected with salmonellae mainly per os
True
180
All serotypes of salmonellae can cause salmonellosis in humans
False
