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MHARS EXAM > POST TEST > Flashcards

POST TEST Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The hormone responsible for increasing the production of RBC is

A.)Stimulin
B.) rubriblastin
C.) leukopoietin
D.) erythropoietin
E.) thrombopoietin

A

D.) erythropoietin

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2
Q
  1. The total blood volume of an adult is about

A.) 1 liter
B.) 2liters
C.) 6liters
D.) 12liters
E.) 14liters

A

C.) 6liters

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3
Q
  1. Howel-jolly bodies are composed of

A.) DNA
B.) RNA
C.) Iron
D.) mitochondria
E.) endoplasmic reticulum

A

A.) DNA

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4
Q
  1. Which of the following red cell inclusions are characteristically found in the lead
    poisoning?

A.) Basophilic Stippling
B.) toxic granulation
C.) Heinz bodies
D.) Howel-Jolly bodies
E.) pappenheimer bodies

A

A.) Basophilic Stippling

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5
Q
  1. The cell movement across the cellular membranes from the blood vessels to the
    tissues is called

A.) Diapedesis
B.) Endocytosis
C.) Margination
D.) chemotaxis
E.) phagocytosis

A

A.) Diapedesis

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6
Q
  1. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coagulation procedure

A.) EDTA
B.) Glass beads
C.) heparin
D.) Sodium citrate
E.) Sodium oxalate

A

D.) Sodium citrate

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7
Q
  1. Abnormal prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time may be
    caused by deficiency of

A.) factor VII
B.) factor VIII
C.) factor X
D.) factor XI
E.) XII

A

A.) factor VII

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8
Q
  1. In a reticulocyte count, 950 red cell and 14 reticulocytes are counted. What is the
    retic count?

A.) 0.15%
B.) 1.3%
C.) 1.5%
D.) 13.3%
E.) 15%

A

C.) 1.5%

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9
Q
  1. An average adult hemoglobin is

A.) 9-12 g/dl
B.) 10-11g/dl
C.) 12-16g/dl
D.) 15-20g/dl
E.) 20-26g/dl

A

C.) 12-16g/dl

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10
Q
  1. The normal percentage of Segmenters in a healthy individual is

A.) 25-35%
B.) 55-65%
C.) 2-4%
D.) 1-2%
E.) 0-0.5%

A

B.) 55-65%

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11
Q

11.Which of the following refers to the correctness of a measurement or closeness with which the measurement comes to the true value?

a. Precision
b. Sensitivity
c. Accuracy
d. Specificity
e. Reliability

A

c. Accuracy

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12
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the ability of an analytical procedure to measure
    small amount of a component?

A. Accuracy
B. Sensitivity
C. Reliability
D. Precision
E. Specificity

A

B. Sensitivity

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13
Q
  1. The best method in determining the presence of drugs in serum and urine is

A. Gas-chromatography-mass Spectrophotometry (GC-MS)
B. Atomic Absorption Spectrophotometry
C. High pressure liquid chromatography(HPLC)
D. Thin layer chromatography(TLC)

A

A. Gas-chromatography-mass Spectrophotometry (GC-MS)

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered as good Cholesterol?

A. LDL
B. HDL
C. VLDL
D. Chylocmicrons
E. Sphingilipids

A

B. HDL

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15
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to determine the state of glycemia in diabetic patient
    over the preceding 8-12 weeks?

A. Fasting Blood Glucose
B. Random Blood Glucose
C. Glycosylated Hgb(HbA1c)
D. Serum Fructosamine
E. None of the Above

A

C. Glycosylated Hgb(HbA1c)

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following plasma proteins binds to hemoglobin?

A.Haptoglobin
B. Albumin
C. C3
D. Fibrinogen
E. None of the Above

A

A.Haptoglobin

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17
Q
  1. Which of the following isoenzymes of the creatinine kinase is more specific in the
    diagnosis of acute myocardial infarction?

A.) CK1 or BB
B.) CK2 or MB
C.) CK3 or MM
D.) A & D
E.) B & C

A

B.) CK2 or MB

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18
Q
  1. The primary storage form of iron is?

A. Apotransferrin
B. Transferrin
C. Ferritin
D. Hemosiderin
E. Myoglobin

A

C. Ferritin

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19
Q
  1. The presence of slight visible hemolysis can significantly increase the serum level
    of

A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Chloride
D. Bicarbonate
E. Calcium

A

B. Potassium

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20
Q
  1. The Jaffe reaction is the basis form most commonly performed method for the
    quantitation of

A. Urea
B. Uric Acid
C. Ammonia
D. Creatinine
E Protein

A

D. Creatinine

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21
Q
  1. Quantitative urine examinations are performed on

A. First Morning Specimen
B. Timed Specimen
C. Suprapubic Specimen
D. Midstream Specimen

A

B. Timed Specimen

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22
Q
  1. Urine from patient with polyuria has high specific gravity, this is common in

A. Urinary Tract Infection
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Uremia

A

B. Diabetes mellitus

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23
Q
  1. Patient taking diuretic can be expected to have

A. Proteinuria
B. Polyuria
C. Pyuria
D. Oliguria

A

B. Polyuria

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24
Q
  1. The normal yellow of urine is produced by

A. Bilirubin
B. Urobilinogen
C. Urochrome
D. Hemoglobin

A

C. Urochrome

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25
Q
  1. An increase in urinary WBC is called

A. Cystitis
B. Urethritis
C. Pyuria
D. Pyelonephritis

A

C. Pyuria

26
Q
  1. The specimen of choice for bacterial culture is

A. First morning
B. 24 hours specimen
C. Random
D. Catheterized

A

D. Catheterized

27
Q
  1. Stools from persons with Steatorrhea will contain excess amount of

A. Fat
B. Mucus
C. Blood
D. Barium Sulfate

A

A. Fat

28
Q
  1. The normal brown color of feces is due to

A. Undigested foodstuffs
B. Urobilin
C. Pancreatic Enzyme
D. Cellulose

A

B. Urobilin

29
Q
  1. A yellow discoloration of a spinal fluid is called

A. Juandice
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Bilirubin
D. Xanthochromia

A

D. Xanthochromia

30
Q
  1. The level at which glucose appears in urine called

A. Tolerance level
B. Filtration rate
C. Renal threshold
D. Secretion constant

A

C. Renal threshold

31
Q
  1. Which of the following has a “falling leaf” movement?

A. Trichomonas vaginalis
B. Giardia
C. Chilomastix mesnili
D. Trypanosoma

A

B. Giardia

32
Q
  1. The finding of ingested red blood cell in the cytoplasm of a trophozoite is
    presumptive evidence that the organism is

A. Dientamoeba fragilis
B. Trichomonas Vaginalis
C. Giardia lamblia
D. Entamoeba histolytica

A

D. Entamoeba histolytica

33
Q
  1. Which of the following cestodes can cause megaloblastic anemia?

A. Diphyllobothrium latum
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia saginata
D. Hymenolypsis nana

A

A. Diphyllobothrium latum

34
Q
  1. Which of the following hookworms can cause hyphochromic microcytic anemia?

A. Necator americanus
B. Ancylostoma duodenale
C. All of the above
D. None of the above

A

C. All of the above

35
Q
  1. Scotch tape perianal swab technique is used for this parasite

A. Pinworm
B. Threadworm
C. Whipworm
D. Capillaria

A

A. Pinworm

36
Q
  1. Ingestion of half cooked pork is common cause for infection with this parasite

A. Taenia saginata
B. Trichuris trichiura
C. Trichenella spiralis
D. Pagaonimus westermani

A

C. Trichenella spiralis

37
Q
  1. Which of the following is the Chinese liver fluke?

Loa Loa
A. Schistosoma mansonii
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Heterophytes heterophyes
D. Onchocerca volvulus

A

B. Clonorchis sinensis

38
Q
  1. Ground itch is referred to dermatitis which cause by

A. Necator americanus
B. Ascares lumbricoides
C. Enterobius vermicularis
D. None of the above

A

A. Necator americanus

39
Q
  1. The infective stage of Ascaris lumbricoides is the

A. Mature ova
B. Rhabditiform larva
C. Filariform larva
D. Adult worm

A

C. Filariform larva

40
Q
  1. Which of the following ova is usually found in sputum

A. Schistosoma japonicum
B. Clonorchis sinensis
C. Paragonimus westermani
D. Fasciola hepatica

A

C. Paragonimus westermani

41
Q
  1. IgE is produced by?

A. Basophils
B. Plasma cells
C. T-Lymphocytes
D. Eosinophils
E. Mast cells

A

B. Plasma cells

42
Q
  1. In a typical compliment fixation test, complement is bound to

A. Free hemolysin
B. Erythrocytes
C. Antigen-antibody complex
D. Free antigen
E. Free antibodies

A

C. Antigen-antibody complex

43
Q
  1. Which of the following is found in the milk of lactating mother?

A. IgA
B. IgM
C. IgG
D. IgD
E. IgE

A

A. IgA

44
Q
  1. For a substance to be antigenic, it must

A.) be recognized as non self
B.) be less than 5000 molecular weight
C.) be a linear molecule
D.) be a lipid
E.) all of the above

A

A.) be recognized as non self

45
Q
  1. All immunoglobulins have the same basic structures which consists of

A. 4 heavy chains
B. 4 light chains
C. 4 heavy chins & 4 light chains
D. 2 light chains & 2 heavy chains
E. 2 heavy chains & 4light chains

A

D. 2 light chains & 2 heavy chains

46
Q
  1. The VDRL test for Syphilis is classified as

A. Agglutination reaction
B. Hemagglutination reaction
C. Flocculation reaction
D. Precipitation reaction
E. Hemolysis reaction

A

C. Flocculation reaction

47
Q
  1. The types of immunity that follows injection of an antigen is

A. Adaptive
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Innate
E. Complimentary

A

B. Active

48
Q
  1. The type of immunity that follows injection of antibodies synthesized by another
    individual or animal is

A. Adaptive
B. Active
C. Passive
D. Innate
E. Complimentary

A

C. Passive

49
Q
  1. Antibodies arise from

A. Monocytes
B. Plasma cells
C. Metarubricytes D. Promyelocytes
E. Red cells

A

B. Plasma cells

50
Q
  1. The first immunoglobulin is produced after exposure to an antigen is

A. IgA
B. IgG
C. IgM
D. IgE
E. IgD

A

C. IgM

51
Q
  1. The primary stain used in Gram’s staining is

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

C. Crystal Violet

52
Q
  1. The counterstain used in AFB staining

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

B. Methylene Blue

53
Q
  1. The primary stain used in AFB staining is

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

A. Carbofuchsin

54
Q
  1. The counterstain used in Gram’s staining

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

D. Safranin

55
Q
  1. A test that separates Staphylococcus from Streptococcus

A. Coagulase test
B. Catalase test
C. Optochin test
D. Bacitrcin test

A

B. Catalase test

56
Q
  1. A test that separates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species

A. Coagulase test
B. Catalase test
C. Optochin test
D. Bacitracin test

A

A. Coagulase test

57
Q
  1. A presumptive test used for identifying Group A Streptococcus or Strep. Pyogenes

A. CAMP’s Test
B. Optochin test
C. Bacitracin test
D. Coagulase test

A

C. Bacitracin test

58
Q
  1. A presumptive test used for identifying Streptococcus pneumonia

A. CAMP’s Test
B. Optochin Test
C. Bacitracin Test
D. Coagulase Test

A

B. Optochin Test

59
Q
  1. A presumptive test used for identifying Staphylococcus aureus

A. CAMP’s Test
B. Optochin Test
C. Bacitracin Test
D. Coagulase Test

A

D. Coagulase Test

60
Q
  1. A positive color for citrate test

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Purple
D. Pink

A

B. Blue

MHARS EXAM (9 decks)

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