Post mortem examination Flashcards

1
Q

What is a post mortem/ necropsy/autopsy?

A
  • the examination of a body after death
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2
Q

We perform PME to confirm or refute a clinical diagnosis - what would this include?

A
  • if the diagnosis was correct
  • can you reined the differential diagnosis
  • was there other concurrent disease
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3
Q

We perform PME to work out if there was failure in treatment - why do we do this?

A
  • to work out why did treatment of clinical diagnosis fail
  • clinical audit
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4
Q

What is sudden death?

A
  • death without any knowledge of disease, injury or intoxication, or death within minutes or hours of onset of clinical signs
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5
Q

Why do we perform a PME for sudden death?

A
  • aims to provide a diagnosis when there is no clinical diagnosis
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6
Q

What is apparent sudden death?

A
  • the clinical signs had not been noticed by owner
  • e.g., prey animal masking evidence or suffering
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7
Q

Why do we PME in herd, group or population health?

A
  • for rapid diagnosis of disease in a herd, group or population
  • provides additional opportunity to implement treatment, nutrition or management changes to prevent further losses of individuals or production
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8
Q

How do we use PME in surveillance?

A
  • monitor endemic disease
  • detect exotic / notifiable disease
  • monitoring effects of husbandry / management changes
  • public health
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9
Q

Forensic post mortem examinations can be used in cases of crime involving animals - what do these look into?

A
  • cause of death
  • disease / health status
  • degree of suffering
  • obtaining trace evidence
  • identification
  • insurance
  • malpractice inquests
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10
Q

Zoo animals have PME following death or euthanasia - why may these be performed?

A
  • population health
  • research
  • husbandry / management changes
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11
Q

What can obtained samples be used in?

A
  • histopathology
  • microbiology
  • bacteriology
  • virology
  • mycology
  • parasitology
  • trace element analysis
  • toxicology
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12
Q

PME can be used in research such as toxicological pathology - what can tissues/other samples for further study be used in?

A
  • pathology research
  • clinical research
  • basic science research
  • achieved samples allow retrospective studies
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13
Q

There is no one correct way to perform a PME - however what should you make sure you do?

A
  • examine every organ
  • follow a standard procedure
  • take samples from each tissue into formalin (1:10)
  • take any additional samples which may require for further testing
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14
Q

What prerequisites are required before a PME?

A
  • permission to perform
  • reason to perform
  • signalment (species, breed, sex, age)
  • clinical history
  • time of death
  • mode of death
  • found death
  • type of euthanasia
  • cadaver storage
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15
Q

What should be checked before PME?

A
  • check identification details compared to paperwork
  • packaging and any other items
  • microchip number
  • body weight
  • crown to rump length/height
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16
Q

During an external examination pre PME why do you not give a BCS?

A
  • dehydration and post mortem changes of the cadaver, and lack of muscle tone can give a misleading score
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17
Q

What should be described in a post mortem examination?

A
  • subcutaneous adipose tissue
  • adipose tissue: around organs, behind eyes, in marrow cavities
  • muscle and organ size/atrophy
  • bony prominences
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18
Q

What descriptors can be used to describe each point in a PME?

A
  • excellent, adequate through to emaciated
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19
Q

What would you like for on the external examination?

A
  • wounds or other superficial lesions
  • hair coat condition, ectoparasites
  • discharges from orifices
  • colour of skin, sclera and mucous membranes
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20
Q

How would you perform the initial dissection?

A
  • disarticulate the limbs to ensure cadaver is stable
  • midline skin incision (through skin only) from mandibular symphysis to pubis
  • reflect the skin way from the midline to expose subcutaneous tissue to muscle
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21
Q

What would you look for in skin and subcutaneous tissues?

A
  • colour changes
  • masses
  • fluid
  • gas
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22
Q

What would yellowed skin or tissues indicate?

A
  • icterus
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23
Q

What would pallor skin or tissues indicate?

A
  • loss of blood / anaemia
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24
Q

What would red-purple skin or tissues indicate?

A
  • congestion, sepsis, bruising
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25
Q

What would green skin or tissues indicate?

A
  • bile imbibition, pseudomelanosis
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26
Q

What would gelatinous skin or tissues indicate?

A
  • oedema, serous atrophy of fat
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27
Q

How would you open the adnominal cavity during an PME?

A
  • incise along linear alba (avoid viscera, top right image)
  • collect any fluid within the abdominal cavity
  • cut from Linea alba laterally along the last rib on each side to open the cavity
  • check for negative pressure in the thoracic cavity (small incision in diaphragm)
  • check topography
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28
Q

How would you open the thoracic cavity in a PME?

A
  • cut along the costochondral junctions on one sider of the thorax
  • reflect the rib cage (dethatching the mediastinum)
  • cut along the bend in the costochondral junctions on the other side to expose the thoracic contents
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29
Q

What is the pluck?

A

= tongue, larynx, thyroid and parathyroid glands, trachea, oesophagus, heart and lungs

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30
Q

How would you remove the pluck?

A
  • cut along the medial aspect of the body of the mandible, from the ramus to the symphysis, bilaterally
  • reflect the tongue, ventrally, through incision
  • hold the tongue and move ventrally and caudally
  • examine the hyoid apparatus before cutting through the cartilaginous joints
  • continue reflecting ventrally and caudally the tongue, larynx, trachea and oesophagus by cutting the fascia dorsal to these structures
  • continue this technique to remove the heart and lungs still attached to the pluck
  • cut oesophagus, vena cava and aorta at the level of the diaphragm to remove the pluck from the cadaver
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31
Q

How would you check patency of the bile duct?

A
  • make a small incision into the duodenum, near the bile duct
  • squeeze the gall bladder
  • bile should ooze from the incision
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32
Q

What would you then remove from the abdomen (after removing viscera)?

A
  • remove the adrenal glands
  • remove the liver and spleen
  • remove the GIT
  • remove the urinary tract
  • remove ovaries and uterus/testes
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33
Q

What extra things would you check after dissecting from the abdomen?

A
  • check lymph nodes
  • check bones and joints
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34
Q

How would you examine the oesophagus in the pluck?

A
  • remove the thyroid and parathyroid glands
  • open the oesophagus
  • examine content
  • are there strictures (narrower bits)
  • are there lesions
35
Q

How would you examine the larynx, trachea and bronchi of the pluck?

A
  • with clean scissors open the larynx, trachea and bronchi
  • check content
  • check for froth
  • check for lesions
36
Q

When examining the heart what should you make sure to do?

A
  • examine every chamber
  • examine every valve
37
Q

What should heart weight be in cats and dogs?

A
  • dogs = <1% of body weight
  • cats = <18-20g
38
Q

The thickness of left ventricular free wall, interventricular septum and right ventricular free wall should be a ratio of what?

A
  • ratio of 3:3:1
39
Q

What components of the heart should you examine?

A
  • pericardium
  • epicardium
  • myocardium
  • endocardium
  • valves
40
Q

How would you examine the parenchymatous (liver, spleen, lungs) organs?

A
  • make a partial thickness incisions through parenchymatous organs
41
Q

When removing the capsule from the kidneys what would you look for?

A
  • adhesions
  • lesions
  • exudate
42
Q

You would then bisect the kidneys to examine what?

A
  • cortex
  • medulla
  • pelvis
  • urethra
43
Q

What would you collect from the urogenital tract?

A
  • urine if possible
44
Q

Apart form the kidneys what other aspects of the urogenital tract would you open and examine?

A
  • bladder
  • genital tract
  • reproductive organs
45
Q

What would you do when examining the entire GIT?

A
  • collect and describe stomach and intestinal contents
  • examine the serosa and mucosal surfaces
46
Q

How would you examine the central nervous system?

A
  1. remove head
    - check foramen magnum
  2. open cranial vault
    - check meninges
  3. remove brain and eyes ( +/- spinal cord)
    - fix whole before dissection ( around 1 week)
47
Q

When would you need to describe lesions?

A
  • PME
  • biopsy submissions
  • clinical consultation notes
  • surgery reports
  • referral letters
  • seeking advice from pathologist/other vets
48
Q

What descriptors would you use to describe a lesion?

A
  • organ/tissue
  • position
  • number
  • weight
  • distribution
  • contour
  • size
  • colour
  • shape
  • consistency
  • smell
49
Q

When taking about the weight of a lesion what do you need to include?

A
  • percentage of body weight
50
Q

What does distribution of a lesion refer to?

A
  • the spatial arrangement of lesions within the tissue
51
Q

You can describe a lesion as random distribution - what does this mean?

A
  • without relationship to the architecture of the organ or tissue
  • e.g., abscess or tumours in the lungs or liver
52
Q

What does symmetrical distribution mean?

A
  • highlights or outlines an anatomical or physiological subunit
  • e.g., metabolic disorder affecting a group of related cells in a paired organ
53
Q

What does focal distribution mean?

A
  • a single defined lesion on a normal background or background exhibiting a different process
  • e.g., an abscess in a consolidated lung
54
Q

What does multifocal distribution mean?

A
  • more than one discrete lesion on a background
55
Q

What is multifocal to coalescing distribution?

A
  • many lesions which appear to be growing together or fusing suggesting an active process which is expanding or not contained
56
Q

What is miliary distribution?

A
  • numerous tiny foci which are too numerous to count
57
Q

What is a segmental distribution?

A
  • well defined portion of the tissue is abnormal
  • often defines a vascular bed
58
Q

What is a diffuse lesion?

A
  • the whole tissue is affected
59
Q

What is a raised contour and give examples?

A
  • where something is added
  • fluids = blood, transudate, exudate, effusion, oedema
  • cells = hyperplasia, neoplasia, inflammation
  • tissues = fat, cartilage, bone
60
Q

What is a depressed contour and give examples?

A
  • something has been removed
  • necrosis
  • atrophy
61
Q

How would you describe a flat contour?

A
  • not raised or depressed
  • has not had time to progress or does not cause expansion or necrosis
62
Q

How do we measure lesions?

63
Q

What would a uniform size lesion be like?

A
  • lesions occurring at the same time, or over a short period, and are progressing at the same rate
64
Q

What would a non-uniform lesion be like?

A
  • lesions are separated in time or rate of progression
65
Q

Organs could be larger than normal due to what?

A
  • hyperplasia
  • hypertrophy
  • oedema
  • neoplasia
  • congestion
  • inflammation
66
Q

Organs could be smaller than normal due to what?

A
  • hypoplasia
  • atrophy
  • necrosis
67
Q

What does dynamic organs mean?

A
  • size due to physiological status
68
Q

What organs would be rapidly (sec-mins) dynamic?

A
  • lungs, urinary bladder
69
Q

What organs would be moderately dynamic (min to hrs)?

A
  • spleen, GIT, brain
70
Q

What organs are slowly dynamic (days to months)?

A
  • heart
  • liver
  • lymph nodes
  • endocrine glands
71
Q

What would a red to red black colour suggest?

A
  • congestion
  • haemorrhage
72
Q

What would a white/grey/yellow colour suggest?

A
  • lack of blood, necrosis, icterus, fibrosis
73
Q

What would a black colour suggest?

A
  • melanin
  • melanosis - flat
  • melanoma - raised
74
Q

What would a green-black colour suggest?

A
  • pseudomelanosis
  • H2S pigments
75
Q

What would a green colour suggest?

A
  • bile
  • some fungi
76
Q

What do you need to think of when describing lesion shape?

A
  • what does it most resemble
  • 2D or 3D terms
  • symmetrical shapes and pattern may reflect the underlying architecture
77
Q

What would a gas consistency be like?

A
  • trapped in tissue
    = emphysema
    = autolysis
78
Q

What would a fluid consistency be like?

A
  • looks or feels wet
    = oedema
    = blood
    = transudates
    = fluid rich exudate
    = effusions
    = urine
79
Q

What would a soft consistency be like?

A
  • fluid rich
  • cell/stroma poor
80
Q

What would a firm consistency be like?

A
  • fluid poor
  • cell/stroma rich
81
Q

What would a hard/gritty consistency be like?

A
  • mineralised stroma/matrix
  • cartilage
  • bone
  • calcified tissue
82
Q

If a lesion has a distinct smell what could theses be?

A
  • Foul = rotting smell, putrefactive necrosis, saprophytic bacteria
  • Ammonia = uraemia
  • No odour = aseptic process?
83
Q

If a lesion has a distinctive sound what could these be and what could they mean?

A
  • Crepitant – emphysema, gas producing bacteria, normal lung (absence = atelectasis)
  • Sloshing – fluid filled structure – ascites, effusions, diarrhoea