GILES A Flashcards
A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test on a patient with unilateral lower extremity weakness. The physical therapist should test the patient’s hip adductors with the patient positioned in:
A. Prone
B. Sidelying
C. Standing
D. Supine
Correct Answer: Sidelying
The hip adductors include the adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, and gracillis
A. A prone position would not be utilized to test the hip adductors, however, would be an appropriate position to test the hamstrings and gluteus maximus muscles.
B. The strength of the hip adductors is assessed with the patient positioned in sidelying with the test leg closest to the surface in an adducted position. The physical therapist should apply pressure to the distal aspect of the femur, pushing downward in an attempt to abduct the lower extremity.
C. Standing would not be an appropriate position to test the hip adductors since it would be extremely difficult to adequately stabilize the body and prevent substitution. In addition, the activity would not be considered against gravity.
D. A supine position would not be utilized to test the hip adductors, however, would be an appropriate position to test the Sartorius and the tensor fasciae late muscles.
A patient reports feeling tenderness and sensitivity to pressure in an area of the hand consistent with the marking in the image. This subjective finding is MOST consistent with:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Dupuytren’s contracture
C. De Ouervain’s disease
D. Ulnar nerve entrapment
Correct Answer: Dupuytren’s contracture
Medical conditions often have several characteristic signs and symptoms that can help distinguish the condition from other similar conditions. Knowledge of this information can assist physical therapists to develop appropriate plans of care and maximize patient outcomes.
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a peripheral nerve entrapment injury that occurs as a result of compression of the median nerve where it passes through the carpal tunnel. A patient with CTS will initially present with sensory changes and paresthesias along the median nerve distribution in the hand. The sensory changes and paresthesias may also radiate into the upper extremity, shoulder, and neck.
B. Dupuytren’s contracture is a contracture of the palmar fascia of the hand which results in a flexion deformity of involved metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. This deformity most commonly affects the fourth and fifth digits.
The condition is characterized initialy by nodules and thickened tissue near the distal palmar crease in the palm region below the ring finger and little finger. This area is often tender and sensitive to pressure.
C. De Quervain’s disease refers to inflammation of the sheath that surrounds the abductor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis tendons at the wrist. This condition is likely to produce pain or discomfort in the area of the distal radius.
D. Ulnar nerve entrapment occurs due to compression, injury or irritation of the ulnar nerve. A patient with ulnar nerve entrapment at the wrist will often report weakness and numbness in the ulnar nerve distribution, but would be less likely to experience tenderness and sensitivity to pressure. This condition is more common at the elbow than the wrist.
A physician completes a physical examination on a 16-year-old male who injured his knee while playing in a soccer contest yesterday. The physician’s preliminary diagnosis is a grade I anterior cruciate ligament injury. Which of the following diagnostic tools would be the MOST appropriate in the immediate medical management of the patient?
A. Bone scan
B. Computed tomography
C. Magnetic resonance imaging
D. X-ray
Correct Answer: X-ray
A grade II anterior cruciate ligament injury most often presents with moderate pain and swelling, minimal instability of the joint and decreased range of motion. The physician would make the diagnosis based on the patient’s clinical presentation and the results of ligamentous testing such as the Lachman test, lateral pivot shift maneuver or anterior drawer test.
A. A bone scan is a diagnostic test that utilizes radioactive isotopes to identify areas of bone that are hypervascular or have an increased rate of bone mineral turnover. Bone scans are most commonly used to detect bone disease or stress fractures.
B. Computed tomography produces cross-sectional images based on x-ray attenuation. A computerized analysis of the changes in absorption produces a detailed reconstructed image. The test is commonly used to diagnose spinal lesions and in diagnostic studies of the brain.
C. Magnetic resonance imaging is a non-invasive diagnostic test that utilizes magnetic fields to produce an image of bone and soft tissue. The test is valuable in providing images of soft tissue structures such as muscles, menisci, ligaments, tumors, and internal organs. The test would be the most beneficial to confirm the presence of an anterior cruciate ligament injury, however. due to the cost of the diagnostic test and the availability of the testing units it is unlikely that the test would be used in the immediate medical management.
D. X-ray is a radiographic photograph commonly used to assist with the diagnosis of musculoskeletal pathology such as fractures, dislocations, and bone loss. An x-ray is a relatively cost effective diagnostic test often utilized in the immediate medical management to rule out the possibility of an associated fracture.
A physical therapist performs goniometric measurements on a 38-year-old female rehabilitating from an acromioplasty. The therapist attempts to stabilize the scapula while measuring glenohumeral abduction. Failure to stabilize the scapula will lead
to:
A. Downward rotation and elevation of the scapula
B. Downward rotation and depression of the scapula
C. Upward rotation and elevation of the scapula
D. Upward rotation and depression of the scapula
Correct Answer: Upward rotation and elevation of the scapula
Normal glenohumeral abduction is 0-120 degrees. When measuring glenohumeral abduction, the axis of the goniometer should be placed over the anterior aspect of the acromion process. The stationary arm should be positioned parallel to the midline of the anterior aspect of the sternum and the moveable arm should be positioned on the medial midline of the humerus. Failure to stabilize the scapular will result in the obtained range of motion value being greater than the actual amount of glenohumeral abduction available.
A. Glenohumeral abduction requires upward rotation of the scapula and not downward rotation.
B. Glenohumeral abduction requires upward rotation and elevation of the scapula and not downward rotation and depression
C. Failure to stabilize the scapula when measuring and elevation of the scapula. When measuring should complex abduction, the thorax should be stabilized to prevent lateral flexion of the trunk.
D. Glenohumeral abduction requires elevation of the scapula and not depression.
A physical therapist performs an examination on a 46-year-old male patient diagnosed with piriformis syndrome. The patient indicates he has experienced pain in his low back and buttock region for the last three weeks. Which motions would you expect to be weak and painful during muscle testing based on the patient’s diagnosis?
A. Abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh
B. Abduction and medial rotation of the thigh
C. Adduction and lateral rotation of the thigh
D. Adduction and medial rotation of the thigh
Abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh
Correct Answer: A
Piriformis syndrome refers to a condition in which the piriformis muscle irritates the sciatic nerve causing pain in the buttock and referred pain along the course of the sciatic nerve. The piriformis muscle originates on the anterior surface of the sacrum and the sacrotuberous ligament and inserts on the greater trochanter of the femur. The muscle is innervated by the sacral plexus.
A. The patient would likely present with pain and weakness with resisted abduction and lateral rotation of the thigh since the motions are consistent with the action of the piriformis muscle.
B. The patient would likely present with pain and weakness with resisted abduction of the thigh, however, would not with resisted medial rotation.
C. The patient would not likely experience pain and weakness with resisted adduction, however, may with lateral rotation.
D. The patient would not likely experience pain and weakness with resisted adduction or medial rotation of the thigh since the motions are the exact opposite of the piriformis muscle’s action.
A physical therapist assesses a patient’s upper extremity deep tendon reflexes as part of a screening examination. The MOST appropriate location to elicit the brachioradialis reflex is the:
A. Radial tuberosity
B. Antecubital fossa
C. Biceps tendon
D. Stvloid process of the radius
Stvloid process of the radius
Correct Answer: D
The brachioradialis muscle is innervated by the radial nerve via C5-C6 nerve root, however, the reflex is largely a function of C6. The brachioradialis muscle is the only muscle in the body that extends from the distal end of one bone to the distal end of another.
A. The radial tuberosity is an oval projection from the medial surface of the radius, immediately distal to the neck. The biceps brachi tendon inserts on the radial tuberosity.
B. The antecubital fossa is a triangular cavity of the elbow that contains the tendon of the biceps, the median nerve, and the brachial artery.
C. The biceps reflex (CS-C6) is tested by tapping over the biceps tendon of the thumb of the therapist placed directly over the biceps tendon in the antecubital fossa.
D. The brachioradialis reflex is tested by tapping the brachioradialis tendon at the distal end of the radius with the flat edge of the reflex hammer.
A physical therapist completes a respiratory assessment on a patient in an acute care hospital. The examination reveals decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus. This finding is MOST indicative of:
A. Pleural effusion
B. Pulmonary edema
C. Consolidation
D. Atelectasis
Pleural effusion
Correct Answer: A
Decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus are most likely caused by pleural effusion or pneumothorax. Pulmonary edema, consolidation, and atelectasis are often associated with decreased breath sounds and increased fremitus.
A. Pleural effusion is an accumulation of fluid between the layers of the membrane that lines the lungs and the chest cavity.
Abnormal lung pressures secondary to congestive heart failure often cause transudative pleural effusion. Exudative effusion results from inflammation of the pleura caused by lung disease.
B. Pulmonary edema is an accumulation of fluid in the alveolar spaces. The condition is most often associated with decreased breath sounds and increased fremitus.
C. Consolidation refers to an area of the lung that is filled with fluid. The fluid may be edema, inflammatory exudate, pus, water or blood. The condition is most often associated with decreased breath sounds and increased fremitus on the side of the consolidation.
D. Atelectasis is the absence of gas in part or all of a lung due to a collapse of the lung tissue. The condition is most often associated with decreased breath sounds and increased fremitus.
A physical therapist performs gait training activities with an eight-year-old child who utilizes a reciprocating gait orthosis.
Which medical diagnosis is MOST often associated with the use of this type of orthotic device?
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Down syndrome
C. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
D. Spina bifida
Spina bifida
Correct Answer: D
A reciprocating gait orthosis is a type of hip-knee-ankle-foot orthosis that incorporates a cable connecting the two hip joint mechanisms. The device assists the child to advance the lower extremities during ambulation.
A. Cerebral palsy is an umbrella term used to describe a group of non-progressive movement disorders that result from brain damage. Clinical presentation includes motor delays, abnormal muscle tone and motor control, reflex abnormalities, poor postural control, and balance impairments.
B. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) occurs when there is an error in cell division. Clinical manifestations include hypotonia, flattened nasal bridge, Simian line (palmar crease), epichantal folds, enlargement of the tongue, developmental delay.
C. Legg-Calve-Perthes disease is the name given to idiopathic osteonecrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis of the femoral head. Clinical presentation includes short limb, high greater trochanter, quadriceps atrophy, and adductor spasm. Bracing using a Scottish-Rite brace may be used in an attempt to contain the femoral head in the acetabulum.
D. Spina bifida is a congenital neural tube defect that generally occurs in the lumbar spine, but can also occur at the sacral, thoracic, and cervical levels. Classifications include occulta, meningocele, and myelomeningocele. Since the impairments associated with some of the classifications of spina bifida can include motor and sensory loss below the vertebral defect, a reciprocating gait orthosis is often used.
A physical therapist instructs a patient rehabilitating from thoracic surgery how to produce an effective cough. Which patient position would be the MOST appropriate to initiate treatment?
A. Standing
B. Sitting
C. Sidelying
D. Hooklying
Sitting
Correct Answer: B
An effective cough requires an inspiration greater than tidal volume, followed by closure of the glottis, abdominal muscle contraction, and sudden opening of the glottis for the forceful expulsion of the inspired air.
A. Although it is possible to perform a maximal inhalation needed for an effective cough, the standing position would not be the most appropriate position to initiate treatment after thoracic surgery.
B. Sitting upright will maximize all the steps needed to produce an effective cough
C. The sidelying position does not promote the maximal inhalation needed for an effective cough.
D. Hooklying refers to a position where the patient is lying in supine with their hips and knees bent and the feet flat on the floor with the arms positioned at their side. The hooklying position does not promote the maximal inhalation needed for an effective cough.
A physical therapist provides pre-operative instructions for a patient scheduled for hip arthroplasty surgery. As part of the session, the therapist discusses the importance of preventing deep vein thrombosis following surgery. Which finding is the BEST indicator that the patient is at minimal risk of acquiring a deep vein thrombosis?
A. Ability to perform ankle pumps and muscle setting exercises
B. Ability to ambulate on a frequent schedule
C. Ability to achieve full hip range of motion within the allowable limits
D. Ability to utilize pneumatic compression devices and elastic stockings
Ability to ambulate on a frequent schedule
Correct Answer: B
Deep vein thrombosis results from the formation of a blood clot that becomes dislodged and is termed an embolus. This is a serious medical condition since the embolus may obstruct a selected artery. Patients are often at risk for acquiring a deep vein thrombosis after surgery. Other risk factors include advanced age, obesity, infection, tobacco, and air travel.
A. Ankle pumps and muscle setting exercises are beneficial, but would not produce the magnitude of muscle pumping action compared to an activity such as ambulation since the exercises tend to involve muscles working in relative isolation.
B. The ability to ambulate on a frequent schedule requires a significant amount of muscle pumping action generated from contraction of the lower extremity muscles. The initiation of this activity signifies that the patient is progressing toward a more dynamic state which significantly decreases the risk of acquiring deep vein thrombosis.
C. Range of motion is a desirable activity following surgery since it requires muscle activity and promotes circulation, however, the intensity of the activity is relatively low when compared to ambulation.
D. Pneumatic compression devices and elastic stockings are often utilized following surgery since they can help to prevent coagulation and the formation of a thrombus. The interventions are less desirable than an activity like ambulation, however, can be successfully integrated into a comprehensive program to prevent deep vein thrombosis.
A group of physical therapists design a research study which examines the reliability of the Functional Independence
Measure. To measure reliability the therapists utilize a test-retest design. What is the MOST significant source of error with this type of research design?
A. Sampling error
B. Tendency to rate too strictly or leniently
C. Change in test forms due to sampling of items
D. Change in subject situation over time
Change in subject situation over time
Correct Answer: D
The repeatability of scores on the Functional Independence Measure (FIM from one test administration to another provides evidence of test-retest reliability.
A. Sampling error refers to the differences between samples drown from the same population due to chance. This is not an issue in test-retest design for reliability because the same individuals are tested each time.
B. In a test-retest design for reliability, the therapists rating the patients use the same scoring rules on each occasion.
C. In a test-retest design for reliability, the FIM would be administered both times, therefore the form of the test would not change.
D. Because test-retest design necessitates an interval of time between test administrations, a real change in the patient’s function during this time would adversely affect the reliability score.
A physical therapist treats a patient status post femur fracture with external fixation. While monitoring the patient during an exercise session, the therapist observes clear drainage from a distal pin site. The MOST appropriate therapist action is:
A. Discontinue the exercise session and contact the referring physician
B. Use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage and notify nursing
C. Use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage and continue with the exercise session
D. Document the finding and discontinue the exercise session
Use a gauze pad to absorb the drainage and continue with the exercise session
Correct Answer: C
External fixation devices provide stabilization to fracture sites through the use of pins that are inserted into bone fragments
Clear drainage from a pin site is not uncommon and should not be viewed as a sign of infection or any other serious medical complication.
A. Clear drainage from a distal pin site would not warrant discontinuing the exercise session or contacting the referring physician. If the scenario offered compelling data suggestive of infection, it would be appropriate to notify the referring physician and/or the nurse.
B. The gauze pad is an acceptable method to absorb the drainage. The observation of clear drainage from a distal pin site is relative common and therefore would not require consultation with nursing.
C. The exercise session can continue after the drainage has been absorbed. The physical therapist may be required to use multiple gauze pads throughout the session, however, this should not impact the overall exercise routine.
D. Documenting the observation would be acceptable, however, the presented scenario does not provide adequate justification for discontinuing the exercise session.
A physical therapist is scheduled to treat a patient requiring droplet precautions. What type of protective equipment would be necessary prior to entering the patient’s room?
A. Gloves
B. Mask
C. Gloves and mask
D. Gloves, gown, and mask
Mask
Correct Answer: B
Droplet precautions are designed to prevent transmission of infectious agents through close respiratory or mucous membrane contact. Droplets are most often deposited on the host’s nasal mucosa, conjunctivae or mouth. Examples of diseases requiring droplet precautions include pertussis, influenza, and diphtheria.
A. Gloves would be required for contact precautions, but would not be required for droplet precautions.
B. Droplet precautions require individuals coming within three feet of the patient to wear a mask, however, it is prudent to wear the mask upon entering the room of a patient on droplet precautions to avoid any inadvertent exposure.
C. A mask is required when working with a patient with droplet precautions, however gloves are not.
D. Only a mask is required when treating a patient with droplet precautions. Gloves, gown, and mask are typically required with direct contact with a patient with contact precautions.
A physical therapist collects data as part of a research project that requires direct observation of children performing selected gross motor activities. The therapist is concerned about the influence of an observer on the children’s performance.
The MOST effective strategy to control for this source of error is to:
A. Provide initial and refresher observer training
B. Increase observer awareness and influence of their background
C. Have an observer spend time with the children before direct observation
D. Ask the children to ignore the presence of the observer
Have an observer spend time with the children before direct observation
Correct Answer: C
A research project should be designed to eliminate as many extraneous variable as possible. Failure to eliminate or at least reduce the potential impact of an observer on the children’s performance would be a significant limitation of the study.
A. Observer training would be beneficial in order to provide the observers with a better sense of their purpose, role, and actions. This action would be desirable, but would not address the nuance of the observer for the children.
B. An individual’s background can influence their observations particularly when the date collected is open for interpretation.
This option also focuses on the observer and not the children.
C. Spending time with the children prior to direct observation will allow the children to feel more at ease and as a result their performance may be more reflective of their current abilities.
D. Asking the children to ignore the presence of the observer would likely serve to bring additional attention to the observer and therefore influence behavior.
A physical therapist discusses the importance of proper posture with a patient rehabilitating from back surgery at the L3-L4 spinal level. Which body position would place the MOST pressure on the lumbar spine?
A. Standing in the anatomical position
B. Standing with 45 degrees of hip flexion
C. Sitting in a chair slouching forward
D. Sitting in a chair with reduced lumbar lordosis
Sitting in a chair slouching forward
Correct Answer: C
A study by Nachemson examined intradiskal pressure in the lumbar spine (L3 disk) as they relate to specific body positions.
The order of body positions from the lowest total load to the greatest total load is as follows: lying in supine, sidelying, standing in the anatomical position, standing with 45 degrees of hip flexion, sitting in a chair with reduced lumbar lordosis, and sitting in a chair slouching forward
A. Standing in the anatomical position resulted in a greater total load than the load associated with lying in supine or sidelying.
B. Standing with 45 degrees of hip flexion resulted in a greater total load than the load associated with lying in supine, sidelying, and standing in the anatomical position.
C. Sitting in a chair slouching forward resulted in a greater total load than any of the other five body positions measured.
D. Sitting in a chair with reduced lumbar lordosis had the greatest total load of the positions measured with the only exception being sitting in a chair slouching forward.
A physical therapists works on transfer activities with a patient diagnosed with a complete C5 spinal cord injury. Which of the following muscles would the patient be able to utilize during the training session?
A. Brachioradialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Extensor carpi radialis brevis
D. Latissimus dorsi
Brachioradialis
Correct Answer: A
A Patient with C5 tetraplegia would be able to utilize muscles innervated at or above the C5 spinal level.
A. The brachioradialis is innervated by the radial nerve (C5-C6) and acts to flex the elbow joint and assists in pronating and supinating the forearm when these movements are resisted.
B. The pronator teres is innervated by the median nerve (C6-C7) and acts to pronate the forearm and assists in flexion of the elbow 1oint.
C. The extensor carpi radialis brevis is innervated by the radial nerve (C6, C7, C8) and acts to extend the wrist and assists in wrist abduction.
D. The latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve (C6, C7, C8) and with the origin fixed acts to medially rotate, adduct and extend the shoulder joint.
A physical therapist assesses the deep tendon reflexes of a patient as part of the lower quarter screening examination. The therapist determines that the right and left patellar tendon reflex and the left Achilles tendon reflex are 2+, while the right Achilles tendon reflex is absent. The clinical condition that could BEST explain this finding is:
A. Cerebral palsy
B. Multiple sclerosis
C. Peripheral neuropathy
D. Intermittent claudication
Peripheral neuropathy
Correct Answer: C
A reflex is a motor response to a sensory stimulation that can be used to assess the integrity of the nervous system. Deep tendon reflexes (DIR) elicit a muscle contraction when the muscle’s tendon is stimulated. A grade of 2+ would be considered a normal response.
A. Cerebral palsy is a neuromuscular disorder of posture and controlled movement, however, the clinical presentation is highly variable based on the area and extent of central nerveous system damage. It is unlikely that a reflex would be absent in an upper motor neuron disorder such as cerebral palsy.
B. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease of the central nervous system characterized by demyelination of the myelin sheaths that surround nerves within the brain and spinal cord. Symptoms can include visual problems, paresthesias and sensory changes, clumsiness, weakness, ataxia, balance dysfunction, and fatigue. Deep tendon reflexes would not typically be absent with multiple sclerosis since it is an upper motor neuron disorder.
C. Peripheral neuropathy is a broad term that describes a lesion to a peripheral nerve. Patients with peripheral neuropathy may exhibit motor, sensory, and autonomic changes including extreme sensitivity to touch, loss of sensation, muscle weakness, and loss of vasomotor tone. Deep tendon reflexes may be asymmetrical based on the location of the involved peripheral nerve and usually present as diminished or absent.
D. Intermittent claudication occurs as a result of insufficient blood supply and ischemia in active muscles. Symptoms most commonly include pain and cramping in muscles distal to the occluded vessel. Deep tendon reflex would not typically be affected
A patient is directed to reach for an object beyond their arm’s length during therapeutic activities emphasizing core training and balance activities as depicted in the image. The desired response with this activity would be:
A. Left trunk elongation, left weight shift, right hip hiking
B. Right trunk, elongation, right weight shift, right hip hiking
C. Left trunk elongation, left weight shift, left hip hiking
D. Right trunk elongation, right weight shift, left hip hiking
Right trunk elongation, right weight shift, left hip hiking
Correct Answer: D
A. A patient that presents with left
trunk elongation, left weight shift, and right hip hiking is likely reaching for an object just beyond their reach at shoulder height or higher on their left side.
B. A patient that presents with right trunk elongation and right weight shift would typically be reaching for an object beyond arm’s length at shoulder level or higher on their right side. They would, however, present with left hip hiking, not right hip hiking.
C. A patient that presents with left trunk elongation and left weight shift would typically be reaching for an object beyond arm’s length at shoulder level or higher on their left side. They would, however, present with right hip hiking, not left hip hiking.
D. A patient that presents with right trunk elongation, right weigh shift, and left hip hiking is likely reaching for an object just beyond reach at shoulder height or higher on their right side.
A physical therapist attempts to palpate the tibialis posterior tendon. To facilitate palpation of this structure the therapist should:
A. Ask the patient to invert and plantar flex the foot
B. Ask the patient to evert and dorsiflex the foot
C. Ask the patient to invert and dorsiflex the foot
D. Passively evert and plantar flex the foot
Ask the patient to invert and plantar flex the foot
Correct Answer: A
A tendon is a band of dense fibrous tissue forming the termination of a muscle which attaches the muscle to a bone. A tendon becomes more prominent when the associated muscle is active. The tendon of the tibialis posterior can be palpated posterior and inferior to the medial malleolus.
A. The tibialis posterior originates on the interosseous membrane, lateral portion of the posterior surface of the tibia, and proximal two thirds of the medial surface of the tibia, and proximal two thirds of the medial surface of the fibula. The muscle acts to invert the foot and assists with plantar flexion of the ankle joint. As a result, the tendon is more prominent with active inversion and plantar flexion.
B. Eversion and dorsiflexion are opposite of the action of the tibialis posterior. As a result, the active moment would not facilitate palpation of the muscle’s tendon.
C. The tibialis anterior acts to dorsiflex the ankle joint and assists with inversion of the foot. As a result, the tendon is more prominent with active dorsiflexion and inversion. The tendon of the muscle is easily palpated where it crosses the ankle joint to its insertion on the medial aspect of the base of the first metatarsal and medial cuneiform bone.
D. Passive movement would not be as desirable as active movement to facilitate palpation of the tendon since muscular activity is necessary to make the tendon prominent. In addition, the tibialis posterior inverts the foot and assists with plantar flexion of the ankle joint.
A physical therapist participating in a research project uses a simple random sample to draw a sample from the population.
By selecting this type of sample, the therapist ensures:
A. The data collected from the sample will be normally distributed
B. The sample size will be large
C. The sample will have proportional representation from all parts of the population
D. That every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen
That every member of the population has an equal opportunity of being chosen
Correct Answer: D
Probability samples are created through a process of random selection. Each selection is independent and every member of the population has an equal chance of being selected for the sample.
A. Simple random sampling does not ensure that the date collected will be normally distributed. The shape of the distribution of the date collected from the sample is independent of the type of sample.
B. Simple random sampling does not determine the size of the sample
C. To ensure that the sample will have proportional representation from all parts of the population, the therapist would create a proportional stratified sample.
D. A simple random sample is unblased; each member of the population has an equal chance of being chosen.
A physical therapist examines the heart sound of a 48-year-old female status post coronary artery bypass graft. When auscultating, the therapist identifies the heart sound associated with closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves. This heart sound BEST describes:
A. S1
B. S2
C. S3
D. S4
S1
Correct Answer: A
The heart sounds are the noises generated by the beating heart and the resultant flow of blood through it. The therapist uses a stethoscope to listen for these sounds, which provide important information about the condition of the heat
A. The first heart sound, SI (the lub of the lub-dub), is associated with the closing of the mitral and tricuspid valves, corresponding to the onset of ventricular systole.
B. The second heart sound, S2, (the dub of the lub-dub), is associated with the closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves, corresponding to the onset of ventricular diastole.
C. A third heart sound, S3, occurs early in diastole while the ventricle is rapidly filling. The sound occurs immediately after S2 (lub-dub-dub). The S3 sound may occur in healthy children and young adults, and is referred to as physiologic third heart sound. It also indicated a loss of ventricular compliance in the presence of heart disease or heart failure. In this case, it is called a ventricular gallop.
D. A fourth heart sound, S4, occurs late in diastole just before S1 (la-lub-dub) and is associated with atrial contraction and an increased resistance to ventricular filling. The heart sound is required to as an atrial gallop. The sound is common in patients with hypertension, a history of myocardial infarction or coronary bypass surgery.
During a balance assessment of a patient with left hemiplegia, it is noted that in sitting the patient requires minimal assistance to maintain the position and cannot accept any additional challenge. The physical therapist would appropriately document the patient’s sitting balance as:
A. Normal
B. Good
C. Fair
D. Poor
Poor
Correct Answer: D
Sitting balance can be graded in an objective manner by using a scale that ranges from poor to normal. A patient that requires assistance to maintain a sitting position would be graded as having poor sitting balance.
A. A grade of normal is indicative of a person that is able to sit unsupported, move in and out of the base of support, and accept maximal challenge without loss of balance.
B. A grade of good is indicative of a person that is able to sit unsupported, move in and out of the base of support, and accept some challenge without loss of balance.
C. A grade of fair is indicative of a person that is able to maintain their balance in sitting unsupported, but cannot accept any challenge or go outside of their base of support without loss of balance.
D. A grade of poor is indicative of a person that is unable to maintain their balance in sitting without external support or assistance.
A physical therapist is treating a patient with a head injury who begins to perseverate. In order to refocus the patient and achieve the desired therapeutic outcome, the therapist should
A. Focus on the topic of perseveration for a short period of time in order to appease the patient
B. Guide the patient into an interesting new activity and reward successful completion of the task
C. Take the patient back to his room for quiet time and attempt to resume therapy once he has stopped perseverating
D. Continue with repetitive verbal cues to cease perseveration
Guide the patient into an interesting new activity and reward successful completion of the task
Correct Answer: B
Perseveration is the continued repetition of a word, phrase or movement. Initiating a new activity during therapy may allow the patient toredirect attention and subsequently receive positive reinforcement for attending to the selected task.
A. It is not necessary to attempt to appease the patient since the patient cannot independently move beyond whatever they are perseverating on. Staying with the topic will not assist in moving forward.
B. Patients with a lesion in the premotor or prefrontal cortex often exhibit perseveration. Since the patient typically continues the repetition of a word, phrase or movement after the cessation of the original stimulus, the best intervention would be to redirect the patient away from the current activity.
C. The patient will not benefit from “quiet time” since the patient is not perseverating due to a behavioral issue. Redirecting the patient may successfully alow the patient to move forward and continue with therapy without interruption.
D. Verbal cueing is not an effective technique to cease perseveration. The patient typically requires a redirection of their attention to another activity or environment.
A male physical therapist examines a female diagnosed with subacromial bursitis. After taking a thorough history, the therapist asks the patient to change into a gown. The patient seems very uneasy about this suggestion, but finally agrees to use the gown. The MOST appropriate course of action would be to:
A. Continue with treatment as planned
B. Attempt to treat the patient without using the gown
C. Bring a female staff member into the treatment room and continue with treatment
D. Offer to transfer the patient to a female physical therapist
Bring a female staff member into the treatment room and continue with treatment
Correct Answer: C
The physical therapist should be sensitive to the patient’s apparent discomfort with the situation, however, must also take appropriate steps to manage their relative risk. Physical therapist must be willing to modify their approach with each patient encounter based on the unique presented circumstances.
A. The patient’s original reluctance to wear the gown makes it prudent to have a witness present during treatment. The decision to continue with treatment without any formal action places the physical therapist at unnecessary risk.
B. Failure to wear the gown may make it more difficult for the physical therapist to treat the patient or depending on the chosen intervention, could risk damaging or soiling the patient’s clothes.
C. The male physical therapist should bring a female staff member into the treatment room. The presence of a witness is a form of risk management that protects the physical therapist in the event of any alleged misconduct and may make the patient more comfortable.
D. It would be impractical to transfer a patient to another physical therapist simply because the patient seemed to be uncomfortable when asked to change into the gown. In addition, the female physical therapist may have similar concerns which would still require another staff member to be present.