CLIN MICROSCOPY Flashcards
- Quantitative urine exams are performed on
a. First morning specimens
b. Timed specimens
c. Suprapubic aspiration
d. Midstream specimens
b. Timed specimens
- The preservative of choice for urinary sediments are
a. Boric acid and thymol
b. Formalin and sodium fluoride
c. Toluene and freezing
d. Chloroform and freezing
a. Boric acid and thymol
- A person exhibiting oliguria would have a urine volume of
a. 200-600 ml
b. 600-1000 ml
c. 1000-1500 ml
d. Over 1500 ml
a. 200-600 ml
- Urine from patient with polyuria has high specific gravity. This is common in
a. Urinary tract infection
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Diabetes insipidus
d. Uremia
b. Diabetes mellitus
- Patient taking diuretics can be expected to have
a. Proteinnuria
b. Polyuria
c. Pyuria
d. Oliguria
b. Polyuria
- The PAH test can be used as a measure of
a. Renal concentration
b. Renal secretion
c. Renal urine flow
d. Glomerular filtration
b. Renal secretion
- A fixed specific gravity of 1.010 and isothenuric urine osmolality of 285 osm/kg
indicate
a. Post streptococcal glomerulonephritis
b. Acute glomerulonephritis
c. Acute pyelonephritis
d. Renal failure
e. None of the above
d. Renal failure
- The detection of oligoclonal banding in the CSF using electrophoresis is
significant in
a. Multiple sclerosis
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Reye’s syndrome
d. Myasthenia gravis
a. Multiple sclerosis
- A prink precipitate that is found in acid urine and that redissolves on heating
idicates the presence of
a. Fat globules
b. Abundant rbc’s
c. Amorphous carbonates
d. Amorphous urates
d. Amorphous urates
- An amniotic fluid sample should be protected from light to prevent
a. Carotene reductioin
b. Bilirubin degradation
c. Premature floating
d. Meconium degredation
b. Bilirubin degradation
- The best indicator of fetal lung maturity done on amniotic fluid is
a. Presence of phosphatidyl glycerol
b. Creatine greater that 2mg/100ml
c. Lecithin/sphingomyeline(L/S) ratio of less than 2.0
d. LS ratio of greater than2 and presence of Phosphatidylglycerol
d. LS ratio of greater than2 and presence of Phosphatidylglycerol
- Transudate pleural fluid is present in patient with
a. Congestive heart failure
b. Tuberculosis
c. Empyema
d. Lung carcinoma
a. Congestive heart failure
- A specimen with strong ammonia odor and heavy white precipitate when it
arrives in the laboratory may require
a. Collection of fresh specimen
b. Centrifugation
c. Dilution for specific gravity
d. Testing under a hood
a. Collection of fresh specimen
- A cloudy amber urine with microscopic report as rare wbc and epithelial cell
indicates
a. A urinary tract infection
b. A dilute random specimen
c. Precipitated amorphous urates
d. Possible mix of specimen and sediments
d. Possible mix of specimen and sediments
- The yellow color of urine is
produced by
a. Bilirubin
b. Urobilinogen
c. Urochrome
d. hemoglobin
c. Urochrome
- Refractometer are calibrated using
a. Distilled water and protein
b. Distilled water and sodium chloride
c. Distilled water and urea
d. distilled water and blood
b. Distilled water and sodium chloride
- A urine that turns black after standing may contain
a. Melanin
b. Homogentisic acid
c. Methemoglobin
d. All of the above
d. All of the above
- The following will exhibit maltese cross formation under polarized light except
a. Pollen grain
b. Starch granules
c. Fatty cast
d. Oval fat bodies
a. Pollen grain
- Urine crystals that look like a “dumbbell” is
a. Triplephospate
b. Ammonium biurate
c. Calcium oxalate
d. Calcium carbonate
d. Calcium carbonate
- An increase in urinary wbc is called
a. Cystitis
b. Urethritis
c. Pyuria
d. pyelonephritis
c. Pyuria
- The matrix of urinary cast consist of
a. Filtered protein
b. Fatty deposits
c. Tamm-Horsefall protein
d. pyelonephritis
c. Tamm-Horsefall protein
- Gram stains performed on CSF specimens are important in
a. Diagnosis of tubercular meningitis
b. Diagnosis of bacterial meningitis
c. Detection of viral meningitis
d. Detection of bacterial and fungal meningitis
d. Detection of bacterial and fungal meningitis
- The specimen of choice for
bacterial culture is
a. First morning
b. 24 hours
c. Random
d. catheterized
d. catheterized
- The normal sperm count is
a. 140-200 million per microliter
b. 50-100 million per ml
c. 20-160 million per ml
d. 50-100 million per microliter
c. 20-160 million per ml
- Semen specimens should be analyzed
a. Immediately upon receipt
b. Prior to liquefaction
c. After liquefaction
d. One hour after collection
c. After liquefaction
- Crystals found in synovial fluid during attacks of gout are
a. Monosodium urate
b. Calcium pyrophosphate
c. Cholesterol
d. apatite
a. Monosodium urate
- Stool from persons with steatorrhea will contain excess amount of
a. Fat
b. Mucus
c. Blood
d. Barium sulfate
a. Fat
- The normal brown color of feces is due to
a. Undigested foodstuffs
b. Urobilin
c. Pancreatic enzyme
d. Cellusose
b. Urobilin
- Gum guaiac id preferred over orthotoluidine for occult blood in “mass”
screening because
a. There is less interference from dietary hemoglobin
b. Orthotolodine is less sensitive
c. Gum guaiac reacts equally with formed and watery stool
d. Filter paper is more easitly impregnated with gum guaiac
a. There is less interference from dietary hemoglobin
30.Neutral fats can be detected by mixing the stool specimen with
a. Sudan III
b. Gum guaiac
c. Orthotolidine
d. Glacial acetic acid
a. Sudan III
- Sperm motility after 3 hours should be at least
a. 60%
b. 70%
c. 80%
d. 90%
a. 60%
- A yellow discoloration of spinal fluid is called
a. Jaundice
b. Hemoglobinuria
c. Bilirubin
d. xanthochromia
d. xanthochromia
33.A positive sodium nitroprusside reaction is associated with
a. Glomerular damage
b. Abnormal fat metabolism
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Orthostatic proteinuria
b. Abnormal fat metabolism
- Reagent strip tests for ketones reacts most strongly with
a. acetone
b. Acetoacetic acid
c. Phenyl ketones
d. Beta-hydroxybutyric acid
b. Acetoacetic acid
- Urinary cast that are referred as renal failure cast are
a. Bacterial cast
b. Rbc cast
c. Broad cast
d. Wbc cast
c. Broad cast
- Specimens from patients with fungal meningitis should be tested for
a. gram stain, acid fast stain, india ink
b. Gram stain and india ink
c. India ink
d. Acid fast and india ink
b. Gram stain and india ink
- CSF specimen is considered “traumatic tap” when there is
a. Presence of uneven distribution of blood
b. Clot formation
c. All of the above
d. None of the above
c. All of the above
- The most common urinary calculi consist of
a. Magnesium ammonium ohosphate
b. Calcium oxalate
c. Uric acid
d. cholesterol
b. Calcium oxalate
- The major component of gallstone is
a. Fatty acids
b. Bile pigments
c. Uric acids
d. cholesterol
d. cholesterol
- Red cells appear small and crenated if urine is
a. Acid
b. Alkaline
c. Hypertonic
d. hypotonic
c. Hypertonic
- The preferred stimulant of gastric acidity for routine analysis is
a. Histamine
b. histalog
c. pentagastrin
d. Insulin
c. pentagastrin
- The major constituents of gastric secretions are hydrochloric acid and
a. Mucus
b. Bile
c. Salive
d. pepsin
d. pepsin
- The gastric stimulant used to determine successful vagotomy procedure is
a. Insulin
b. Pepsin
c. Histamine
d. pentagastrin
a. Insulin
- The inability to produce gastric acidity and a pH less than 6.0 is called
a. Achlorhydia
b. Hypochlorhydia
c. Anacidity
d. hypoacidity
c. Anacidity
- Bence-Jones protein is
a. An abnormal protein associated with urinary tract infection
b. Associated with hemolysis
c. Associated with Multiple Myeloma
d. A normal serum protein
c. Associated with Multiple Myeloma
- Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on
a. Peroxidase activity of hemoglobin
b. Oxidation of hemoglobin peroxidase
c. Reaction of hemoglobin with bromthymol blue
d. All of the above
a. Peroxidase activity of hemoglobin
- Automated reagent strip readers measure
a. pH
b. Reflectance
c. Moisture
d. temperature
b. Reflectance
- The principle of reagent strip reaction for protein is
a. Double indicator reaction
b. Protein error of indicator reaction
c. Interference indicator of ascorbic acid rection
d. Quarternary ammonium compuond reaction
b. Protein error of indicator reaction
- The blood level at which glucose appears in urine is called
a. Tolerance level
b. Filtratin rate
c. Renal threshold
d. Secretion constant
c. Renal threshold
- In the ropes or mucin clot test, normal synovial fluid
a. Forms a solid clot with glacial acetic acid
b. Forms solid clot with hyaluronidase
c. Forms a friable clot with hydrochloric acid
d. None of the above
a. Forms a solid clot with glacial acetic acid
P1. Quantitative urine examinations are performed on
A. First Morning Specimen
B. Timed Specimen
C. Suprapubic Specimen
D. Midstream Specimen
B. Timed Specimen
P2. Urine from patient with polyuria has high specific gravity, this is common in
A. Urinary Tract Infection
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Diabetes insipidus
D. Uremia
B. Diabetes mellitus
P3. Patient taking diuretic can be expected to have
A. Proteinuria
B. Polyuria
C. Pyuria
D. Oliguria
B. Polyuria
P4. The normal yellow of urine is produced by
A. Bilirubin
B. Urobilinogen
C. Urochrome
D. Hemoglobin
C. Urochrome
P5. An increase in urinary WBC is called
A. Cystitis
B. Urethritis
C. Pyuria
D. Pyelonephritis
C. Pyuria
P6. The specimen of choice for bacterial culture is
A. First morning
B. 24 hours specimen
C. Random
D. Catheterized
D. Catheterized
P7. Stools from persons with Steatorrhea will contain excess amount of
A. Fat
B. Mucus
C. Blood
D. Barium Sulfate
A. Fat
P8. The normal brown color of feces is due to
A. Undigested foodstuffs
B. Urobilin
C. Pancreatic Enzyme
D. Cellulose
B. Urobilin
P9. A yellow discoloration of a spinal fluid is called
A. Juandice
B. Hemoglobinuria
C. Bilirubin
D. Xanthochromia
D. Xanthochromia
P10. The level at which glucose appears in urine called
A. Tolerance level
B. Filtration rate
C. Renal threshold
D. Secretion constant
C. Renal threshold
