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HIGH-YIELD BOOK REVIEWERS > PMR 11 - exercise modalities > Flashcards

PMR 11 - exercise modalities Flashcards

1
Q

Therapeutic ultrasound uses which of the following techniques to warm tissue?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Conversion
d. Sublimation

A

C) Conversion is the change (conversion) of one form of energy to heat energy (in this case, sound wave energy to heat).

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2
Q

How long is the average therapeutic ultrasound session?
a. 0 to 5 minutes
b. 7 to 15 minutes
c. 15 to 20 minutes
d. 20 to 30 minutes

A

B) The average therapeutic ultrasound session lasts between 7 and 15 minutes.

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3
Q

What is phonophoresis?
a. Using ultrasound to drive topical medications into tissue
b. Using electric current to drive medications into tissue
c. Using massage to drive topical medications into tissue
d. Using cold spray to numb a painful area

A

A) Phonophoresis uses ultrasound to drive topical medications into tissue.

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4
Q

What is iontophoresis?
a. Using ultrasound to drive topical medications into tissue
b. Using electric current to drive medications into tissue 19)
c. Using massage to drive topical medications into tissue
d. Using cold spray to numb a painful area

A

B) lontophoresis is a technique that uses electric current to drive electrically charged medications into tissue.

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5
Q

What is the force recommended for cervical traction?
a. 5 to 10 lb
b. 10 to 15 lb
c. 15 to 20 lb
d. 25 to 30 lb

A

D) The recommended force for cervical traction is 25 to 30 pounds.

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6
Q

Hot packs are typically maintained in water baths at what temperature?
a. 40°to 50°C
b. 60° to 70°C
c. 70°to 80°C
d. 80° to 90°C

A

C) Hot packs are typically maintained in water baths at 70 ° to 80 °C. Hot packs should never be applied directly to the skin. There should be towels between the patient and the hot pack to avoid burning the patient’s skin.

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7
Q

Which of the following theories is commonly accepted as the mechanism of action of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)?
a. Electric theory
b. Blast theory
c. Desensitization theory
d. Gate theory

A

D) The gate theory, in which stimulated large myelinated afferent fibers block the transmission of pain by small unmyelinated fibers at the level of the spinal cord, is commonly accepted as the mechanism of action of TENS.

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8
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is best described as the transfer of energy between two bodies at different temperatures through direct contact?
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Conversion
d. Circumduction

A

B) Conduction is the transfer of energy between two bodies at different temperatures through direct contact.

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9
Q

Which of the following mechanisms is best described as transfer of heat by fluid circulation over the surface of a body?
a. Convection
b. Conduction
c. Conversion
d. Circumduction

A

A) Convection is best described as the transfer of heat by fluid circulation over the surface of a body.

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10
Q

Which of the following is a physiologic result of wound treatment with ultraviolet radiation?
a. Decreased Vitamin D production
b. Increased bacterial growth
c. Increased vascularization of wound margins
d. Decreased calcium metabolism

A

C) Ultraviolet radiation increases vascularization of wound margins.

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11
Q

Which of the following is a contraindication to heat therapy?
a. Muscle spasm
b. Chronic inflammation
c. Arthritis
d. Scar tissue

A

D) Heat increases the metabolic demand of scar tissue, which is poorly vascularized.
This can result in ischemic necrosis.

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12
Q

Which of the following best defines an eccentric contraction?
a. Muscle lengthening contraction
b. Muscle shortening against resistance
c. Muscle does not change length during contraction
d. A contraction generating little force

A

A) An eccentric contraction is a lengthening contraction. A common example is the controlled lengthening of the quadriceps while descending stairs.

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13
Q

Which of the following best defines a concentric contraction?
a. Muscle lengthening contraction
b. Muscle shortening against resistance
c. Muscle does not change length during contraction
d. A contraction generating little force

A

B) A concentric contraction is best defined as a muscle shortening against resistance.

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14
Q

Bed rest or immobilization has what type of impact on strength?
a. Decreases strength by 10% daily
b. Decreases strength by 10% monthly
c. Decreases strength by 5% daily
d. Decreases strength by 1% daily

A

D) Immobilization decreases strength by about 1% daily.

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15
Q

Bed rest or immobilization has what impact on muscle mass?
a. 5% to 10% of muscle mass is lost weekly
b. 10% to 15% of muscle mass is lost weekly
c. 15% to 20% of muscle mass is lost weekly
d. 20% of muscle mass is lost weekly

A

A) With immobilization, 5% to 10% of muscle mass is lost weekly.

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16
Q

Which of the following best describes the. placebo effect on the mechanism of pain control in transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS)?
a. There is no placebo effect in TENS
b. Placebo effect accounts for 90% of pain relief in TENS
c. Placebo effect accounts for 50% of pain relief in TENS
d. Placebo effect accounts for 30% of pain relief in TENS

A

D) The placebo effect accounts for about
30% of pain relief in TENS.

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17
Q

Which of the following is the most effective type of transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation (TENS) stimulator?
a. High frequency, high intensity
b. High frequency, low intensity
c. Low frequency, high intensity
d. Low frequency, low intensity

A

B) High frequency, low intensity stimulation is the most effective type of TENS stimulation.

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18
Q

Which of the following is an appropriate therapeutic ultrasound frequency?
a. 100 MHz
b. 1,000 MHz
c. 1 MHz
d. 20 MHz

A

C) 0.8 to 1.1 MHz is an appropriate frequency for a therapeutic ultrasound prescription.

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19
Q

Which of the following best describes a gradual stretch over 15 seconds?
a. Ballistic stretching
b. Plyometric stretching
c. Passive stretching
d. Static stretching

A

D) Static stretching keeps a muscle in the same position for some time period, usually 15 to 20 seconds, and is relatively safe.

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20
Q

Which of the following is best defined as repeated, rapid stretching, such as bouncing?
a. Ballistic stretching
b. Plyometric stretching
c. Passive stretching
d. Static stretching

A

A) Ballistic stretching involves bouncing-tvpe maneuvers.

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21
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of open kinetic chain exercises?
a. Distal end fixed
b. Squatting
C. Less shear stress
d. Distal end not fixed

A

D) Open kinetic chain exercises have a distal end (usually the foot) that is not fixed, and create more shear stress than closed kinetic chain exercises.

22
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of closed kinetic chain exercises?
a. Distal end fixed
b. More sheer stress created
C. An example would be leg extensions with free weights
d. Distal end not fixed

A

A) Closed kinetic chain exercises have the distal end fixed. For example, while squatting, the feet are fixed to the ground.

23
Q

What axiom states that “high intensity, low repetition exercise builds strength, and low intensity, high repetition exercise builds endurance”?
a. Miranda axiom
b. Aaron axiom
C. DeLorme axiom
d. Frog axiom

A

C) The De Lorme axiom states that “high intensity, low repetition exercise builds strength, and low intensity, high repetition exercise builds endurance.

24
Q

Which of the following best describes type
1 muscle fi bers?
a. Fast twitch, high in oxidative enzymes
b. Fast twitch, low in oxidative enzymes
c. Large muscle fiber diameter
d. Slow-twitch, high in oxidative enzymes

A

D) Type 1 muscle fibers are slow-twitch, oxidative muscle fibers. They are primarily for low-intensity, long duration activities.

25
Q

Which of the following best describes type
2 muscle fi bers?
a. Used for high-intensity, short
duration activities
b. Small muscle fiber diameter
c. Innervated by small, slow conducting motor neurons
d. High in oxidative enzymes

A

A) Type 2 muscle fibers are large muscle
U fibers, with peak tension and relaxation achieved rapidly. They are primarily used for high-intensity, short duration activities.

26
Q

The greatest force is generated with what type of contraction?
a. Slow eccentric
b. Fast eccentric
c. Slow concentric
d. Fast concentric

A

B) Greatest force is generated with fast eccentric contractions.

27
Q

Which contraction generates the least force?
a. Slow eccentric
b. Fast eccentric
c. Slow concentric
d. Fast concentric

A

D) Fast concentric contractions generate the least amount of force.

28
Q

Which of the following is a cardiovascular effect of conditioning exercises?
a. Increased resting heart rate
b. Decreased stroke volume during maximal exercise
c. Increased myocardial oxygen consumption at rest
d. Decreased blood pressure at rest

A

D) Decreased blood pressure at rest is a cardiovascular effect of conditioning exercise.
Resting heart rate is decreased by exercise.
Stroke volume is increased during maximal exercise.

29
Q

Which of the following best describes concentric contractions?
a. Low metabolic cost
b. Produces greater force than eccentric contraction
c. Muscle lengthens against resistance
d. High metabolic cost

A

D) Concentric contractions have a high metabolic cost compared with eccentric contractions.

30
Q

Which of the following best describes eccentric contractions?
a. They cause more tissue damage than concentric contractions
b. They have high metabolic cost
c. They are muscle shortening contractions
d. Slow eccentric contractions generate the least amount of force

A

A) Eccentric contractions cause more tissue damage than concentric contractions.
With eccentric contractions, muscles lengthen with contraction, resisting a stretching force. With concentric contractions, muscles shorten against resistance.

31
Q

Which one is not a therapeutic effect of heat therapy?
a. Increased nerve signal conduction
b. Increased tendon extensibility
c. Increased blood flow
d. Decreased collagen extensibility

A

D) Heat increases nerve signal conduction, collagen extensibility, and blood fl ow; cold decreases all of these physiologic parameters.

32
Q

All of the following are indications for heat therapy except:
a. Arthritis
b. Chronic inflammation
c. Superficial thrombophlebitis
d. Vascular Insufficiency

A

D) Indications for heat therapy are pain management, muscle spasms, chronic inflammation, superficial thrombophlebitis, contractures, joint stiffness, and arthritis. It is not indicated for vascular insufficiency.

33
Q

Why is heat therapy not appropriate for scar tissue?
a. Scar tissue is rich in collagen fiber tissue
b. Scar tissue has inadequate vascular supply
С. Scar tissue has inadequate collagen fiber
d. Heat decreases tissue metabolism

A

B) Scar tissue does not have adequate. vascular supply. When metabolic demand is increased by heat, scar tissue is prone to ischemia.

34
Q

What is a mechanism of heat transfer?
a. Conduction
b. Convection
c. Conversion
d. All of the above

A

D) The mechanisms of heat transfer include radiation, conduction (e.g., hot water, hot packs), convection (e.g., fluidotherapy, hydrotherapy), and conversion (e.g., ultrasound shortwave diathermy, microwave diathermy).

35
Q

Prolonged use of which modality produces erythema ab igne (skin mottling)?
a. Ultrasound
b. Hot pack
c. Short wave diathermy
d. Contrast therapy

A

B) Prolonged usage of hot pack can produce skin mottling (erythema ab igne), which is characterized by reticular pigmentation and telangiectasia.

36
Q

What is a contraindication for the use of contrast baths?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Complex regional pain syndrome
c. Muscular strain
d. Buerger’s disease

A

D) A Contraindications for the use of contrast baths include small vessel disease caused by diabetes or Burger’s disease. The other options are indications for contrast baths.

37
Q

What is the main mechanism of deep heat transfer via diathermy?
a. Conversion
b. Convection
c. Conduction
d. None of the above

A

A) Conversion of electromagnetic energy into radiant heat energy is the main mechanism of heat transfer via diathermy.

38
Q

Deep heat modalities include all of the following except:
a. Ultrasound
b. Shortwave diathermy
c. Microwave diathermy
d. Hydrotherapy

A

D) Ultrasound, shortwave diathermy, and microwave diathermy are deep heating modalities. The main mechanism of heat transfer from hydrotherapy is convection.

39
Q

What is an indication for ultrasound?
a. Bursitis
b. Tendinitis (calcific tendinitis)
c. Degenerative arthritis and contracture
d. All of the above

A

D) Indications for ultrasound include tendinitis (calcific tendinitis), bursitis, subacute trauma, degenerative arthritis, contracture (hip contracture, adhesive capsulitis), and musculoskeletal pain.

40
Q

Which one of the following is a contraindication for ultrasound?
a. Malignancy
b. Near pacemaker
c. Skeletal immaturity
d. All of the above

A

D) Contraindications to the use of ultrasound include malignancy, use in close proximity to some organs (e.g., brain, eye, reproductive organs, spine), pregnancy, a menstruating uterus, infection, near metal (pacemaker, arthroplasty), skeletal immaturity, and near a laminectomy site.

41
Q

What is an effect of ultrasound in the pulsed mode?
a. Standing waves
b. Cavitations
c. Media motion
d. All of the above

A

D) The pulsed mode of ultrasound produces nonthermal effects including cavitation, media motion, and standing waves.

42
Q

The technique that uses ultrasound to deliver medications through the skin is:
a. Phonophoresis
b. Diathermy
c. lontophoresis
d. None of the above

A

A) Phonophoresis is a modality that uses ultrasound to deliver medications through the skin.

43
Q

What is an indication for phonophoresis?
a. Tendinitis
b. Tenosynovitis
c. Lateral epicondylitis (tennis elbow)
d. All of the above

A

D) Indications for phonophoresis include tendinitis (Achilles, bicipital), tenosynovitis, and medial as well as lateral epicondylitis.

44
Q

What is an indication for shortwave diathermy?
a. Chronic prostatitis
b. Refractory pelvic inflammatory disease
c. Muscle pain and spasms
d. All of the above

A

D) The indications for shortwave diathermy include chronic prostatitis, refractory pelvic inflammatory disease, and muscle pain and spasms.

45
Q

All of the following are contraindications to the use of shortwave diathermy except:
a. Metal implants, including pacemakers
b. Contact lenses
c. Skeletal maturity
d. Gravid or menstruating uterus

A

C) Shortwave diathermy produces deep heating by the conversion of radio wave electromagnetic energy into thermal energy.
Contraindications for shortwave diathermy include metal (pacemakers, intrauterine devices, and implants), contact lenses, pregnancy, menstruating uterus, and skeletal immaturity.

46
Q

What is an indication for microwave diathermy?
a. Increase heat to muscles
b. Resolution of hematomas
c. Increase heat to joints
d. All of the above

A

D) The indications for the use of microwave diathermy include heating muscle and joints, and decreasing hematomas under the skin.

47
Q

In which of the following areas could microwave diathermy be used?
a. Edematous tissue
b. Fluid-filled cavities
c. Reproductive organs
d. Muscle with spasm

A

D) Microwave diathermy selectively heats fluid-filled cavities. Therefore, it should be avoided in fluid-filled cavities (blisters, edematous tissue) and some organs (brain, reproductive organs, eyes).

48
Q

What is an effect of cryotherapy?
a. Decreased nerve conduction velocity
b. Increased muscle spindle activity
c. Increased tissues metabolism
d. Decreased nerve pain threshold

A

A) The therapeutic effects of cryotherapy include decreased nerve conduction velocity, vasoconstriction, diminished acute inflammatory responses, diminished muscle spindle activity, and increased nerve pain threshold.

49
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for cold therapy?
a. Acute sprains
b. Spasticity
c. Arterial insufficiency
d. Chronic muscle spasm

A

C) Indications for cryotherapy include musculoskeletal conditions (sprain, strain, tendinitis, tenosynovitis, bursitis, capsulitis), myofascial pain, spasticity, and acute trauma (in the first 24- to 48-hour period, cold therapy can help reduce inflammation and edema).
Cold therapy may exacerbate arterial insufficiency.

50
Q

Which of the following is not an effect of ultraviolet radiation?
a. Increased vascularization
b. Decreased muscle spasm
c. Cell protein changes
d. Bactericidal

A

B) Ultraviolet light can be bactericidal, increases vascularization, and alters cell proteins. It has not been shown to help decrease muscle spasm

51
Q

Which is not an indication for ultraviolet radiation therapy?
a. Psoriasis
b. Septic wounds
c. Acne treatment
d. Eczema

A

D) The indications for ultraviolet radiation therapy include psoriasis, wounds (septic and aseptic), acne, and folliculitis. Eczema is a contraindication.

52
Q

What is a contraindication for spinal traction?
a. Bursitis
b. Cervical radiculopathy
c. Osteopenia
d. Muscle spasm

A

C) Contraindications to the use of spinal traction include metastases to the spine, osteopenia, and congenital spinal deformity.
Cervical radiculopathy and muscle spasm are indications for spinal traction.

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