PEAT 4 Flashcards
A patient is performing a Phase I (inpatient cardiac rehabilitation exercise session. The physical therapist should terminate low-level activity if which of the following changes occurs?
1. The diastolic blood pressure increases to 120 mm Hg.
2. The respiratory rate increases to 20 breaths per minute.
3. The systolic blood pressure increases by 20 mm Hg.
4. The heart rate increases by 20 bpm.
1
During Phase I (inpatient) cardiac rehabilitation, vital sign parameters with activity that warrant termination are: diastolic blood pressure of 110 mm Hg or greater, systolic blood pressure above 210 mm Hg or an increase greater than 20 mm Hg from resting, and a heart rate that increases beyond 20 bpm above resting. The normal resting respiratory rate can range from 12 to 20 breaths per minute in adults, so an increase to 20 breaths per minute with low-level activity would not be a reason to terminate the activity.
A patient is being evaluated for possible carpal tunnel syndrome, and a nerve conduction velocity test is performed.
Which of the following findings would
MOST strongly support the diagnosis?
1. Decreased latency at the elbow.
2. Decreased latency at the carpal tunnel.
3. Increased latency at the carpal
tunnel.
4. Increased latency at the forearm.
3
Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal. Latency is typically increased, not decreased, across the carpal tunnel compression site. Nerve conduction above and below the local nerve compression is usually normal.
When examining a patient with a history of alcohol abuse, a physical therapist notes that the patient demonstrates fine resting tremors and hyperactive reflexes.
The patient reports frequent right upper quadrant pain. Which of the following additional signs is MOST likely?
1. Jaundice
2. Hyperhidrosis
3. Hypotension
4. Nocturnal cough
1
With a history of alcohol abuse and the presence of fine resting tremors and right upper quadrant pain, the patient is presenting a history and signs and symptoms consistent with liver disease. Jaundice is a skin change associated with disease of the hepatic system. Hyperhidrosis can be present with endocrine disorders but is not associated with liver disease. Hypotension is not listed as a sign of liver disorders. A nocturnal cough can be associated with rheumatic fever, but is not characteristic of liver disease.
Which of the following examination findings would be expected in a patient who also had sustained ankle clonus?
1. An upgoing great toe when the sole of the foot is stroked
2. Weakness of ankle plantar flexors with one-repetition strength testing
3. Absence of sensation to sharp/dull testing over the posterior lower leg
4. Hyporeflexia when deep tendon reflexes are elicited in the lower leg
1
Sustained ankle clonus indicates a central nervous system dysfunction, as does the presence of a Babinski sign (that is, an upgoing great toe with stroking of the plantar foot). The other options are associated with lower motor neuron problems.
Which of the following sensory testing locations corresponds to the C7 nerve root?
1. Volar aspect of the little finger (5th digit)
2. Dorsal aspect of the middle finger (3rd digit)
3. Lateral aspect of the upper arm
4. Medial aspect of the upper arm
2
The C7 nerve root supplies sensation in the dorsal middle finger
A 3-month-old infant has poor midline head control. During evaluation, the physical therapist notes facial asvmmetry and observes that the infant has limitation of cervical rotation to the left and cervical lateral flexion to the right. A radiology report indicates premature fusion of the infant’s cranial sutures. The infant MOST likely has:
1. right congenital muscular torticollis.
2. left congenital muscular torticollis.
3. right cervical facet hypomobility.
4. left cervical facet hypomobility.
1
The infant exhibits signs of torticollis affecting the right sternocleidomastoid muscle.
Torticollis is named for the side of the limited lateral flexion. Asymmetry and premature closure of sutures (plagiocephaly) are not typically seen with cervical facet hypomobility in infants.
A patient had a split-thickness skin graft for a partial-thickness burn injury to the upper extremity. The surgeon has requested range-of-motion exercises for the patient. Currently, the patient is able to actively move the upper extremity through one-third of the range of motion for shoulder flexion. Based on this finding, what is the MOST appropriate action for the physical therapist to take at this time?
1. Defer any range-of-motion exercises until the patient is able to participate more actively.
2. Begin active assistive range-of-motion exercises.
3. Begin bed mobility training to facilitate increased use of the upper extremity
4. Continue with active range-of-motion exercises.
2
Deferring any range-of-motion exercises is not a practical choice, as contracture will develop postoperatively. Because this patient cannot achieve full range of motion by himself, active assistive range of motion is indicated to prevent contracture postoperatively. Although bed mobility training is a creative way to possibly increase upper extremity range of motion, given the acuity of the patient’s surgical wound, the patient would need more range of motion for this intervention to be more beneficial. Continuing with only active range of motion would not facilitate adequate increases in range of motion and would not prevent contractures.
Which of the following modalities BEST addresses the cause of calcific tendinitis in the bicipital tendon?
1. Sensory level interferential current at
80 Hz to 100 Hz
2. Iontophoresis with acetic acid at 60 mA/minute
3. High-volt pulsed electrical stimulation at 200 pps
4. Diathermy with a parallel treatment set-up
2
Sensory level interferential current at 80 to 100 Hz does not address the problem itself but may address any related pain. lontophoresis with acetic acid can address the cause of calcific tendinitis, not just the symptoms. High-volt pulsed electrical stimulation at 200 ps does not address the problem itself but may address any related pain. Diathermy with a parallel treatment set-up is not the best choice, as deep heat will not address the pathology.
To minimize skin irritation during functional electrical nerve stimulation, a physical therapist should use:
1. lower intensity, larger interelectrode distance, and larger electrodes.
2. lower intensity, larger interelectrode distance, and smaller electrodes.
3. higher intensity, smaller interelectrode distance, and smaller electrodes.
4. lower intensity, smaller interelectrode distance, and larger electrodes.
1
Several things can be done to decrease the current density and the possibility of skin irritation. These include decreasing the intensity of the stimulation, increasing the inter-electrode distance, and using larger electrodes.
Manual muscle testing of a patient’s pelvic floor muscles reveals a grade of Poor (2/5). Which of the following positions is BEST to begin strengthening?
1. Supine
2. Standing
3. Seated
4. Walking
1
A grade of Poor (2/5) is defined as full excursion in a gravity-eliminated position. All of the other options are against gravity positions, which would be inappropriate, given this grade of weakness.
During an examination of elbow strength using manual muscle testing, a patient supinates the forearm when attempting elbow flexion. Which of the following muscles is MOST likely doing the major part of the work?
1. Biceps brachi
2. Brachialis
3. Supinator
4. Brachioradialis
1
The biceps brachi is both an elbow flexor and supinator, and it is most effective as a supinator with the elbow flexed to about 90° (approximately the muscle testing position). The brachialis does not cause supination (only flexion). The supinator does not flex the elbow. The brachioradialis would move the forearm to a midposition rather than fully supinating it. Therefore, when the elbow both flexes and supinates, the biceps brachii would be the most likely muscle causing this action.
During evaluation of a patient’s balance, a physical therapist gently pushes the patient backward slightly and observes how the patient recovers from the perturbation. What strategy is the patient
MOST likely to use to correct for the perturbation?
1. Knee
2. Hip
3. Ankle
4. Stepping
3
Regarding options 1 and 2, for larger perturbations, individuals utilize hip and knee muscles to recover the balance. Regarding option 3, for slight perturbations, most individuals use an ankle strategy. Ankle musculature is used to control the perturbation and recover the balance. Regarding option 4, if the perturbation is strong enough to cause the individual’s center of mass to move outside the base of support, a stepping strategy would be employed by taking a step and increasing the size of the base of support.
Which of the following findings BEST describes normal capillary filling?
1. Rebound vasodilation after icing
2. Blood pressure of 120/76 mm Hg
3. Pulse oximetry measurement of 98%
4. Blanching of the nail bed with color return in < 3 seconds
4
By definition, the blanching of nail bed with color return in < 3 seconds is normal capillary refill
Which of the following instructions is
MOST appropriate for teaching a patient with Cs quadriplegia to transfer from a wheelchair to a mat?
1. Keep fingers extended to give a broader base of support.
2. Rotate head and shoulders in the same direction as the desired hip motion.
3. Rotate head and shoulders in the direction opposite to the desired hip motion.
4. Keep both hands next to the knees to lock the elbows.
3
The position described creates the necessary force to move the lower body in this transfer, given the level of the spinal cord injury. Finger extension against resistance would be difficult for a patient with Cs quadriplegia. The patient’s hands would be kept near the thigh or hips with one hand on the mat and one on the wheelchair.
A patient has a spinal cord injury that resulted in damage to the sacral segments and disruption of the sacral reflex arc. The patient is MOST likely to have which of the following characteristics?
1. Voluntary control of defecation
2. Tonic contraction of the external anal sphincter
3. Flaccidity of pelvic floor musculature
4. Permanent absence of the gastrocolic reflex
3
The external anal sphincter and pelvic floor muscles are composed of striated muscle fibers. They receive somatic innervation from sacral cord segments 2 through 4. With damage to these segments, the sphincter and the pelvic floor muscles remain flaccid. The individual loses voluntary control of defecation. The gastrocolic reflex, mediated by the intrinsic nervous system of the GI tract, returns after resolution of spinal shock.
A patient who reports double vision has ptosis, lateral strabismus, and a dilated pupil in the left eye. Which of the following cranial nerve test results is
MOST likely to be abnormal?
1. Pupillary light reflex
2. Facial muscle strength
3. Jaw-jerk reflex
4. Pain sensation on the face
1
The cranial nerve involved is the oculomotor nerve. This nerve innervates the medial rectus, which, if weak, would cause a lateral strabismus. The oculomotor nerve is also responsible for mediating papillary constriction and a lesion would cause papillary dilation. The ptosis is caused by loss of innervation to the levator palpabrae superioris muscle, which elevates the eyelid. The double vision would be caused by the inability to move the eyeball normally, because four of the six ocular muscles are controlled by the oculomotor nerve. The oculomotor nerve is also important in mediating the pupillary light reflex. The facial nerve innervates the muscles of facial expression. The trigeminal nerve mediates the jaw-jerk reflex and pain sensation from the face.
In addition to standard precautions, what other precaution should a physical therapist observe when working with a patient infected with methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus?
1. Airborne
2. Sterile
3. Droplet
4. Contact
4
Since methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus is spread by contact, wearing a face shield or mask is not necessary. Sterile precautions or techniques are not necessary for the physical therapist to use with a patient infected with methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus.
The physical therapist is positioning a patient for postural drainage. To BEST drain the posterior segment of both lower lobes, the patient should be placed in which of the following positions?
1. Prone, head down at a 45° angle
2. Supine, flat surface
3. Sidelying, head elevated at a 30° angle
4. Sitting, leaning forward
1
The best position for draining the posterior segment of both lower lobes would be prone lying with the head down and the lower extremities and hips elevated to about 45°.
Clubbing of the fingers is MOST associated with which of the following pathologies?
1. Lymphedema
2. Pulmonary disease
3. Chronic venous insufficiency
4. Complex regional pain syndrome
2
Conditions that chronically interfere with tissue perfusion and nutrition may cause clubbing. Pulmonary disease is the most predominant cause of digital clubbing, present 75% to 85% of the time clubbing is noted. Since the other conditions also affect tissue perfusion, they could contribute to the condition, but are not listed as common findings.
A patient who is 8 months pregnant has an abdominal diastasis recti with a separation of 1.5 in (4 cm). Which of the following exercises would be the MOST appropriate initial exercise for abdominal strengthening in a supine position?
1. Trunk curls
2. Hooklying head lifts
3. Pelvic-tilt leg sliding
4. Bilateral leg lowering
2
Trunk curls are contraindicated for a patient with diastasis recti. Supine hooklying head lifts emphasize the rectus abdominis muscle and are least likely to increase the separation of the diastasis recti. Pelvic-tilt leg sliding is more advanced than head lifts. Bilateral leg-lowering is an advanced abdominal strengthening exercise that causes excessive low back strain and should not be performed during pregnancy.
A patient with Parkinson disease has just been admitted to a rehabilitation unit. The patient is dependent in all transfers and requires moderate assistance of one person to walk 30 ft (9.1 m) with a standard walker. To facilitate good carryover for activities, instruction of the family in transfers should occur:
1. during a home visit after the patient is discharged.
2. just prior to discharging the patient.
3. early in the rehabilitation program.
4. when the family feels ready to take the patient home.
3
The family should be involved in all stages of planning and treatment. Family involvement can shorten the rehabilitation process and facilitate the patient’s return to the community. It is important to have the family involved early in the rehabilitation process rather than wait until the patient is ready to be discharged.
A patient with a right transfemoral prosthesis will be able to maintain the knee in extension while weight bearing if the center of gravity of the body is shifted so that the gravitational line falls:
1. posterior to the axis of the right knee joint.
2. lateral to the axis of the right knee joint.
3. anterior to the axis of the right knee joint.
4. medial to the axis of the right knee joint.
3
Static alignment for knee stability is established by positioning of the knee so that the lateral reference line falls anterior to the knee joint.
During manual muscle testing of the hip flexors in the sitting position, a patient exhibits lateral (external) rotation with abduction of the thigh as resistance is applied. The physical therapist should suspect muscle substitution by the:
1. sartorius.
2. tensor fasciae late.
3. adductor longus.
4. semimembranosus.
1
The sartorius flexes, laterally (externally) rotates, and abducts the hip joint. With resisted hip flexion, the sartorius will be recruited to perform all three actions, giving the observed substitution pattern. The tensor fasciae late is a medial (internal) rotator and flexor of the hip, so substitution by it would involve medial (internal) rotation and abduction. The adductor longus would adduct the hip. Substitution by the semimembranosus would cause hip extension.
A physical therapist reads that the interrater reliability of a new hand-held dynamometer is .93. What is the MOST appropriate interpretation of this value?
1. Similar scores were obtained for a group of subjects when different therapists measured the subjects
2. Similar scores were obtained for a group of subjects when the same therapist repeated the measures
3. Dissimilar scores were obtained for a group of subjects when different therapists measured the subjects.
4. Dissimilar scores were obtained for a group of subjects when the same therapist repeated the measures.
1
Interrater reliability concerns variation between two or more raters who measure the same group of subjects. The reliability coefficient has values from 0.00 to 1.00. A reliability of 1.00 means there was total agreement. Thus a value of .93 means there was a high degree of agreement on the scores from the dynamometer among several therapists. Agreement of measures by the same therapist would be intrarater reliability.