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MHARS EXAM > HEMATOLOGY > Flashcards

HEMATOLOGY Flashcards

1
Q
  1. A monoclonal gammopathy caused by a proliferation of plasma cells would most likely be.

a. AIDS
b. Primary hypogammaglobulinemia
c. Gamma heavy chain disease
d. Multiple myeloma
e. None of the above

A

d. Multiple myeloma

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2
Q
  1. Granulocytes normally found in peripheral blood smear include all the following
    except

a. Basophils
b. Lymphocyte
c. Eosinophils
d. Band neutropil
e. None of the above

A

a. Basophils

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3
Q
  1. All of the following laboratory characteristics are common to both cytomegalovirus and Toxoplasmosis infections except

a. Lymphocytosis
b. Atypical lymphocytes
c. Negative monospot test
d. Positive DAT
e. None of the above

A

a. Lymphocytosis

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4
Q
  1. Bone marrow hypoplasia may be caused by all of the following except

a. Chemotherapeutic agents
b. Fanconi’s anemia
c. Aplastic anemia
d. Chronic hemorrhage
e. None of the above

A

d. Chronic hemorrhage

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5
Q
  1. Pernicious anemia is a megaloblastic anemia with which one of the following
    causes

a. Folate deficiency
b. Alcoholism
c. Vit B12 deficiency due to autoimmune interference of intrinsic factor
d. Vit. B12 defeciency due to intestinal infection by D. latum

A

c. Vit B12 deficiency due to autoimmune interference of intrinsic factor

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6
Q
  1. When interpreting a white blood cell differential, a shift to the left indicates which one of the following actions?

a. A decrease in hemoglobin oxygen affinity
b. An increase in percentage of band neutrophils and other immature mycloid forms
c. An increase in percentage of lymphocytes that is higher than the percent of
segmented neutrophils.
d. An increase in the number of hypersegmented neutrophils

A

a. A decrease in hemoglobin oxygen affinity

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7
Q
  1. Which on of the following blood cells is not produced in the bone marrow in the normal adult?

a. Eosinophil
b. Basophil
c. Neutrophil
d. Monocyte
e. lymphocyte

A

e. lymphocyte

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8
Q
  1. The normal ratio of myeloid to erythroid precursors in bone marrow is about

a. 1:5
b. 1:2
c. 1:1
d. 4:1
e. 10:1

A

d. 4:1

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9
Q
  1. The hormone responsible for increasing the production of RBC is

a. Stimulin
b. Rubriblastin
c. Leukopoictin
d. Erythropoietin
e. thrombopoietin

A

d. Erythropoietin

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10
Q
  1. What percentage of bone cavities in the adult are filled by fatty tissue?

a. 5%
b. 10%
c. 25%
d. 50%
e. 75%

A

d. 50%

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11
Q
  1. The total blood volume in an adult is about

a. 1 liter
b. 2 liters
c. 6 liters
d. 12 liters
e. 14 liters

A

c. 6 liters

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12
Q
  1. Extramedullary hematopoiesis is most often seen in patients with

a. Viral and fungal infection
b. Iron deficiency
c. AIDS
d. Lymphoproliferative disease
e. Severe hemolytic anemia

A

e. Severe hemolytic anemia

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13
Q
  1. Howel-jolly bodies are composed of

a. DNA
b. RNA
c. Iron
d. Mitochondria
e. Endoplasmic reticulum

A

a. DNA

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14
Q
  1. When schistocytes are reported in a peripheral blood smear (PBS), you would expect to see

a. Red cell fragments
b. Red cell with blunt projections
c. Red cell with sharp projection
d. Red cell with intracellular rod shaped crystals
e. A red cell population with 2 distinct cell types

A

a. Red cell fragments

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15
Q
  1. Hemoglobin Bart’s is composed of

a. 4 alpha chains
b. 4 beta chains
c. 4 gamma chains
d. 2 alpha, 2 beta chains
e. 2 alpha, 2 gamma chains

A

c. 4 gamma chains

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16
Q
  1. Which of the following red cell inclusions are characteristically found in lead
    poisoning?

a. Basophilic stippling
b. Toxic granulation
c. Heinz bodies
d. Howell-Jolly bodies
e. Pappnheimer bodies

A

a. Basophilic stippling

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17
Q
  1. Rouleaux of RBC when seen in the monolayer of a differential smear is
    characteristics of

a. Myeloma
b. Myelofibrosis
c. Megaloblastic
d. Acute myelogenous leukemia
e. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

a. Myeloma

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is associated with a “shift to the left” in the oxygen
    dissociation curve?

a. Decreased pH
b. Increased temperature
c. Decreased oxygen affinity
d. Decreased oxygen delivery
e. Presence of 2,3 DPG

A

d. Decreased oxygen delivery

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19
Q
  1. Acanthocytes (spur cells) are associated with

a. Severe burn
b. Abetalipoproteinemia
c. Hemoglubinopathhies
d. Thalassemia
e. Microangiopthic destruction

A

b. Abetalipoproteinemia

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20
Q
  1. Which of the following diseases results from decrease globin chain synthesis

a. Thalassemia
b. Pernicious anemia
c. Hereditary spherocytosis
d. Heinz body anemia
e. porphyria

A

a. Thalassemia

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following anemias is characterized by microcytic, hypochromic
    red cells?

a. Pernicious anemia
b. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
c. Hemoglobin C disease
d. Beta Thalassemia
e. Aplastic anemia

A

d. Beta Thalassemia

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22
Q
  1. Metamyelocytes are characterized by

a. Appearance of specific granules
b. Indentation of nucleus
c. Segmentation of nucleus
d. Absence of nucleoli
e. Color of cytoplasm

A

b. Indentation of nucleus

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23
Q
  1. Eosinophils are increased in all of the following except

a. Cushing’s disease
b. Allergic disorder
c. Skin disorder
d. Parasitism
e. Hodgkin’s disease

A

a. Cushing’s disease

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24
Q
  1. The cell movement across the cellular membranes from the blood vessels to
    the tissues is called

a. Diapedesis
b. Endocytosis
c. Margination
d. Chemotaxis
e. phagocytosis

A

a. Diapedesis

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25
Q
  1. Terminal deoxyribonucleotidyl transferase (TdT) is found on cells in

a. Acute lymphogeneous leukemia (ALL)
b. Chronic lymphogeneous leukemia (CLL)
c. Acute mylogeneous leukemia(AML)
d. Chronic myelogenous leukemia(CML)
e. Acute erythroblastic leukemia (AEL)

A

a. Acute lymphogeneous leukemia (ALL)

26
Q
  1. Myelofibrosis is characterized by

a. Ovalocytes
b. Schistocytes
c. Target cells
d. Tear drop shaped cells
e. Auer rods

A

d. Tear drop shaped cells

27
Q
  1. Sudan black stains

a. Glycogen
b. Lipids
c. Myeloperoxidase
d. Acid phosphatase
e. Alkaline phosphatase

A

b. Lipids

28
Q
  1. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coagulation procedure is

a. EDTA
b. Glass beads
c. Heparin
d. Sodium citrate
e. Sodium oxalate

A

d. Sodium citrate

29
Q
  1. Heparin mediates it anticoagulant activity by

a. Chelating calcium ions
b. Proteolytically degrading thrombi
c. Preventing activation of prothrombin
d. Antagonizing vitamin K role in factor synthesis
e. Enhancing inhibitory effects of antithrombin III

A

e. Enhancing inhibitory effects of antithrombin III

30
Q
  1. For the performance of manual platelet count , the recommended type of
    microscopy is

a. Electron
b. Dark field
c. Laser
d. Light
e. phase

A

e. phase

31
Q
  1. A neutrophilic leukocyte with homogeneous red-purple mass of nuclear material describes

a. Tart cells
b. Reed-Sternberg cell
c. An atypical plasma cell
d. LE cell
e. Downey cell

A

d. LE cell

32
Q
  1. red, needle like leukocyte inclusions found in myeloblasts in acute myelogenous leukemia (AML) are celled

a. Toxic granulations
b. Dohle bodies
c. Auer rods
d. Pappenheimer bodies
e. Barr bodies

A

c. Auer rods

33
Q
  1. The Ham acid test and sugar water test performed on patient with hemolytic
    anemia are abnormal. These test are used to diagnose

a. Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria (PCH)
b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)
c. Polycythemia vera
d. Sickle cell trait
e. Beta thalassemia major

A

b. Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria (PNH)

34
Q
  1. Ingestion of aspirin (1 gm) impairs hemostasis by

a. Inhibiting aggregation
b. Impairing platelet secretion process
c. Prolonging the bleeding time
d. All of the above
e. All except B

A

e. All except B

35
Q
  1. Factors that affect the rate of sedimentation of erythrocyte include

a. Using refrigerated blood
b. Use of specimen collected 24 hours previously
c. Using heparin as anticoagulant
d. All of the above

A

d. All of the above

36
Q
  1. Red cell distribution with (RDW) value on the Coulter S plus estimates

a. Platelet number
b. Red cell number
c. Hematocrit
d. Hemoglobin concentration
e. Erythrocyte anisocytosis

A

e. Erythrocyte anisocytosis

37
Q
  1. Abnormal prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time may be
    caused by deficiency of

a. Factor VII
b. Factor VIII
c. Factor IX
d. Factor XI
e. Factor XII

A

(ABNORMAL PT,APTT: FACTORS 2,5,10)

38
Q
  1. Megaloblastic anemia may be evaluated by using which of the following
    test?

a. Folic acid assay
b. Vit. 12 assay
c. Schilling test
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

A

d. All of the above

39
Q
  1. Manifestations of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) may cause
    abnormalities in

a. Partial thromboplastin time
b. Fibrinogen
c. Factor VIII levels
d. All of the above
e. A and B only

A

d. All of the above

40
Q
  1. A blood clot that disintegrates after 24 hours of incubation at 37°C indicates

a. Increase fibrinolysis
b. Increase platelet count
c. Low platelet count
d. Low VW factor
e. Ca deficiency

A

a. Increase fibrinolysis

41
Q
  1. Blood obtained by skin puncture differs from venous blood by having

a. More glucose
b. More bilirubin
c. More calcium
d. Less urea
e. Less potassium

A

a. More glucose

42
Q
  1. Chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) may be differential from leukemoid
    reaction by

a. Total wbc count
b. Presence of smudge cells
c. Sudan black B staining
d. LAP score
e. PAS stain

A

d. LAP score

43
Q
  1. Deficiency of which of the following enzymes is most likely to elicit hemolytic
    anemia?

a. Pyruvate kinase
b. G6PD
c. Glucose phosphate isomerase
d. Hexokinase
e. Aldolase

A

a. Pyruvate kinase

44
Q
  1. To evaluate platelet numbers in an appropriate area of blood smear, approximately how many platelet should be observe per oil immersion field (oif)

a. 1-4
b. 4-10
c. 8-20
d. 20-50
e. 50-100

A

c. 8-20

45
Q
  1. Which of the following procedures could be performed on a hemolyzed blood
    sample?

a. Osmotic fragility
b. Hemoglobin
c. WBC count
d. Hematocrit
e. RBC count

A

b. Hemoglobin

46
Q
  1. In a reticulocyte count, 950 red cells and 14 reticulocytes are counted. What is the reticulocyte count?

a. 0.15 %
b. 1.3 %
c. 1.5%
d. 13.3 %
e. 15 %

A

c. 1.5%

47
Q
  1. Wright’s stain is a mixture of

a. Crystal violet and fuchsin
b. Crystal violet and safranin
c. Fast blue BB and fast red
d. New methylene blue and eosin
e. Polychromed methylene blue and eosin

A

e. Polychromed methylene blue and eosin

48
Q
  1. Difficulty in doing bone marrow aspiration is a common finding in patients with

a. Acute myelogenous leukemia
b. Myelofibrosis
c. Polycythemia vera
d. Di Gugliemo’s syndrome
e. Megakaryocytic leukemia

A

b. Myelofibrosis

49
Q
  1. Eosinophils and basophils are typical finding in patients with

a. Hairy cell leukemia
b. Acute myelogenous leukemia
c. Essential thrombocythemia
d. Non-Hodgkin’ lyphoma
e. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

A

e. Chronic Myelogenous Leukemia (CML)

50
Q
  1. Which of the following cell types is increased in the peripheral blood in a viral
    infection ?

a. Neutrophils
b. Eosinophils
c. Basophils
d. Monocyte
e. lymphocyte

A

e. lymphocyte

51
Q

P1. The hormone responsible for increasing the production of RBC is

A.)Stimulin
B.) rubriblastin
C.) leukopoietin
D.) erythropoietin
E.) thrombopoietin

A

D.) erythropoietin

52
Q

P2. The total blood volume of an adult is about

A.) 1 liter
B.) 2liters
C.) 6liters
D.) 12liters
E.) 14liters

A

C.) 6liters

53
Q

P3. Howel-jolly bodies are composed of

A.) DNA
B.) RNA
C.) Iron
D.) mitochondria
E.) endoplasmic reticulum

A

A.) DNA

54
Q

P4. Which of the following red cell inclusions are characteristically found in the lead poisoning?

A.) Basophilic Stippling
B.) toxic granulation
C.) Heinz bodies
D.) Howel-Jolly bodies
E.) pappenheimer bodies

A

A.) Basophilic Stippling

55
Q

P5. The cell movement across the cellular membranes from the blood vessels to the
tissues is called

A.) Diapedesis
B.) Endocytosis
C.) Margination
D.) chemotaxis
E.) phagocytosis

A

A.) Diapedesis

56
Q

P6. The anticoagulant of choice for most routine coagulation procedure

A.) EDTA
B.) Glass beads
C.) heparin
D.) Sodium citrate
E.) Sodium oxalate

A

D.) Sodium citrate

57
Q

P7. Abnormal prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time may be
caused by deficiency of

A.) factor VII
B.) factor VIII
C.) factor X
D.) factor XI
E.) XII

A

A.) factor VII

58
Q

P8. In a reticulocyte count, 950 red cell and 14 reticulocytes are counted. What is the
retic count?

A.) 0.15%
B.) 1.3%
C.) 1.5%
D.) 13.3%
E.) 15%

A

C.) 1.5%

59
Q

P9. An average adult hemoglobin is

A.) 9-12 g/dl
B.) 10-11g/dl
C.) 12-16g/dl
D.) 15-20g/dl
E.) 20-26g/dl

A

C.) 12-16g/dl

60
Q

P10. The normal percentage of Segmenters in a healthy individual is

A.) 25-35%
B.) 55-65%
C.) 2-4%
D.) 1-2%
E.) 0-0.5%

A

B.) 55-65%

MHARS EXAM (9 decks)

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