PNS pharmacology Flashcards by Frances Catipay

Drug inhibiting step 2 (storage): Ach stored in VAT

Vesamicol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Rate-limiting step in Cholinergic pathway

Conversion of Acetyl-Coa and Choline to Ach by ChAT

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Drug altering synaptobrevins (SNARE proteins triggered by Ca) to prevent release of ACh (Step 3)

Botulinum toxins

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

3 drugs inhibiting degradation of Ach to choline & acetate by acetylcholinesterase (Step 4/ termination)

Carbamates
Organophosphates
Neostigmine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Types of NS that causes erection and ejaculation

Erection: PNS; Ejaculation: SNS

Point & Shoot

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Parasympathetic NS have _______ PREganglionic fibers & ______ POSTganglionic fibers.

Long; Short

PLaSma

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Gq-coupled cholinergic receptor (inc in IP3 & DAG) in nerve endings

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Gi-coupled cholinoreceptor found in heart and some nerve endings (dec cAMP)

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Gq-coupled cholinoreceptor which relaxes bronchial smooth muscles and increase GI secretion

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Blocks step 1 (synthesis) of Ach from acetyl-CoA + choline

Hemicholinium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Direct-acting cholinomimetic (M1-3) used for bladder and bowel atony post-op

Betanechol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Direct-acting cholinomimetic (M3 in ciliary m & salivary g) used in glaucoma, sjogren & sicca syndrome

Pilocarpine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Autoimmune disorder characterized by xerostomia, xerophthalmia, rheumatoid arthritis

Sjogren syndrome

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Direct-acting cholinomimetic (Nn, Nm) used for smoking cessation

Nicotine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Indirect-acting cholinomimetic MOA

Binds to cholinesterase

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Indirect-acting cholinomimetic used in tensilon test for myasthenia gravis; very short-acting (5-15 mins)

Endrophonium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Indirect-acting cholinomimetic with muscarinic effects blocked by atropine & pralidoxime

Neostigmine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Autoimmune destruction of nicotinic Ach receptors characterized by fluctuating muscle weakness and ocular symptoms (ptosis, lagophthalmos)

Myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Acute worsening of MG symptoms due to infx, stress or undermedication

Myasthenic crisis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Excessive activation of cholinoreceptors due to overmedication (skeletal m weakness and ParaSy signs)

Cholinergic crisis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Endrophonium ______ muscle strength in cholinergic crisis.

weakens

improves in myasthenic crisis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Indirect-acting cholinomimetic used for Alzheimer’s disease

Rivastigmine
Donepezil
Galantamine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

What type of poisoning presents with the ff sx:

Diarrhea, urination, miosis, bronchospasm, bradycardia, excitation (CNs, skeletal m), lacrimation, sweating, salivation

Organophosphate poisoning

DUMBBELSS

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cholinergic antagonist blocking all M receptors, 1st choice in organophosphate poisoning; used as mydriatic and cyclopegic

Atropine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Cholinesterase regenerator; binds phosphorus of organophosphate; used in nerve gas poisoning

Pralidoxime

Cholinergic antagonist (all M) reducing tremors more than rigidity in Parkinson's

Benztropine

Cholinergic antagonist (M3) used in asthma and COPD; more effective and less toxic for COPD patients with heart dse

Ipratropium

Muscarinic antagonist for Parkinsonism | Try to Park your Benz, beep here

TRIhexyphenidyl BENZtropine BIPeriden

Transdermal cholinergic antagonist used in motion sickness

Scopolamine

CI to muscarinic blockers

Caution in infants (bad thermoregulation) Acute angle closure glaucoma BPH

Cholinergic nicotinic antgagonist (ganglion blocker)used in hypertensive emergencies; SE: postural hypotension

Hexamethonium

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker | Kapag nakapag-DEPOsit ka sa toilet, SUCCess yun.

Succinylcholine | DEPOlarizing = SUCCinylcholine

Nondepolarizing NMB; causes flaccid paralysis | -CURe

Pancuronium Tubocurarine Atracurium Vecuronium

Primary transmitter at SY postganglionic synapses | except in eccrine sweat glands and vasodilator SY fibers in skeletal m

Norepinephrine

Symphatomimetic used for shock d/t renal shutdown

Dopamine | Dopamine DILATES renal vessels, NE CONSTRICTS

Prevents synthesis in noradrenergic pathway

Metyrosine | prevents tyrosine to be converted to DOPA

Inhibits vesicular transport and storage in noradrenergic pathway

Reserpine

Inhibits release of NE in noradrenergic pathway

Guanethidine

Inhibits excess NE reuptake in synaptic terminals

Cocaine | TCAs

Inhibits metabolism of NE to metabephrine and VMA

MAOIs | COMT inhibitors

Alpha-1 adrenergic effects

Inc vascular resistance Mydriasis Erects hair Glycongenolysis in liver

Alpha-2 adrenergic effects

Contracts some vascular SM (inc resistance) Inhibit NT release Platelet aggregation Inhibits lipolysis and insulin release

Beta-1 adrenergic effects

Inc HR | Inc renin release

Beta-2 adrenergic effects

Relax airways Inc insulin release, glycogenolysis Tremor Inc HR

Drug of choice for anaphylaxis; sympathomimetic, nonselective direct-acting

Epinephrine

Nonselective sympathomimetic used as last resort for cardiogenic and neurogenic shock; causes reflex bradycardia, extreme vasospasm, tissue necrosis

Norepinephrine

Low dose dopamine acts on ____ receptors on splanchnic and renal beds

Medium dose dopamine acts on ___ receptors inc renal BF, HR and CO

Beta-1

High dose dopamine acts on ___ receptors causing vasoconstriction and inc BP

alpha

Alpha-1 selective agonist causing rhinitis medicamentosa; cause mydriasis without cycloplegia

Phenylephrine

Selective alpha-2 agonist used for HPN urgency and opioid withdrawal; causes rebound HPN

Clonidine (Catapres) | -max dose: 900 mcg (16 tabs)

Alpha-2 selective agonist used in preeclampsia, gestational HPN; can cause hemolytic anemia

Methyldopa

Selective alpha-2 agonist for glaucoma

Apraclonidine

Selective beta-1 used for cardiogenic shock; used in cardiac stress testing; prone to tachyphylaxis

Dobutamine

Beta-2 selective agonists; DOC for acute asthma attacks

Salbutamol/ albuterol Terbutaline Ritodrine

Nonselective alpha blocker (irreversible) used in pheochromocytoma pre-op

Phenoxybenzamine

Nonselective alpha blocker (reversible) used for rebound hypertension

Phentolamine

Alpha-1 blocker most selective for prostatic smooth m (BPH)

Tamsulosin

Alpha-1 blocker for BPH, HPN; SE: 1st dose orthostatic hypotension

Prazosin

Nonselective beta blocker used as angina prophylaxis, hyperthyroidism, HPN; SE: bronchospasm, erectile dysfx

Propanolol

2 Beta-blockers without local anesthetic activity for glaucoma

Timolol | Betaxolol

Betablocker with the longest T1/2

Nadolol | NAsa DOLO

Beta-blockers with intrinsic symphatomimetic activity | ISA PAng chickenjoy!

Pindolol and Acebutolol

Betablocker with the shortest T1/2

Esmolol | ESMOL=small

Only B1 blocker used for SVT

Esmolol | same class: atenolol, metoprolol, acebutolol, betaxulol

DOC for glaucoma

Latanoprost (prostaglandin -inc outflow thru canal of Schlemm)