PMR 4 - speech Flashcards

1
Q

The major voluntary pathway for speech, as well as all voluntary movement, is:
a. Corticocerebellar tract
b. Autonomic nervous system
c. Pyramidal svstem
d. Peripheral nervous system

A

C) The pyramidal system includes the corticopontine, corticobulbar, and corticospinal pathways. This pathway provides the network of neural connections necessary to ensure that communication between the speech planning centers in the frontal lobe is relaved to the various subsystems of speech to create a verbal message. Those subsystems include the respiratory, phonatory, resonatory, and articulatory subsystems.

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2
Q

In some cases, aphasia may:
a. Progress due to recurrent neurogenic pathology
b. Be a static condition
c. Be further influenced by coexisting medical problems
d. All of the above

A

D) Aphasia is the language disorder that results from damage in the left hemisphere of the brain. The condition can remain unchanged, worsen in the face of additional neurogenic or medical conditions, or improve with medical and therapeutic intervention.

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3
Q

Aphasia traditionally has been attributed to cortical lesions of the:
a. Parietal lobe
b. Occipital lobe
c. Left hemisphere
d. Cerebellum

A

C) The left hemisphere is traditionally viewed as the language center of the brain.
When lesions occur in the left hemisphere, the result could be different types of aphasia spanning a continuum from nonfluent to fluent, based on site of lesion. The frontal lobe itself is associated with voluntary movements in the body, which includes speech production. If a lesion were to occur there, a particular type of aphasia may result from among the nonfluent varieties. But in general, any aphasia that occurs in a patient population would be the direct result of cortical damage to the left hemisphere.

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4
Q

Voluntary movement, intellect, and speech are located in the
a. Parietal lobe
b. Frontal lobe
c. Temporal lobe
d. Occipital lobe

A

B) It has long been known that different regions of the brain are responsible for different functions. The frontal lobe is known as the motor cortex. As such, it is responsible for voluntary movements, as well as intellect and speech-language. The parietal lobe is the sensory cortex, the temporal lobe is the auditory cortex, and the occipital lobe is the visual cortex.

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5
Q

A patient presents with inappropriate commenting, left field neglect, and reduced affect. This patient has recently suffered from a:
a. Right hemispheric stroke
b. Brainstem infarct
c. Left hemispheric stroke.
d. Trauma to the temporal lobe

A

A) Whereas the left hemisphere is considered the language hemisphere for the majority of all individuals, the right hemisphere is considered the center for visuospatial orientation and constructional skills. Right hemisphere brain damage (RHBD) results in a variety of symptoms, as noted, although on the surface an overt language problem that compromises the ability of the patient to speak in a grammatically correct manner is not one of them. Rather, they may exhibit a lack of awareness concerning their subtle problems in social interactions, have difficulty navigating their way around a room, and do poorly on drawing tasks.

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6
Q

A patient with a brainstem lesion is likely to experience all of the following except:
a. Poor anterior-posterior transport of a food/liquid bolus
b. Decreased masseter tension
c. Wet hoarseness
d. Rigidity

A

D) Brainstem lesions will affect the function of cranial nerves, which, in turn, controls such things as chewing, bolus movement, and swallowing. Muscle rigidity, on the other hand, is typically associated with either an upper motor neuron lesion in the cortex or damage to the basal ganglia, a subcortical structure.

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7
Q

Hypokinetic dysarthria is a result of:
a. Parkinson’s disease
b. Alcohol toxicity
c. Depletion of dopamine
d. A and C

A

D) Hypokinetic dysarthria is the motor speech problem typically seen in patients who suffer from Parkinson’s disease. This results directly from a depletion of dopamine in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia. The disease is characterized by bradykinesia or akinesia, rigidity, tremors, and a loss of postural reflexes. Patients characteristically have a “masked” and inexpressive face. Their speech is hypokinetic (less articulatory movement), monotone, and monoloud.

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8
Q

The transcortical aphasias result from lesions involving:
a. Broca’s area
b. Wernicke’s area
c. Border zone
d. Cerebellum

A

C) The border zone refers to a region of the cortex that takes in Broca’s area in the frontal lobe and Wernicke’s area in the temporal lobe, as well as the arcuate fasciculus (a connecting bundle of association fibers that joins the two. Damage within that zone could L result in either trans cortical motor aphasia (more anterior lesion) or transcortical sensory aphasia (more posterior lesion).

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9
Q

A patient’s signs and symptoms include effortful speech and difficulties with verbal 9. expression, difficulty in organizing verbal responses, phonemic and global paraphasias, and verbal perseverations. The patient can be diagnosed as:
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Global aphasia
c. Transcortical motor aphasia
d. Conduction aphasia

A

C) These symptoms describe the condition called transcortical motor aphasia, a disorder that results from a lesion within the anterior aspect of the speech zone in the frontal lobe.
Because of the dysprosody and effortful speech that the patient exhibits, it is considered a nonfluent type of aphasia.

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10
Q

A patient demonstrates paraphasic speech with semantic substitutions.
Most striking is 10. the patient’s echolalia, or repetition of phrases that are heard. Comprehension is poor in this patient, whereas verbal repetition is considered good. Reading and writing skills are also poor. This individual may be diagnosed as:
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Transcortical sensory aphasia
c. Broca’s aphasia
d. Conduction aphasia

A

B) These symptoms describe the condition called transcortical sensory aphasia, a disorder that results from a lesion within the posterior aspect of the speech zone in the temporal lobe. Because such patients display disordered verbal abilities, marked by echolalia and paraphasias, it is considered a fluent type of aphasia.

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11
Q

The upper motor neuron consists of:
a. Corticopontine, corticobulbar corticospinal fibers
b. Cranial and spinal nerves
c. Both of the above

A

A) The upper motor neuron is associated with the central nervous system that structurally includes the brain and spinal cord, or neuraxis. The pathways indicated help to create the neural connections between the cortex and pons, medulla oblongata, and spinal cord. The upper motor neuron (UMN) is the first-order neuron, meaning that it functions to plan out and organize the instructions needed to carry out voluntary movements seen in speech, swallowing, or limb motion. The cranial and spinal nerves are part of the peripheral nervous system, which comprises the lower motor neuron (LMN). The LMN is considered the second-order neuron, which actually carries out the commands sent to it by the UMN.

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12
Q

The specific aphasic symptom of lexical (word) retrieval deficit seen in patients is known as:
a. Jargon
b. Dyslexia
c. Amnesia
d. Anomia

A

D) Anomia comes from Latin, which is “no name.” Jargon is a different speech characteristic that is marked by excessive, nonsensical verbiage. Dyslexia is a reading disorder. Amnesia is a generalized loss of memory for people, places, and things.

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13
Q

The response elicited in a neurologically impaired patient where the sole of the foot is firmly scratched and the toes fan out is called:
a. Babinski reflex
b. Rooting reflex
c. Moro reflex
d. Cough reflex

A

A) The Babinski reflex is typically seen in
Infateh cortical controllising trom e
through cortical control arising from progressive myelinization of the corticospinal tract. This reemergent reflex is associated with upper motor neuron (UMN) lesions.

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14
Q

A nonprogressive disorder of motion and posture due to brain injury or insult that occurs during early brain growth is:
a. Dystonia
b. Cerebral palsy (CP)
c. Ataxia
d. Dyskinetic

A

B) Cerebral palsy may result from lack of oxygen to the brain and can manifest as spastic CP if the cortical region of the brain is affected, athetoid CP if the basal ganglia is affected, or ataxic CP if the cerebellum is affected.

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15
Q

In cerebral palsy, the syndrome that impairs one leg and one arm on the same side of the 15. body is:
a. Spastic hemiplegia
b. Spastic diplegia
c. Spastic triplegia
d. Spastic quadriplegia

A

A) Hemiplegia refers to one symmetrical half of the body, either the left or the right side. Diplegia affects all four extremities, but the legs are more affected than the arms or hands. Triplegia involves three extremities, usually both legs and one arm. Quadriplegia affects the entire body, including the trunk and all four extremities.

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16
Q

The main branch of the arterial system that feeds the anterior portion of the brain comes from:
a. Vertebral artery
b. Basilar artery
c. Internal carotid artery
d. Posterior carotid artery

A

C) The two internal carotid arteries each branch off into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. The two vertebral arteries join together in the ventral brainstem to form the basilar artery and then split again to form the posterior vertebral arteries.

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17
Q

The type of language disorder that results from a lesion in the frontal lobe and is charac-17. terized by relatively good comprehension but decreased verbal output, effortful speaking, “ dysprosody, difficulty in performing verbal repetitions, poor oral reading and writing, and right hemiparesis is called:
a. Broca’s aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia
c. Conduction aphasia
d. Global aphasia

A

A) Typically the result of damage to the frontal lobe of the left hemisphere, this nonfluent type of aphasia is marked by all the symptoms noted, as well as (possibly) an accompanying motor speech problem, such as apraxia or dysarthria. Both Wernicke’s and conduction aphasia are considered fluent types of aphasia, as the site of lesion is more posterior in the brain and so articulation is generally intact. Global aphasia often results from more diffuse types of lesion and usually affects both comprehension and production.

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18
Q

The language disorder that results from damage to the arcuate fasciculus and results in good comprehension, good articulation but poor repetitions, word-finding difficulties, and oral reading that is paraphasic is called:
a. Broca’s aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia
c. Conduction aphasia
d. Global aphasia

A

C) The arcuate fasciculus is a neural association pathway that connects Broca’s area in the frontal lobe to Wernicke’s area in the temporal lobe. As such the patient with this condition can generally understand routine conversational interactions and demonstrate good comprehension, but has word-finding problems marked by pausing and hesitations. In addition, this patient may exhibit poor spelling as well as poor writing skills.

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19
Q

A patient who has been diagnosed with Huntington’s disease is likely to experience:
a. Hypokinetic dysarthria
b. Hyperkinetic dysarthria
c. Ataxic dysarthria
d. Apraxia of speech

A

B) Persons with Huntington’s disease often display psychiatric conditions as the first manifestation of their illness. Sometimes psychosis develops and depression is common. Movements may appear fidgety, but ultimately a choreoathetoid movement disorder develops. Speech rate and loudness become variable, and articulation becomes increasingly imprecise (hyperkinetic dysarthria).

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20
Q

Sustained, rhythmic jerky motions that are elicited when a muscle or tendon is held in extension are called:
a. Tremor
b. Athetosis
c. Clonus
d. Fasciculation

A

C) Clonus occurs in cases of upper motor neuron (UMN) disease where muscles become spastic due to increased tone. Athetosis is a slow writhing type of motion associated with damage to the basal ganglia. Fasciculations are small local, involuntary muscle contractions that may be visible under the skin. A tremor is an involuntary, somewhat rhythmic, muscle contraction involving to-and-fro movements of one or more body parts. It is differentiated from clonus by the fact that a tremor may occur without being elicited by holding a muscle or tendon in extension.

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21
Q

Aphasia may be seen in:
a. Adults
b. Children
c. Persons across the lifespan

A

C) Aphasia, the language deficit that results from cortical damage to the speech-language centers of the brain, may affect persons both young and old. Unfortunately, there is no protection against the devastation that is wrought by such a condition on the basis of one’s age.

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22
Q

Aphasia is a disorder of:
a. Speech
b. Language
c. Both speech and language
d. Swallowing

A

B) Following a stroke or brain injury, a person may undergo dramatic changes in how they are able to communicate. Aphasia is the language-based disorder that may occur as a result of such neurological events.
Speech disorders, on the other hand, are considered different types of ailments, where either the planning centers for formulating the correct sequence of movements to form speech sounds (phonemes) are hampered (known as the motor speech disorder of apraxia) or the different subsystems that combine to create verbal speech (the respiratory, phonatory, resonatory, and articulatory systems) are unable to complete the tasks that are programmed, resulting in the motor speech disorder of dysarthria.
Dysphagia is a swallowing disorder.

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23
Q

The valve that divides the airway into upper and lower regions is the:
a. Esophagus
b. Trachea
c. Larynx
d. Epiglottis

A

C) The larynx divides the airway into upper and lower regions. Any condition that affects the functionality of the larynx may result in either swallowing problems, voice problems, or both. The trachea is the airway that actually extends from the larynx inferiorly to the lungs.
The esophagus is the tube that carries nutrition to the stomach. The epiglottis, which is part of the larynx, serves a protective function by folding over the vocal fold area during swallowing to protect the airway from infiltration.

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24
Q

A patient was brought to the emergency department after a sudden onset of difficulty speaking. A neurological exam indicated that the patient was experiencing a subcortical aphasia. This would indicate that the patient possibly experienced a lesion in the:
a. Thalamus
b. Precentral gyrus
c. Postcentral gyrus
d. Occipital lobe

A

A) The thalamus is a subcortical structure, located in the diencephalon at the top of the brainstem. Both precentral and postcentral gyri are located adjacent to the central sulcus on the surface of the cortex, whereas the occipital lobe is located in the posterior aspect of the cortex.

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25
Q

The three phases of swallowing are:
a. Oral, pharyngeal, esophageal
b. Tracheal, nasal, pharyngeal
c. Esophageal, tracheal, epiglottic
d. Oral, tracheal, pulmonary

A

A) When we eat, food is formed into a bolus, which must then pass through the oral, pharyngeal, and esophageal cavities before depositing into the stomach.

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26
Q

Where is the pharyngeal stage of swallowing triggered?
a. In the oral cavity
b. Anterior to the epiglottis
c. At the anterior faucial pillars
d. In the esophagus

A

C) As the food bolus leaves the oral cavity and moves backward, it must pass the faucial pillars (where tonsils are located). This region contains sensory receptors that detect the presence of the bolus, which sets into motion a chain of events that result in the bolus moving through the pharynx and entering the esophagus.

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27
Q

Where can residue pool in the pharynx?
a. In the buccal cavity
b. In the vallecular space
c. In the pyriform sinuses
d. A and B but not C
e. B and C but not A

A

E) Both the valleculae and the pyriform sinuses are regions within the pharynx where residue can accumulate if the patient is not able to pass the bolus cohesively. Although food may also pool in the buccal cavities or cheeks, this is considered part of the oral cavity, not the pharynx.

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28
Q

In a normal, healthy individual, esophageal motility takes how long to transport a bolus from the esophagus to the stomach?
a. 1 second
b. 3 to 5 seconds
c. 8 to 20 seconds
d. More than 60 seconds

A

C) The average time it takes for a healthy person to clear the food through the esophagus is between 8 and 20 seconds.

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29
Q

What happens during the pharyngeal stage of swallowing?
a. Vocal folds adduct
b. Epiglottis folds over
c. Larynx elevates and moves anteriorly
d. All of the above

A

D) In addition to these physical movements, the velopharyngeal port closes to prevent nasal regurgitation of food and the upper esophageal sphincter relaxes to allow movement of the bolus into the esophagus.
All these things occur in the space of a single second, upon the triggering of the pharyngeal swallow stage with the passage of the bolus by the faucial pillars.

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30
Q

Dysphagia may be due to:
a. Neurological dysfunction
b. Cancer
C. Aging
d. All of the above

A

D) Swallowing disorders affect a wide range of people in different situations. It can occur throughout the lifespan, from infancy to advanced age.

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31
Q

With right-sided weakness that accompanies a left hemispheric stroke, what maneuver can be employed to prevent pooling of food or liquid in the right pyriform sinus?
a. Chin tuck
b. Mendelsohn maneuver
c. Head turn to the right
d. Head turn to the left

A

C) Advances in swallow therapy over the years have shown the benefit of having patients with right hemiparesis turn their heads to the weaker side (in this case, the right) to prevent food buildup that could cause penetration and/or aspiration if left unchecked.

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32
Q

The procedure whereby the stomach is pulled up around the lower esophageal sphincter 32. to control acid reflux is called:
a. Esophageal dilation
b. Gastrostomy
c. Jejunostomy
d. Fundoplication

A

D) Dilation is performed to help increase the lumen of the esophageal tube, whereas gastrostomy and jejunostomy procedures are performed to help provide nutrition to a patient nonorally. Fundoplication is a surgical procedure employed to help control severe reflux.

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33
Q

When the head and the tail of the bolus do not pass through the pharyngeal segment cohesively, this is:
a. Cervical auscultation
b. Piecemeal swallow
c. Esophageal dysmotility
d. A problem with mastication

A

B) Piecemeal refers to the noncohesive manner in which people sometimes swallow food and liquid. It may take/them several attempts, gulp after gulp after gulp, before what they have put into their mouths has been completely cleared.

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34
Q

Dysphagia treatment is not intended to:
a. Prevent obesity
b. Prevent aspiration
c. Improve nutrition
d. Improve hydration

A

A) Helping a person improve their swallowing ability is helping to ensure good health. In no way is it intended to keep a person from becoming overweight. Dysphagia treatment helps a person to learn how to swallow safely and to prevent aspiration events, while ensuring good nutrition and hydration.

35
Q

Which of the following is not useful in evaluating a patient with a swallowing disorder?
a. EEG (electroencephalogram)
b. Stethoscope
c. Fluoroscopy
d. Calorie count

A

A) An EEG measures brain activity, but not what happens during the course of normal or disordered swallowing. A stethoscope can be used to perform cervical auscultation at the throat while a person is swallowing to hear the quality of the swallowing event. A fluoroscope can be used during a modified barium swallow procedure. A speech language pathologist may recommend a calorie count over 3 davs to determine how much food a patient consumes by mouth.

36
Q

A modified barium swallow (MBS) study:
a. Is conducted in two views
b. Is only used with adult patients
c. Utilizes magnetic fields
d. Requires nasoendoscopy to perform

A

A) A patient is viewed in both the lateral and anteroposterior fields to get a good sense of how well they are able to swallow. The two fields allow for better visualization of anatomical structures that provide the clinician with useful information regarding the tolerance the patient exhibits for the different food and liquid consistencies provided.

37
Q

What problem(s) may result from a prolonged oral phase of swallowing?
a. Esophageal dysmotility
b. Nasal regurgitation)
c. Gastro-esophageal reflux
d. Fatigue/disinterest/improper nutrition

A

D) Both esophageal dysmotility and gastro-esophageal reflux occur during the final stage of swallowing, not the first (oral) stage. In addition, nasal regurgitation would occur if the velopharyngeal port does not properly close off the nasopharynx during the second (pharyngeal) stage of swallowing.
Food remaining too long in the oral cavity may lead to fatigue, as well as disinterest on the part of the patient to continue with his or her meal. Thus improper nutrition may result.

38
Q

Common anatomical sites that are observed in a modified barium swallow
(MBS) study include all of the following except:
a. Nasal sinuses
b. Pyriform sinuses
c. Valleculae
d. Nasopharyngeal port

A

A) The valleculae are visualized in the lateral aspect during an MBS study, whereas the pyriform sinuses are visualized in the anteroposterior view. The nasopharyngeal port can be similarly viewed when the patient is positioned in the lateral aspect. The MBS procedure is not designed, nor is it sufficiently sensitive, to view the nasal sinuses.

39
Q

When a patient does not cough after material has passed into their trachea because of a lack of sensation, this is called:
a. Vallecular pooling
b. Pyriform sinus pooling
c. Silent aspiration
d. Poor bolus transport

A

C) Typically, when a healthy individual inadvertently passes material into the trachea, a cough reflex is triggered. However, in some people who lack sensory awareness, the passage of food or liquid past the glottis into the trachea does not trigger a cough, which is the body’s protective mechanism to rid itself of possible aspirant. As a result, a silent aspiration can occur.

40
Q

Apraxia of swallowing:
a. May follow a left anterior stroke
b. Results in delayed initiation of the oral stage of swallowing
c. Has accompanying limited tongue movement for bolus preparation
d. All of the above

A

D) Apraxia is a motor planning problem that results from a left anterior stroke in the frontal lobe. The result, depending on severity, is difficulty in planning the motor sequences needed for verbal speech (verbal apraxia), oral motor movements (oral apraxia, which could include apraxia for swallowing), as well as voluntary movements of the
extremities (limb apraxia).

41
Q

What can a person with apraxia for swallowing do to help improve the process of eating?
a. Be fed small boluses by the speech-language pathologist or direct care provider
b. Restrict the amount of salt used
c. Use a swallowing maneuver called effortful swallow
d. Feed themselves without listening to a lot of verbal directions

A

D) Apraxia is a disorder in motor planning, not motor execution. This implies that a person can follow through on motor movements as long as the patient is not thinking about what they are doing. If the movement required for completion of the task (e.g., chewing) becomes a conscious thought and no longer an automatic one, the patient may begin to stumble and/or grope about and be unable to complete the motoric sequence.

42
Q

A disordered narrowing of the esophagus is known as:
a. Diverticulum
b. Fistula
c. Achalasia
d. Sphincter

A

C) A diverticulum does not describe narrowing–it is an outpocketing of the esophagus where small bolus particles may accumulate. A fistula is an opening between two structures (the esophagus and the trachea. A sphincter is a ring of muscles that opens and/or closes the top and bottom ends of the esophagus.

43
Q

What is the primary reason a pérson would require a jejunostomy?
a. Surgeon’s choice
b. Religious reasons
c. Uncontrolled reflux
d. Tracheal penetration

A

C) A J-tube, or jejunostomy, is required when a person has uncontrolled reflux and poor absorption of stomach contents. The J-tube bypasses the stomach lining and introduces tube feedings directly into the jejunum to aid in nutritional absorption.

44
Q

Anterior-posterior bolus propulsion:
a. Is based on adequate oral-pharyngeal muscle strength and intraoral pressure
b. Relies on cranial nerve VII
C. Can be seen on fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallow (FEES) exam
d. All of the above

A

A) To swallow, a person must move the bolus from a forward to backward position.
The VII (facial) cranial nerve, while it has both a sensory and motor component, is not responsible for bolus movement. The oral cavity cannot be viewed on a FEES examination, as only the pharyngeal stage of swallowing is visualized (based on the positioning of the probe)

45
Q

Oral dysphagia signs and symptoms do not include:
a. Oro-facial asymmetry
b. Difficulty holding food/liquid in mouth
c. Nasal regurgitation
d. Anterior-posterior (AP) transport to faucial pillars

A

C) Oro-facial asymmetry may result from left or right hemiparesis secondary to a stroke, which is an indication that the mouth may be incapable of holding food or liquid intraorally; both are oral stage signs of dysphagia. AP transport is the movement of the food or liquid back to the threshold of the throat at the faucial pillar region, another sign of oral stage dysphagia. Nasal regurgitation results from poor velopharyngeal closure that allows the bolus, after coughing, to shoot upward and enter the nasal cavity posteriorly a sign of pharyngeal stage dysphagia.

46
Q

During a modified barium swallow procedure, penetration of the laryngeal vestibule would be considered an example of:
a. Oral stage disorder
b. Pharyngeal stage disorder
c. Esophageal stage disorder
d. None of the above

A

B) Pooling or penetration of the bolus above the glottis is considered a pharyngeal stage problem of swallowing. If left unchecked, penetration may lead to aspiration, which is migration of the bolus past the glottis and into the trachea itself.

47
Q

Dysphagia is often seen in patients who have experienced a stroke.
Consequently, it may be associated with:
a. Dementia
b. Dysarthria
c. Apraxia
d. All of the above

A

D) Both dysarthria and apraxia (motor speech disorders) may occur in cases of stroke. Furthermore, a person who has had multiple strokes may suffer from dementia.
Swallowing problems are quite prevalent in the neurologically impaired patient.

48
Q

What is the most common cause of swallowing disorders?
a. Mechanical
b. Functional
c. Behavioral/cognitive
d. Neurological

A

D) Swallowing is the physical ability we possess to sense the texture, taste, and temperature of foods and liguids that are introduced to our mouths so that we can then perform the proper motoric movements necessary to chew and/or otherwise prepare the bolus before swallowing it. It includes both motor and sensory functions, both of which are controlled by the upper and lower motor neurons of the neurological system.

49
Q

Disordered swallowing may result from lesions in the basal ganglia and is likely associated with:
a. Postural instability
b. Prolonged oral phase of swallowing
c. Tongue rigidity
d. All of the above

A

D) The subcortical region of the brain (known as the basal ganglia) is also known as the indirect activation pathway, meaning that it is responsible for the proximal muscles of the body that control such things as tone and posture. Persons with basal ganglia problems may experience both postural instabilities (standing or sitting upright) as well as muscle tone issues (including hypertonicity) that can lead to muscle rigidity. Tongue rigidity can affect how well a person moves the bolus in an anterior-posterior direction.

50
Q

Proximal escape occurs when:
a. Stomach acid flows up the esophagus
b. A bolus escapes through the nasal cavity
c. A bolus enters the pyriform
sinuses
d. A bolus moves back up the esophagus before entering the stomach

A

D) This phenomenon can occur when esophageal motility is affected. It may be due to poor sphincter control at the distal end of the esophagus, resulting in back flow, or due to a narrowing of the esophageal lumen. It is different from reflux in that the material that flows back has not initially entered the stomach and thus has not been mixed with stomach acids.

51
Q

Esophageal dysphagia signs and symptoms do not include:
a. Feeling of globus
b. Heartburn
c. Quick feeling of fullness
d. Wet vocal quality

A

D) A wet vocal quality is indicative of bolus pooling in the vicinity of the glottis, or vocal fold region (a pharyngeal stage sign of dysphagia). Globus, or the sensation of food being stuck, is usually reported by patients to occur in an area that is actually not the true location of the material. Heartburn, or reflux, is the feeling that patients report when stomach contents spill back into the esophagus and cause a burning sensation.
The feeling of fullness that some patients report long before the meal is over is due to a narrowing of the esophageal lumen that causes food and liquid to build up in the esophageal column.

52
Q

What is the least relevant factor when evaluating a patient suspected of having dysphagia?
a. Cognitive disorder
b. Cranial nerve VIl deficit
c. Cranial nerve I deficit
d. Dysarthria

A

C) The first cranial nerve is the olfactory nerve, a sensory nerve responsible for our sense of smell. Although it may be a benefit to smell our food before or while eating it, it does not contribute to a swallowing problem.
Cognitive problems, problems with cranial nerve VII (facial nerve), and dysarthria (a motor speech problem that results from neurological problems) all may contribute to a swallowing problem.

53
Q

In conducting an oral facial exam on a cleft palate infant, which would be of least concern regarding his or her feeding ability?
a. Respiratory function
b. Rooting reflex
c. Bite reflex
d. Hearing ability

A

D) A hearing impairment would not affect\ the feeding ability of a child (with or without cleft palate). On the other hand, it would be essential to assess its rooting and bite reflexes, as these contribute greatly to how a child takes nourishment orally. Furthermore, it would be very important to track that child’s respiratory function, if simply to determine that the child is not aspirating on foods and liquids while feeding.

54
Q

The most accurate way to visualize structural changes in the pharynx brought on by reflux would be:
a. Modified barium swallow
b. Esophagram
c. Fiberoptic endoscopic evaluation of swallow (FEES)
d. Manometry

A

C) The FEES test allows the examiner to view the larynx from a position above the glottis. The test can assess for spillage into the glottal opening, pooling in the vallecular space or pyriforms, or reflux back up from the esophagus. A modified barium swallow and an esophagram are procedures done in an X-rav suite and allow the examiner a radiologic view of barium traces. Manometry is a procedure whereby any narrowing of the esophageal lumen can be made wider through tube and balloon manipulation.

55
Q

You are consulted for a 65-year-old woman 6 weeks after a new-onset stroke.
She is still having difficulty swallowing and requires evaluation for a feeding tube. Her infarct most likely arises from:
a. Brainstem
b. Pons
c. Anterior cerebral artery
d. Middle cerebral artery

A

A) Patients with dysphagia from a unilateral stroke usually improve rapidly within the first few weeks after the onset of symptoms. Only ~2% of patients still have difficulty after 1 month poststroke. However, patients with brainstem strokes may progress more slowly and require tube feeding. A patient with continued difficulty feeding or swallowing more than 4 weeks after a stroke is likely to have undergone damage to the brainstem.

56
Q

The chin-tuck maneuver offers all of the following benefits for patients with pharyngeal phase dysphagia except:
a. Widens the vallecula
b. Reduces the airway opening
c. Reduces the space between tongue base and posterior pharyngeal wall
d. Tucks food underneath the tongue base

A

D) The chin-tuck maneuver provides several mechanical advantages for the patient with pharyngeal phase dysphagia. It widens the vallecula, allowing the bolus to rest there while the reflex is triggered. It reduces the airway opening. Finally, it reduces the space between tongue base and posterior pharyngeal wall, therefore increasing pharyngeal pressure to more effectively propel the bolus through the pharynx.

57
Q

The supraglottic swallow occurs in the following chronological order:
a. Deep breath held in inspiration, swallow, throat clearing, swallow, breath
b. Breath, deep breath held in inspiration, Valsalva, swallow, throat clearing, swallow
c. Breath, deep breath held in inspiration, Valsalva, throat clearing, swallow, swallow
d. Swallow, throat clearing, breath, deep breath held in inspiration, swallow

A

A) The supraglottic swallow is composed of five main sequential steps. The patient holds a deep breath, swallows, clears the throat, then swallows again, before resuming breathing. This allows the minimal amount of time possible for airway opening to reduce the risk of aspiration. Choices B and C include Valsalva, which is characteristic of a super supraglottic swallow.

58
Q

The Mendelson maneuver involves:
a. Performing a Valsalva maneuver and subsequent throat clearing in between swallows
b. Tucking the chin to increase pharyngeal pressure before swallowing
c. Holding a swallow midway for 3 to 5 seconds before completing the swallow
d. Head rotation to the weaker side before swallowing

A

C)The Mendelson maneuver involves holding a swallow midway for 3 to 5 seconds before completing the swallow. This allows more complete cricopharyngeal relaxation, improving pharyngeal clearance in patients with incomplete relaxation or premature closing of the cricopharyngeus. Choice A, performing Valsalva maneuver and subsequent throat clearing in between swallows, is part of the super supraglottic swallow technique. Choices A and B are useful for patients with pharyngeal-phase dysphagia due to reduced laryngeal closure. In choice D, head rotation to the weaker side before swallowing also aids patients with pharyngeal phase dysphagia, but it is most helpful when the problem is specifically due to delayed swallow reflex, not incomplete cricopharyngeal relaxation.

59
Q

The most common type of dysphagia is:
a. Oral phase dysphagia
b. Pharyngeal phase dysphagia
c. Supraglottal phase dysphagia
d. Esophageal phase dysphagia

A

B) There are three phases of swallowing: the oral phase, the pharyngeal phase, and the esophageal phase. Pharyngeal phase dysphagia is the most common. It is usually the shortest phase with the least amount of time for compensation or correction, yet it requires the most precise coordination from multiple muscle groups. It is most often appreciated on physical exam by a wet, gurgly voice with coughing. Answer choice C is not considered a separate phase of swallowing.

60
Q

Techniques for a delayed swallow reflex include all of the following except:
a. Chin tuck
b. Supraglottic swallow
c. Head rotation to the weaker side
d. Thinned liquids

A

D) Thinned liguids would further decrease the time taken for the substance to pass through the pharyngeal musculature before the swallow reflex goes into effect.

61
Q

Oral phase dysphagia may be a result of which of the following?
a. Facial weakness
b. Poor lingual control
c. A and B
d. None of the above

A

C) Oral phase dysphagia can arise from facial weakness, poor lingual control, or both.
Several compensation mechanisms can be taught in therapy for this condition. For facial weakness, food texture can be modified and food can be placed at the back of the mouth or on the stronger side of the face. The head can also be tilted toward the stronger side.
Sucking/blowing exercises may be helpful..
EMG biofeedback performed by the physician may be helpful as well. For poor lingual control, tongue active range of motion and strengthening can be prescribed. Precise articulation should be encouraged in conjunction with this technique.

62
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for the interpretation of sensory information and 62. proprioception?
a. Frontal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Temporal lobe
d. Occipital lobe

A

B) The cerebrum can be spatially organized into lobes on the basis of the. function each provides. The frontal lobe is responsible for voluntary motor function. The parietal lobe allows interpretation of sensory information and proprioception. The temporal lobe provides long-term memory storage, and the occipital lobe interprets visual information.

63
Q

Which of the following represents a nonfluent type of aphasia?
a. Wernicke’s aphasia
b. Broca’s aphasia
c. Anomic aphasia
d. Conduction aphasia

A

B) Nonfluent aphasia differs from fluent in that the patient is unable to connect words and sentences in a smooth, fluid manner.
Broca’s aphasia is an injury to the third frontal convolution of the left, or language dominant, hemisphere (Broca’s area. The speech of these patients is characteristically disconnected and “broken” with many occurrences of the patient not being able to remember the words he or she is trying to say. Another nonfluent aphasia is global aphasia, in which the patient is marked by deficits in both comprehension and production of language and usually is affected by lesions involving both Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas. The other answer choices all represent fluent aphasias. Wernicke’s aphasia produces deficits in auditory comprehension, with produced words mixed with jargon or nonsense syllabic combinations called paraphasias. Anomic aphasia presents with a patient unable to produce the names of objects, but has intact auditory comprehension.

64
Q

The term paraphasia refers to:
a. Paraplegia of the facial muscles
b. Partial dysphagia not meeting criteria for any of the main categories of aphasias
c. Jargon or nonsense vocalizations, or nonverbal or combinations of syllables
d. Pseudodysphagia

A

C) The definition of paraphasias is a group of jargon or nonsense vocalizations, or nonverbal or combinations of syllables. This pattern of speech often presents in patients with Wernicke’s aphasia.

65
Q

Anomic aphasia is likely to occur from a lesion from any of the following areas of the brain except:
a. Angular gyrus
b. Second temporal gyrus
c. Juncture of the temporal lobes
d. Fronto-parietal junction

A

D)This variety of fluent aphasia may be caused by lesions in one or more different regions of the brain, including the angular gyrus, the second temporal gyrus, or at the juncture of the temporal lobes. With this type of language disorder, a patient is typically unable to verbalize the names of objects.
However, the condition does allow most other language functions aside from naming to remain intact, such as auditory
comprehénsion. Therefore, the fronto-parietal junction, which is involved in auditory comprehension, would not likely be affected.

66
Q

Aspiration is most likely to occur during which phase of swallowing:
a. Oral
b. Pharyngeal
c. Proximal esophageal
d. Distal esophageal

A

B) During the pharyngeal phase of swallowing, breathing is interrupted and the laryngeal opening is exposed. The laryngeal opening is protected by the folding of the epiglottis, the closure of the vocal cords, and elevation and anterior displacement of the Tarynx. Dysfunction at any of these locations results in risk of aspiration.

67
Q

The time it takes for propulsion of food through the pharynx is:
a. 0.3 seconds
b. 0.6 seconds
c. 0.9 seconds
d. 1.2 seconds

A

B) Propulsion of a bolus of food through the pharynx during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing takes 0.6 seconds. If this function is slowed or delayed, there is increased exposure of the bolus to the larynx and therefore increased chance of aspiration through the laryngeal opening.

68
Q

Which muscle is an inferior pharyngeal constrictor?
a. Cricopharyngeus muscle
b. Cricothyroid muscle
c. Pterygoid muscle
d. Arytenoid muscle

A

A) The cricopharyngeus muscle is an inferior pharyngeal constrictor. It is unique in that it constricts as the other muscles of the inferior pharynx relax. It is the only muscle serving as a closed mechanism to prevent esophageal reflux into the pharynx.

69
Q

In patients with swallowing disorders, water-soluble agents with high osmolality should not be used because of the risk of aspiration-induced pulmonary edema.
a. True
b. False

A

A) Agents that are water soluble often are highly osmolar. This property leaves them highly susceptible for causing pulmonary edema if accidentally aspirated into the lungs.

70
Q

Which imaging modality is best to capture tongue movements and swallowing motion?
a. Ultrasound
b. Scintigraphy
c. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)
d. Fast low-angle shot magnetic.
resonance imaging (FLASH-MRI)

A

D) FLASH-MRI is best for speech, tongue movements, and swallowing motion with multiple images able to be captured quickly at low angles. Although it is helpful in delineation of soft tissues, ultrasound can only capture the region of the tongue posterior to the hyoid level. Scintigraphy is not as useful in pharyngeal swallowing disorders as MRI. It may be useful in quantitative and qualitative evaluation of.
esophageal motility disorders and gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
However, these conditions are often best evaluated with manometry.

71
Q

What nerve is responsible for salivation?
a. Maxillary nerve
b. Mandibular nerve
c. Facial nerve
d. Lingual nerve

A

C) The facial nerve, cranial nerve (CN) VII, is responsible for activation of the salivary glands. The branches of CN VII that innervate the salivary glands are general visceral efferent nerves that carry parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular and sublingual glands. The maxillary and mandibular nerves are branches of CN V, the trigeminal nerve.
The lingual nerve is a branch of the mandibular nerve, providing sensation to the tongue. During the oral phase of swallowing, insufficient or overproduction of saliva can cause problems with the swallowing sequence.

72
Q

What nerve innervates the muscles of mastication?
a. Facial
b. Laryngeal
c. Vagus
d. Trigeminal

A

D) The mandibular division of the trigeminal nerve controls the muscles of mastication, which is involved in the oral phase of swallowing. These muscles include the temporalis, masseter, and medial and lateral ptergoids. The mandibular division also sends fibers to the tensor veli palatini muscle, which tenses the palate.

73
Q

Which of the following is not a predictor of aspiration on bedside swallowing exam?
a. Decreased pharyngeal peristalsis
b. Dysphonia
c. Dysarthria
d. Cough or voice change after swallow

A

A) Decreased pharyngeal peristalsis can be reliably diagnosed on video fluoroscopic swallowing study (VFSS). All of the other answer choices can be appreciated on physical exam. In contrast to the other answer choices, decreased pharyngeal peristalsis can actually protect against aspiration by giving the airway more time to close. Voice changes (either wet or gurgling) can increase the suspicion for aspiration.

74
Q

What is the most common direct cause of dysphagia?
a. Delayed pharyngeal swallow
b. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
c. Unilateral weakness in one or more muscles of mastication
d. Facial droop with incomplete lip closure

A

A) The most common cause of dysphagia occurs during the pharyngeal phase of swallowing. Choices C and D occur during the oral phase of swallowing, and choice B occurs at the esophageal level.

75
Q

Which of the following choices depicts the pharyngeal phase of swallowing in chronological order?
a. Tongue elevation, soft palate elevation, laryngeal elevation, pharyngeal constriction and cricopharyngeal relaxation
b. Tongue elevation, soft palate elevation, pharyngeal constriction and cricopharyngeal relaxation, laryngeal elevation
c. Tongue elevation, laryngeal elevation, soft palate elevation, pharyngeal constriction and cricopharyngeal relaxation
d. Tongue elevation, pharyngeal constriction and cricopharyngeal relaxation, soft palate elevation, laryngeal elevation

A

A) Soft palate elevations, also seen in the oral phase of swallowing and velopharyngeal port closure, serve to close off the nasal cavity and prevent regurgitation into the nasopharynx. Laryngeal elevation with folding of epiglottis and vocal cord adduction works to prevent aspiration. Coordinated pharyngeal constriction and cricopharyngeal in the upper esophageal sphincter relaxation facilitate bolus transport into the esophagus.

76
Q

The compensatory response of chin tuck involves tilting the head to the paretic side.
a. True
b. False

A

B) Rotating the head to the paretic side closes the ipsilateral pharynx, forces the bolus into the contralateral pharynx, and decreases cricopharyngeal pressures. Head tilt, on the other hand, involves side bending to guide the bolus into the ipsilateral pharynx with gravity. The question describes the compensatory response of head tilt. Chin tuck involves forward flexion of the neck, widening the vallecula and reducing the chance of aspiration.

77
Q

Which type of aphasia may be improved with melodic intonation therapy?
a. Conduction aphasia
b. Transcortical sensory aphasia
c. Wernicke’s aphasia
d. Broca’s aphasia

A

D) Melodic intonation therapy recruits the right hemisphere for communication by incorporating melodies or rhythms with simple statements. It is helpful in patients with nonfluent aphasia. Broca’s aphasia is the only answer choice that describes a nonfluent aphasia.

78
Q

The greatest amount of improvement in patients with aphasia occurs within what time frame?
a. 3 weeks
b. 3 months
C. 6 months
d. 1 year

A

B) The greatest level of improvement in patients with aphasia occurs in the first 2 to 3 months after the onset. By 6 months, there is a significant drop in the rate of recovery. The majority of cases of patients with aphasia do not recover spontaneously after 1 year.

79
Q

Which vessel is often involved in patients with global aphasia?
a. Anterior cerebral artery (ACA)
b. Middle cerebral artery (MCA)
c. Posterior cerebral artery (PCA)
d. Basilar artery

A

B) Global aphasia describes the most severe form of language deficits in which both written and spoken language are impaired. It often involves both Broca’s and Wernicke’s areas and spans over both anterior and posterior regions of the brain. The MCA is the only vessel of the four answer choices that affects both anterior and posterior regions of the cerebrum, and is often associated with global aphasia.

80
Q

Which of the choices below describes a fluent aphasia?
a. Transcortical motor
b. Mixed transcortical
c. Transcortical sensory
d. All of the above

A

C) The nonfluent aphasias are Broca’s, global, transcortical motor, and mixed transcortical. In transcortical motor, repetition can be intact. In mixed transcortical, there may be some comprehension, but repetition may be impaired (making it a nonfluent aphasia). The fluent aphasias are Wernicke’s conduction, anomia, and transcortical sensory. In transcortical sensory, there is no comprehension ability. Unlike Wernicke’s aphasia, however, repetition is intact, making it a fluent aphasia.

81
Q

The benefits of the video fluoroscopic evaluation include:
a. Diagnostic indications
b. Therapeutic indications
c. A and B
d. None of the above

A

C) The video fluoroscopic evaluation is a radiographic tool used to diagnose causes of swallowing disorders. Food particles mixed with barium are swallowed as X-ray imaging of the process is obtained. Because the images are moving (and therefore able to evaluate function), the evaluation can be therapeutic as well. A speech pathologist can work with the physiatrist to tr different compensatory maneuvers by the patient and see immediate results of the efforts recorded by the radiologist. Alternative sizes and textures of foods can be trialed during the procedure. In this way, the video fluoroscopic evaluation can be both diagnostic and therapeutic.

82
Q

The distinguishing feature of the super supraglottic swallow when compared with the supraglottic swallow is:
a. The patient performs a Valsalva maneuver concomitantly
b. The patient provides an extra cough at the beginning of the maneuver
c. The patient tilts the head posteriorly allowing superion displacement of the epiglottis
d. The patient tilts the head anteriorly allowing the bolus to pass superior to the epiglottis

A

A) The super supraglottic swallow is designed to close the entrance to the airway voluntarily by tilting the arytenoid cartilage anteriorly to the base of the epiglottis before and during the swallow. Bearing down helps to tilt the arytenoid anteriorly and close the entrance to the airway earlier in the swallowing sequence. This strategy is used in patients with reduced closure of the airway entrance, such as those who have undergone a supraglottic laryngectomy. The supraglottic swallow, on the other hand, uses holding of the breath without adding Valsalva. This technique may be used in patients whose vocal folds may or may not achieve full closure.

83
Q

The type of speech pathology due to a motor disorder is called:
a. Aphasia
b. Dysphagia
c. Dysarthria
d. Dysphonia

A

C) Dysarthria is a speech disorder due to the motor efferent pathway of speech production. Aphasia, on the other hand, is a speech disorder due to the cognitive pathway of speech production that involves processing of language. Dysphagia refers to a swallowing disorder, and dysphonia represents inability to produce sounds with tone regardless of whether those sounds are words with meaning. Often a patient with dysphonia will present with a hoarse voice.