Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Old Tests > PhysiologyTest 2 > Flashcards

PhysiologyTest 2 Flashcards

1
Q

define antigen presentation

A

antigen presentation occurs when an antigen glycoprotein combination capable of activating T cells, appears in a plasma membrane. T cells sensitive to this antigen are activated if they contact the antigen on the plasma membrane of the antigen presenting cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

identify the 3 major types of T cells activated by class 1 MHC proteins

A

the 3 major types of t cells activated by class 1 MHC proteins are:
cytotoxic T cells
memory T cells
suppressor T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

describe CD markers

A

T cell plasma membranes contain proteins called CD (cluster of differentiation) markers. cells with CD8 markers respond to antigens presented by class 1 MHC proteins and are on cytotoxic t cells. memory T cells and suppressor T cells with CD4 makers respond to class 2 MHC proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

how can the presence of an abnormal antigen in the cytoplasm of a cell initiate an immune response

A

abnormal antigens in the cytoplasm of the cell can become attached to MCH proteins and displayed on the surface of plasma membrane. the recognition of such antigens by T cells initiate an immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

define sensitization

A

sensitization is the process by which a B cell prepares to undergo activation so that it can subsequently react with a specific antigen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

explain the function of cytokines secreted by helper T cells

A

cytokines secreted by activated T cells aid in coordinated specific and nonspecific defense and regulate cell mediated antibody mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

if you observe a higher than normal number of plasma cells in a sample of lymph would you expect antibody levels in the blood to be higher or lower than normal

A

plasma cells produce and secrete antibodies so observing an elevated number of plasma cells in the lymph would lead to expect higher than normal antibody levels in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

define allergy and allergen

A

an allergy is an inappropriate or excessive immune response to an allergen. an allergen is an antigen that triggers an allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is the anaphylaxis

A

in anaphylaxis an immune response to a circulating antigen stimulate mast cells throughout the body to release chemicals that prompt the inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which chemicals do mast cels and basophils release when stimulated in an allergic reaction

A

histamines, leukotrienes, and other chemicals that cause pain, and inflammation are released when mast cells and basophils are stimulated in an allergic reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

define Dalton’s law

A

Dalton’s law states that the in a mixture of gases. the individual gases exert a pressure proportional to their abundance in the mixture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the significance of Henry’s law to the process of respiration

A

Henry’s law states that, at a given T, the amount of a particular gas that dissolves in a liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas. Henry’s law underlies the diffusion of gases between capillaries and alveoli, and between capillaries and interstitial fluid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

define oxyhemoglobin

A

hemoglobin to which oxygen molecules have bound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

explain the relationship among BPG, OXYGEN, AND HEMOGLOBIN

A

BPG is a compound that reduces hemoglobin’s affinity for oxygen. for any partial pressure of oxygen, if the concentration of BPG increase, the amount of oxygen released by hemoglobin will increase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

during exercise, hemoglobin releases more oxygen to active skeletal muscles than it does when those muscles are at rest. why?

A

the combination of increased T and lower pH causes hemoglobin to release more oxygen that when the muscles are at rest. There is a lower pH because there is heat and acidic waste products generated by active skeletal muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

normal interstitial fluid has a PO of what

A

40 mm Hg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

define hemoglobin

A

molecule consisting of four globular protein subunits, each containing a heme unit. can reversibly bind up to four molecules of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is CO and why can it be bad

A

gas released by petroleum-burning engines and heaters. it will irreversibly bind to units, making them unavailable for oxygen transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is hemoglobin saturation

A

the percentage of heme units containing bound oxygen at any given moment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RBCs do not contain mitochondria, so they can only generate ATP though what

A

glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

RBCs do not contain mitochondria, so they can only generate ATP though what

A

glycolysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the metabolic pathways involved in glycolysis also generate what

A

BPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

the metabolic pathways involved in glycolysis also generate what

A

BPG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the higher the concentration of BPG the ___ oxygen will be released by the Hb molecules

A

more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

the higher the concentration of BPG the ___ oxygen will be released by the Hb molecules

A

more

23
Q

BPG production — as RBCs age

A

decrease

27
Q

BPG production — as RBCs age

A

decrease

28
Q

name the five major hormones that regulate digestive activities

A 
gastrin
secretin
gastric inhibitory peptide (GIP)
cholecystokinin (CKK)
vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
29
Q

does a high fat meal raise or lower the level of cholecystokinin (CKK) in the blood

A

raises the level in the blood

30
Q

how would the pH of the intestinal contents be affected if the small intestine did not produce secretin

A

if the small intestine did not secrete secretin, the pH of the intestinal contents would be lower (more acidic) than normal, because secretin stimulates the pancreas to release a fluid high in buffers that neutralizes the acidic chyme entering the duodenum from the stomach

31
Q

name and describe an important characteristic of each of the 3 overlapping phases of gastric secretion

A

cephalic phase==which prepares the stomach to receive ingested materials
the gastric phase==begins with the arrival of food in the stomach
intestinal phase==controls the rate of gastric emptying

32
Q

describe two central reflexes triggered by stimulation of the stretch receptors in the stomach wall

A

gastroenteric reflex==stimulates motility and secretion along the entire small intestine gastroileal reflex==triggers the opening of the ileocecal valve to allow passage of materials from the small intestine into the large intestine

33
Q

why might severing the branches of the vagus nerves that supply the stomach provide relief for a person who suffers from chronic gastric ulcers

A

it would interrupt parasympathetic stimulation of gastric secretions, and the consequent reduction in acid secretions would provide some relief

34
Q

define hemorrhoids

A

distended, swollen veins in the distal portion of the rectum that may result from straining

35
Q

compare the structural features of the large intestine and the small intestine

A

the large intestine is larger in diameter and shorter in length. it’s relatively thin wall lacks villi and has an abundance of mucous cells and distinctive intestinal glands

36
Q

describe the two positive feedback loops involved in the defecation reflex

A

short reflex=stretch receptors in the rectal walls promote a series of peristaltic contraction in the colon and the rectum, moving feces into the anal canal
long reflex==parasympathetic motor neurons in the sacral spinal cord, also activated by the stretch receptors stimulate peristalsis via motor commands distributed by somatic motor neurons

37
Q

name the lobes of the liver

A

left
right
caudate
quadrate

38
Q

what is the function of the gallbladder

A

temporarily stores bile produced by the liver

39
Q

what structure marks the division between the left lobe and right lobe of the liver

A

the falciform ligament marks the division between the left lobe and the right lobe of the liver

40
Q

define hepatocyte

A

a liver cell

41
Q

describe a portal area

A

located at each of the six corners of a liver lobule; each portal area contains:

  • a branch of the hepatic portal vein
  • branch of the hepatic artery
  • small branch of the bile duct
42
Q

define Kupffer cells, and indicate their functions

A

liver macrophages that engulf pathogens, cell debris, and damaged blood cells

43
Q

define emulsification

A

the breakdown of lipid droplets by bile salts

44
Q

what are the primary digestive functions of the gallbladder and pancreas

A

stores and releases bile, which contains additional buffers and bile salts that facilitate the digestion and absorption of lipids. the pancreas provides several digestive enzymes necessary for the breakdown of starches, lipids, nucleic acids, and proteins

45
Q

trace a drop of bile from the hepatic ducts to the duodenal lumen

A

hepatic ducts–>common hepatic duct–>common bile duct–>duodenal ampulla and papilla–>duodenal lumen

46
Q

can the permeability of the PCT or DCT ever change? why or why not

A

No, the permeability of the PCT cannot change, and water reabsorption occurs whenever the osmotic concentration of the peritubular fluid exceeds that of the tubular fluid

47
Q

what effect does an increase in ADH levels have on the DCT

A

increased ADH levels cause the appearance of more water channels, or aquaporins, in the DCT; as a result, more water is reabsorbed into the peritubular fluid, which reduces the volume of water in the urine

48
Q

when ADH levels in the DCT decrease, what happens to the urine osmotic concentration

A

decreased ADH levels in the DCT reduce the urine osmotic concentration due to the presence of more water in the urine; the result is a larger volume of more dilute urine

49
Q

define dialysis

A

process of using an artificial semipermeable membrane to remove waste products from the blood of a person whose kidneys are not functioning properly

50
Q

briefly explain the difference between chronic renal failure and acute renal failure

A

chronic-involves a gradual loss of renal function

acute-involves a sudden loss of renal function

51
Q

explain why patients on dialysis often receive Epogen or Procrit, and synthetic form of erythropoietin

A

pts on dialysis are often given a synthetic form of erythropoietin to treat anemia, which occurs because their malfunctioning kidneys produce too little erythropoietin, the hormone that stimulates the development of RBCs in the bone marrow

52
Q

urine is transported by the __, stored within the __, and eliminated through the ___

A

urine is transported by the ureters, stored within the bladder, and eliminated through the urethra

53
Q

the wall of the urinary bladder is composed of a specialized smooth muscle. name it and describe its physiological role

A

specialized smooth muscle in the wall of the bladder is the detrusor muscle, its contraction compresses the bladder and expels urine into the urethra

54
Q

what has to happen to the external urethral sphincter to allow urination

A

external urethral sphincter must be consciously relaxed to allow urination

55
Q

what is the term for painful or difficult urination

A

dysuria

56
Q

obstruction of a ureter by a kidney stone would interfere with the flow of urine between which two points

A

between the kidney and the bladder

57
Q

why is urinary obstruction at the urethra more dangerous than at the ureter

A

urinary obstruction at the urethra is more dangerous than urinary obstruction in the ureter because urine would be prevented from exiting the body and would build up in the bladder, leading to rupture. obstruction of only one of the two ureters is less hazardous than obstruction of the lone urethra because in the former case, the other kidney would sill excrete wastes that could be voided

58
Q

the sensation of a full bladder is relayed from the bladder to the thalamus to the ___

A

cerebral cortex

59
Q

voluntary relaxation of the external urethral sphincter cause relaxation of the internal urethral sphincter via what mechanism

A

micturition reflex

60
Q

describe the micturition reflex

A

the urge to urinate usually appears when the urinary bladder contains about 200 mL of urine. the micturition reflex begins to function when the stretch receptors have provided adequate stimulation to the parasympathetic motor neurons. the activity in the motor neurons generates action potentials that reach the smooth muscle in the wall of the urinary bladder. these efferent impulses travel over the pelvic nerves, producing a sustained contraction of the urinary bladder

Old Tests (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions