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MHARS EXAM > MICROBIO > Flashcards

MICROBIO Flashcards

1
Q
  1. All cocci are gram positive except

a. Neisseria
b. Veillonela
c. Peptococcos
d. A and B only
e. None of the above

A

d. A and B only

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2
Q
  1. The following organism are spirochetes except

a. Borrelia
b. Leptospira
c. Treponema
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

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3
Q
  1. All rods are negative except

a. Escherichia
b. Klebsiella
c. Proteus
d. Pseudomonas
e. mycobacteria

A

e. mycobacteria

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4
Q
  1. The following statement about Pseudomonas infection are true except

a. It can cause urinary tract infection
b. It resists many antibiotics
c. It can infect most burn patients
d. It exhibits feathery edge pattern on Mac Conkey agar with “fruity odor”
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

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5
Q
  1. The following statements about salmonella infection are true except

a. It causes enteric fever and food poisoning
b. It can be grown in selenite F broth
c. Agglutinins (widal) to salmonella O (somatic) and H (flagellar) antigens may
arise in the serum
d. Diagnostic value of widal test particularly of a single serum sample is limited and
the test should not be used without concurrent bacteriologic studies
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

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6
Q
  1. Niacin production is important laboratory test in the identification of

a. M. tuberculosis
b. L. leprae
c. Both A and B
d. Neither

A

a. M. tuberculosis

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7
Q
  1. The following statements about Helicobacter pylori are true except

a. It causes peptic ulcers
b. It is associated with stomach cancer
c. It is strongly urease postive
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

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8
Q
  1. Spirochetes are readily demonstrated in the laboratory in

a. Primary syphilis
b. Secondary syphilis
c. Tertiary syphilis
d. All stages of syphilis
e. Congenital syphilis

A

a. Primary syphilis

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9
Q
  1. The most common species of mycobacterium isolated from AIDS patients is

a. M. kansasii
b. M. avium-intracellare complex
c. M. leprae
d. M. phlei
e. M. scrofulaceum

A

b. M. avium-intracellare complex

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10
Q
  1. Blood and leukocytes are commonly seen in the stool during

a. Cholera
b. Rotaviral disease
c. Shigellosis
d. Salmonellosis
e. Travellers diarrhea

A

c. Shigellosis

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11
Q
  1. The major virulence factor of Neisseria gonorrhea is the

a. Lipopolysaccharide
b. Pilus
c. Capsule
d. M. protein
e. flagella

A

b. Pilus

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12
Q
  1. The most common cause of urinary tract infection is

a. Escherichia coli
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Klebsiella pneumoniae
d. Streptococcus pyogenes
e. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

a. Escherichia coli

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13
Q
  1. The virulence of Streptococcus pneumoniae is primarily associated with the
    presence of

a. Cell wall teichoic acid
b. Pneumolysin
c. Polysaccharide capsule
d. M protein
e. peptidoglycan

A

c. Polysaccharide capsule

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14
Q
  1. A gram stained smear from colonies on aerobic blood culture shows gram
    positive cocci in the packets of 8 or more cells. The organism is most likely

a. Micrococcus tetragena
b. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Micrococcus luteus
d. Steptococcus pneumoniae

A

a. Micrococcus tetragena

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15
Q
  1. Positive growth in 6.5% salt broth and the esculin hydrolysisi are test for

a. Enterococci
b. Alpha streptococcus
c. Microaerophilic streptococci
d. pneumococci

A

a. Enterococci

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16
Q
  1. The CAMP test is a diagnostic test used to identify

a. Group B. streptococci
b. S. fecalis from other enterococci
c. Viridans streptococci from enterococci
d. S. pneumoniae from enterococci

A

a. Group B. streptococci

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17
Q
  1. The most accurate test for identification of pneumococci is

a. Bile solubility
b. Neufel-quellung reaction
c. Optochin sensitivity
d. Sodium lauryl sulfate

A

a. Bile solubility

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18
Q
  1. Colorless colonies with black center on SS agar indicate that organisms have

a. Fermented glucose
b. Hydrogen sulfide production
c. Indole production
d. Fermented lactose
e. Fermented fructose

A

b. Hydrogen sulfide production

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19
Q
  1. The indicator employed in TSI agar and urease test medium is

a. Phenol red
b. Bromcresol purple
c. Bromthymol blue
d. Neutral red

A

a. Phenol red

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20
Q
  1. The organism usually encountered in bile culture is

a. Streptococcus pneunmoniae
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Staphylococcus aureus
d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis

A

c. Staphylococcus aureus

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21
Q
  1. The basis of the methyl red test in differentiating Escherichia coli from
    Enterobacter aerogenes is the production of

a. Citric acid
b. High acidity
c. Acetylmethylcarbinol
d. Hydrogen sulfide

A

b. High acidity

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22
Q
  1. The acid fast property of tubercle bacilli is due to

a. Presence of mycolic acid in cell wall
b. Sulfolipids in cell wall
c. Cord factor
d. Neither of the above

A

a. Presence of mycolic acid in cell wall

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23
Q
  1. Listeria monocytogenes should be considered if a beta hemolytic colony on
    defibrinated sheep blood agar demonstrate

a. Transparent colonies
b. Brownish iridescence when viewed obliquely
c. Gun-gray colonies
d. Tumbling motility in hanging drop mthod

A

c. Gun-gray colonies

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24
Q
  1. Weil’s disease or infectious jaundice is caused by

a. Borrelia carteri
b. Treponema pertenue
c. Leptospira icterohemorrhagiae
d. Actinomyces israeli

A

c. Leptospira icterohemorrhagiae

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25
Q
  1. The following can be used to determine the size of a virus except

a. Filtration
b. Ultracentrifugation
c. Electron micrographs
d. Sedimentation
e. None of the abov

A

b. Ultracentrifugation
c. Electron micrographs

26
Q
  1. A positive fluorescent treponemal antibody absorbed Reaction and a negative VDRL correlates with

a. Lupus erythematosus
b. Infectious mononucleosis
c. False positive
d. Early syphilis
e. Tertiary syphilis

A

c. False positive

27
Q
  1. Spore formation is important in the epidemiology of food poisoning caused
    by all of the following except

a. Bacillus cereus
b. Clostridium botulinum
c. C. perfringes
d. S. aureus

A

d. S. aureus

28
Q
  1. Mycobacteria resist intracellular killing due to

a. Peptidoglycan
b. Lipoteichhoic acid
c. Lipopolysaccharide
d. Mycolic acids

A

d. Mycolic acids

29
Q
  1. The most widely used test for identification of Candida albicans is

a. Urease test
b. Germ tube test
c. Oxidase test
d. India ink test
e. Nitrate reduction test

A

b. Germ tube test

30
Q
  1. The Mycoplamas are distinguished from true bacteria by their lack of

a. Cell wall
b. Lipopolysaccharide
c. Flagella
d. ATP synthesis
e. A capsule

A

a. Cell wall

31
Q
  1. the following are characteristics of Pseudomonas aeroginosa

a. Grapelike odor
b. Oxidase positive
c. Feathered, ground glass appearance of the colonies
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

d. All of the above

32
Q
  1. The following are characteristics of Listeria Monocytogenes except

a. Hippurate hydrolysis positive
b. CAMP test (CAMP Test Positive)
c. Esculin hydrolysis positive
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

b. CAMP test (CAMP Test Positive) *if no positive or negative is indicated then
this is the answer

33
Q
  1. The following are characteristics of Helicobacter except

a. It can cause gastritis and ulcer
b. Identification is made from gastric biopsy material
c. Isolates are urease positive
d. All of the above
e. None of the above

A

e. None of the above

34
Q
  1. Characteristics used to identify Mycobacterium isolates are

a. Colony morphology
b. Colony pigmentation
c. Growth rate
d. A and B only
e. None of the above

A

d. A and B only

35
Q
  1. The characteristics of Mycobacterial photoreactivity group that produce
    pigment in the light or dark is called

a. Photochromogen
b. Scotochromogen
c. Nonchromogen
d. Pseudochromogen
e. semichromogen

A

b. Scotochromogen

36
Q
  1. Medically important mycobacteria that are Nonchromogen are

a. M. tuberculosis
b. M. avium-intracellulare
c. M. marinum
d. A and B
e. B and C

A

d. A and B

37
Q
  1. Anarobes that are “boxcar” rods with blunt ends are

a. Clostridium
b. Actinomyces
c. Veillonella
d. Peptostreptococcus
e. bacteroides

A

a. Clostridium

38
Q
  1. Which of the following refers to the lowest concentration of antibiotic that
    inhibits visible bacterial growth

a. Synergy
b. Serum bactericidal concentration
c. Disk diffusion
d. Minimum inhibitory concentration
e. Minimum bactericidal concentration

A

d. Minimum inhibitory concentration

39
Q
  1. Which of the following test may be used to differentiate Micrococcus from Staphylococcus?

a. Coagulase
b. Bacitracin susceptibility
c. Catalase
d. Fermentation of mannitol

A

b. Bacitracin susceptibility

40
Q
  1. Which of the following characteristics is common to member of Enterobacteriaceae?

a. Ferment glucose
b. Oxidase positive
c. Gram (-) pleomorphic bacilli
d. Growth in 6.5 % sodium chloride

A

a. Ferment glucose

41
Q
  1. All of the following are gram positive anaerobic cocci except

a. Peptococcus
b. Peptostreptococcus
c. Streptococcus
d. veillonella

A

d. veillonella

42
Q
  1. The counterstain used in Gram’s stain is

a. Crystal violet
b. Iodine
c. Acridine
d. Safranin-O
e. Acid alcohol

A

d. Safranin-O

43
Q
  1. The counterstain used in acid Fast stain is

a. Carbolfuchsin
b. Methylene blue
c. Acridine orange
d. Safranin-O
e. Acid alcohol

A

b. Methylene blue

44
Q
  1. Which of the following stains is used for demonstrating methachromatic
    granules and characteristic morphology of C. diptheriae

a. Acridine orange
b. Acid fast stain
c. Auramine-Rhodamine stain
d. Methylene blue
e. Calcoufluor white stain

A

d. Methylene blue

45
Q
  1. Laboratory identification of Staphylococcus aureus include

a. Gram (+) cocci
b. Beta hemolysis
c. Mannitol salt agar
d. Phenylethyl alcohol (PEA) blood agar
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

46
Q
  1. The most well defined virulence factor of Streptococcus pyogenes is

a. M. protein
b. Streptolysis O
c. Hyaluronidase
d. DNAse B
e. Erythrogenic toxin

A

a. M. protein

47
Q
  1. Thiosulfate-citrate-bile salts-sucrose (TCBS) agar is used to isolate which of
    the following genera

a. Aeromonas
b. Pseudomonas
c. Campylobacter
d. Vibrio
e. Salmonella

A

d. Vibrio

48
Q
  1. Which of the following tests distinguishes S. pyogenes from S. agalactia

a. Catalase
b. Bile-esculin
c. Hippurate hydrolysis
d. 6.5% soduim chloride

A

c. Hippurate hydrolysis

49
Q
  1. The influenza virus varies from year to year producing epidemics. This variation is called

a. Antigenic drift
b. Antigenic shift
c. Gene splicing
d. Gene mutation

A

a. Antigenic drift

50
Q
  1. The porphyrin test is a sensitive method to determine which one of the following requirement?

a. X- factor
b. V factor
c. Folic acid requirment
d. Vitamin K

A

a. X- factor

51
Q

P1. The primary stain used in Gram’s staining is

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

C. Crystal Violet

52
Q

P2. The counterstain used in AFB staining

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

B. Methylene Blue

53
Q

P3. The primary stain used in AFB staining is

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

A. Carbofuchsin

54
Q

P4. The counterstain used in Gram’s staining

A. Carbofuchsin
B. Methylene Blue
C. Crystal Violet
D. Safranin

A

D. Safranin

55
Q

P5. A test that separates Staphylococcus from Streptococcus

A. Coagulase test
B. Catalase test
C. Optochin test
D. Bacitrcin test

A

B. Catalase test

56
Q

P6. A test that separates Staphylococcus aureus from other Staphylococcus species

A. Coagulase test
B. Catalase test
C. Optochin test
D. Bacitracin test

A

A. Coagulase test

57
Q

P7. A presumptive test used for identifying Group A Streptococcus or Strep. Pyogenes

A. CAMP’s Test
B. Optochin test
C. Bacitracin test
D. Coagulase test

A

C. Bacitracin test

58
Q

P8. A presumptive test used for identifying Streptococcus pneumonia

A. CAMP’s Test
B. Optochin Test
C. Bacitracin Test
D. Coagulase Test

A

B. Optochin Test

59
Q

P9. A presumptive test used for identifying Staphylococcus aureus

A. CAMP’s Test
B. Optochin Test
C. Bacitracin Test
D. Coagulase Test

A

D. Coagulase Test

60
Q

P10. A positive color for citrate test

A. Red
B. Blue
C. Purple
D. Pink

A

B. Blue

MHARS EXAM (9 decks)

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