Physiology Flashcards
1
Q
What mm comprises the upper esophageal sphincter?
A
cricopharyngeus
2
Q
T/F: chewing is essential for digestion
A
False: it just increases the surface area of the food
3
Q
in which region of the stomach are parietal and chief cells located?
A
Body or corpus
4
Q
What hormone, released in response to low pH, inhibits gastric emptying by decreasing antral contractions, increases constriction of the pyloric sphincter, and also increases bicarb secretions from the pancreas?
A
Secretin
5
Q
In which regin of the stomach are G cells located?
A
Antrum (they secrete gastrin: G for gastrin)
6
Q
How long is the transit time through the large intestine?
A
3-4 days
7
Q
How long is the transit time through the small intestine?
A
2-4 hours
8
Q
What hormone causes contractions of smooth mm, regulates interdigestive motility, and prepares the intestine for the next meal?
A
Motilin
9
Q
What is the main function of HCL in the stomach
A
converts pepsinogen into pepsin
10
Q
What hormone increases the intestinal secretions of electrolytes and H20, relaxes smooth mm, dilates peripheral blood vessels, and inhibits gastric secretions?
A
Vasoactive intestinal peptide (VIP)
11
Q
What gland produces 20% of salivary secretions and contributes to almost all of the amylase secretions
A
Parotid gland (serous secretions)
12
Q
What hormone causes contractions of the gallbladder, augments the action of secretin to produce an alkaline pancreatic juice, inhibits gastric emptying, and increases constriction of the pyloric sphincter?
A
Cholecystokinin (CCK)
13
Q
What are the 4 functions of saliva?
A
- Provdies antibacterial action
- lubricates
- begins carb digestion
- begins fat digestion
14
Q
What is composed of skeletal mm, innervated by the pudendal nerve, and in a voluntary constant state of contraction that relaxes for defecation?
A
External anal sphincter
15
Q
What hormone is stimulated by glucose and fat in the duodenum, inhibits gastric secretions and motility, and stimulates insulin secretion?
A
Gastrin inhibitory peptide (GIP)
16
Q
Which portion of the autonomic nervous system regulates salivary flow?
A
parasympathetic portion
17
Q
a pH less than 4.5 stimulates the release of what hormone?
A
Secretin (it inhibits acid secretion)
18
Q
what is composed of smooth mm, innervated by pelvic splanchnics and hypogastric nerves, and involuntary?
A
internal anal sphincter
19
Q
What gland produces 70% of total salivary secretion?
A
submandibular gland (produces both mucous and serous secretions)
20
Q
what is the tonicity of pancreatic juice?
A
isotonic
21
Q
what organism is associated with gastric ulcers?
A
h pylori
22
Q
what is the only gastric secretion required to sustain life?
A
intrinsic factor (IF)
23
Q
what 3 structures increase the surface area of the GI tract?
A
- plicae circularis (x3)
- villi (x30)
- microvilli (x600)
24
Q
what hormone is the primary regulator of HCO3 secretion from the pancreas
A
secretin
25
what cells of the GI tract secrete mucus
goblet cels
26
what are the five F's associated with gallstones?
1. fat
2. forty
3. female
4. familial
5. fertile
27
lactose intolerance is caused by a lack of what enzyme
lactase
28
what are the 3 end products of amylase digestion?
1. maltose
2. maltotetrose
3. alpha limit dextrans (alpha-1,6 binding)
29
what percentage of bile acids are excreted daily?
5% (95% reabsorbed via enterohepatic circulation)
30
which glands of the upper duodenum secrete a bicarb-rich solution?
brunner's glands
31
what is the major route for excretion of cholesterol?
bile
32
what hormone potentiates the effect of secretin?
CCK
33
what is the major phospholipid in bile?
lecithin
34
what is the rate-limiting step in the formation of bile acids?
7a-hydroxylase
35
what 2 aa are conjugated to bile acids to increase h20 solubility?
1. glycine
| 2. taurine
36
what is absorbed in the gallbladder to concentrate bile?
water
37
if a substance is removed from circulation by an organ, is its arteriovenous (AV) difference positive or negative?
positive AV difference
38
in laminar flow, which area has the fastest flow?
the center of the tube
39
what are 4 ways to get an increased pump function of the heart?
1. exercise
2. increase HR
3. increase arterial pressure
4. increase contractility
40
what system has an increased pressure, decreased resistance, increased flow, increased compliance, and blood volume that is proportional to flow?
pulmonary circuit
41
what 2 organs have local metabolites as the main determinant of blood flow?
1. brain (cerebral circulation)
2. GI tract (after a meal)
all other organs are under neural control
42
what are the 3 sympathetic effects on the pacemaker cells of the heart?
1. increase the slope of prepotential
2. take less time to reach threshold
3. increase the rate of firing
43
what are the 3 parasympathetic effects on the pacemaker cells of the heart?
1. hyperpolarize the cells by increasing K+ conductance
2. take longer to reach threshold
3. decrease the rate of firing
44
what are the 2 major causes of arterial pressure?
1. contraction of the heart
| 2. hydrostatic pressure
45
what causes an increase in cardiac performance with no increase in preload?
contractility (inotropic)
46
change in what intracellular ion causes a change in contractility?
calcium
47
what are the 2 main circulations with extrinsic regulation that are most affected by nervous reflexes?
1. cutaneous circulation
| 2. resting skeletal mm
48
what is the third heart sound caused by?
ventricular filling (heard during diastole)
49
what is the fourth heart sound caused by?
atrial contraction (heard during diastole)
50
if a substance is put into circulation by an organ, is its arteriovenous difference positive or negative?
negative
51
What is the baroreceptor response to an increase in BP?
increase afferent activity of CN IX and CN X to decrease HR (parasympathetic)
52
what is a perfusion-limited situation
when alveolar and capillary blood equilibrate for a substance
53
which region of the lungs has a low perfusion pressure and a high resistance so that there is little blood flow?
apex
54
what fluid is monitored directly by central chemoreceptors
cerebrospinal fluid (H+:CO2)
55
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with: aortic regurgitation?
increase in stroke volume
56
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with: aortic stenosis?
increase in afterload, decrease in stroke volume, increase in peak tension
57
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with: increase contractility
increase in SV by decreasing the end-systolic volume
58
On a pressure-volume loop, what is seen with: heart failure?
increase in end-systolic volume, decrease in afterload, decrease in peak tension, increase in peak tension
59
What 2 compensatory mechanisms occur to reverse hypoxia at high altitutdes?
1. increase in EPO
| 2. increase in 2,3-BPG,also called 2,3 diphosphoglcerate (increase in glycolysis)
60
what would you give to neutralize the excess base in an alkalotic patient?
NH4Cl (strong acid can lyse RBCs)
61
What would you give to neutralize the excess acid in an acidotic patient?
NaCO2 (CO2 eliminated by lungs)
62
what is a diffusion-limited situation?
when alveolar gas and capillary blood attempt to equilibrate but do NOT (ie CO2)
63
what must occur in order for PaCO2 to remain constant when there is an increase in the body's metabolism?
need to increase alveolar ventilation (if not hypercapnia would result)
64
what enzyem is needed for conversion of testosterone to estradiol?
aromatase
65
what 2 anions compete with iodine for the iodine pump in the thyroid gland?
1. percholorate
| 2. thiocyanate
66
what enzyme is associated with isteoblastic activity?
alkaline phosphatase
67
what form of plasma calcium is the physiologically active form and is regulated within narrow limits?
free calcium (ionized)
68
which 3 factors cause the release of epinephrine from the adrenal medulla?
1. exercise
2. emergencies (stress)
3. exposure to cold
(the 3 Es)
69
what phase of the female cycle ALWAYS lasts for the same number of days (14 days in most women)?
luteal phase
70
what serves as a marker for 24 hour GH secretion?
plasma insulinlike growth factor type 1 (IGF-1) levels
71
what 3 things inhibit the secretion of glucagon?
1. insulin
2. somatostatin
3. hyperglycemia
72
which 3 organs or structures have gluconeogenic capabilities?
1. liver
2. kidney
3. GI epithelium
73
which type of diabetes is more likely to lead to ketoacidosis?
type I (insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus)
74
excess bone demineralization and remodeling can be detected by checking urine levels of what substance?
hydroxyproline (breakdown product of collagen)
75
what 2 things cause 1a-hydroxylase activity to increase?
1. PTH
| 2. a decrease in PO4 levels
76
what type of membrane is permeable to water and small solutes?
selectively permeable membrane
77
what is the movement of ions in an electrical field known as ?
conductance
78
what 2 components of a body of water cannot be measured and need to be calculated?
ICF (water minus ECF)
| 2. interstitial fluid (ISF) - ESF-plasma volume
79
what phase of an action potential has the greatest rate of Na+ flux?
phase 0
80
which phase of an action potential requires energy?
phase 4 (via the Na+/K+ pump)
81
what type of mm is assoc with one T tubule and 2 cisternae (triad)?
skeletal mm
82
what is the region of an axon where no myelin is found
nodes of ranvier
83
what type(s) of mm contain the thin filament troponin
skeletal and cardiac mm
84
where are ADH and oxytocin produced?
the supraoptic and paraventricular nuclei of the hypothalamus
85
what is the only hormone to INCREASE with a DECREASE in pituitary function
prolactin
86
which enzyme converts cholesterol to pregnenolone?
desmolase - rate limiting step in steroid hormone synthesis
87
what are the 4 "stress" hormones?
1. GH
2. gulcagon
3. cortisol
4. epinephrine
88
pro-opiomelanocortin (POMC) is cleaved into what 2 substances?
1. ACTH (adrenocorticotrophic hormone)
| 2. -lipotropins (melanotropins and endorphins)
89
what are the 6 substances that promote the secretion of insulin?
1. glucose
2. aa (arginine)
3. GIP (gastrin inhibitory peptide)
4. glucagon
5. B-agonists
6. ACh
90
what is the thin filament that has the attachment site for the cross-bridges and also activates adenosine triphosphatease (ATPase)?
actin
91
what types of muscle have a sarcomere?
skeletal mm and cardiac mm
92
where is the action potential generated on a neuron?
axon hillock
93
what is the name for the load that the mm is working aginst during stimulation?
afterload
94
what type of contraction has an active tension when the length is shortened?
isotonic contraction
95
what type of mm has high creatinine phosphokinase (CPK), high ATPase activity, and no myoglobin; is anaerobic; and is for short-term use?
white mm (fast)
96
what type of mm uses calmodulin
smooth mm
97
what thick filament has cross-bridges and ATPase activity?
myosin
98
what causes actin-myosin cross-bridge dissociation?
binding of ATP
99
what is used as an index of cortisol secretions?
urine 17-OH steroids
100
What would be the 2 major consequences if the zona fasciculata and the zona reticularis were removed?
1. circulatory failure
| 2. inability to mobilize energy stores
101
how many carbonds do androgens have?
androgens are 19-carbon steroids
102
how many carbons do estrogens have?
estrogens are 19-carbon steroids (removal of 1 carbon from an androgen = an estrogen)
103
the level of what hormone tends to decrease with stress
insulin
104
on what 2 occasions are cortisol-releasing hormone (CRH) secretions elevated?
1. Early morning
| 2. during stress
105
what is an inhibitory interneuron known as?
Renshaw neuron
106
what is the summation of mechanical stimuli known as?
tetany
107
what is the thin filament that binds to calcium?
troponin
108
what determines the max velocity of shortening mm?
the muscle's ATPase activity
109
what type of mm has end plates?
skeletal mm
110
what type of contraction has an active tension, but the overall length of the contraction does not change and no work is done?
isometric contraction
111
what thin filament covers the attachment site in resting mm so that the cross-bridges are unavailable for binding?
tropomyosin
112
what is the load on a mm in the relaxed state known as?
preload
113
total tension - reload = what?
active tension (contraction)
114
what types of mm are uninuclear?
cardiac and smooth mm
115
in a contractile mm, what is the source of the calcium?
sarcoplasmic reticulum (the source is NOT extracellular)
116
what is the max force of a contraction determined by?
the number of motor units activated during the contraction
117
what types of mm have T tubules assoc with them?
cardiac and skeletal mm
118
what type of mm has myoglobin, low CPK, and low ATPase activity; is aerobic; and is used for long-term use?
red mm (slow-twitch mm)
119
what event signifies the first day of the menstrual cycle?
the first day of bleeding
120
what hormone is essential for induction of ovulation and formation of the corpus luteum?
LH
121
how many days before the first day of bleeding is ovulation?
14 days in most women (remember; the luteal phase is always constant)
122
what is required to maintain lactation?
suckling (stimulates oxytocin secretion)
123
what hormone , in high levels, blocks milk production?
estrogen
124
what hormone is necessary for maintenance of the corpus luteum for the first 3 months of pregnancy?
hCG from the trophoblast.
125
Up to how many hours after ejaculation are sperm able to fertilize the egg?
72 hours
126
what hormone induces myometrial contraction and causes milk let-down
oxytocin
127
what hormone is necessary for the maintenance of the uterine endometrium from the 4th month of pregnancy on?
progesterone (estrogen is needed for progesterone to be effective)
128
how long after ovulation does fertilization occur?
8-25 hours
129
what hormone thins cervical mucus, stimulates LH receptors on granulosa cells, elicits the LH surge, and increases proliferation of the uterine mucosal layers?
estradiol
130
what hormone is secreted by the placenta late in pregnancy, stimulates mammary growth during pregnancy, mobilizes energy stores from the mother so that hte fetus can use them and has an aa sequence like GH
Human chorionic somatomammotropin (hCS) or human placental lactogen (hPL)
131
what hormone causes an increase in the production of milk?
prolactin
132
what is the force necessary to collapse the lung known as?
lung recoil
133
for what hormone do Leydig cells have receptors?
LH
134
what vitamin needs thyroid hormone for conversion to its active form?
Vit A
135
What is the tonicity of fluid that leaves the loop of Henle?
Hypotonic
136
what enzyme converts androgens to estrogens?
aromatase
137
what does excess production of TSH cause?
goiter
138
what type of cell reabsorbs bone?
osteoclast
Blast makes
clasts take
139
what is the major form of androgen secreted from the adrenal gland?
Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
140
what cells of the GU system produces testosterone in males?
Leydig cells
141
What type of urine does ADH cause to be excreted?
hypertonic urine (bc of the water reabsorption in the collecting duct
142
what is the term for the volume of plasma removed from a substance per unit time?
clearance
143
what is the most potent male sex steroid?
dihydrotestosterone
144
what 2 substances stimulate sertoli cells?
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and testosterone
145
at which 3 sites in the body is T4 converted to T3?
1. Liver
2. Kidney
3. Pituitary gland (via 5'-deiodinase enzyme)
146
the fresh air being delivered to the respiratory zone per minute is known as what?
Alveolar ventilation (the first 150ml is not included)
147
What region of the lungs gets very little ventilation?
Apex
148
Where does polyuria orginate if the patient is dehydrated and has electrolyte deficiencies?
before the collecting duct (there is no electrolyte disturbance in the collecting duct)
149
what substance is free filtered but partially reabsorbed by passive mechanisms?
urea
150
what hormone promotes mobilization of energy stores, enhances the capacity of glucagon and catecholamines, and increases the capacity to withstand stress?
cortisol
151
what is used as an index of androgen secretion?
urine 17-ketosteroids
152
what are the pituitary hormones associated with: thyrotropin releasing hormone (TRH)?
TSH
153
what are the pituitary hormones associated with: cortisol-releasing hormone (CRH)?
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH)
154
what are the pituitary hormones associated with: Gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH)?
```
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
```
155
what are the pituitary hormones associated with: Growth hormone relasing hormone (GH-RH)
GH
156
what are the pituitary hormones associated with: somatostatin?
inhibits GH secretion
157
what are the pituitary hormones associated with: prolactin-inhibiting factor (PIF) [dopamine]
inhibits prolactin secretion
158
Which hormones are released from the: zona glomerulosa?
aldosterone (salt)
159
Which hormones are released from the: zona fasciculata?
cortisol (sugar)
160
Which hormones are released from the: zona reticularis?
Androgens (sex)
161
Which hormones are released from the: medulla?
NE:Epi (1:4)
162
If the zona glomerulosa were removed from the adrenal gland, what would be seen?
Decrease in Na+ causing a decrease in the ECF volume, leading to a decrease in BP, and eventually to circulatory shock and death
163
What does subatomospheric pressure (neg) do to the lungs?
causes them to expand (bc of the dec in intrathoracic pressure)
164
where is the last conducting zone of the lungs?
terminal bronchioles (no gas exchange occurs here)
165
where is there summation, hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic membrane, an increase in Cl- conductance, and local gradation?
inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
166
which extravascular chemoreceptor detects low NaCl concentrations?
macula densa
167
What is the major stimulus for cell division in chondroblasts?
insulin-like growth factor-1 (IGF-1)
168
the total air in and out of the respiratory system per minute is known as what
the total ventilation (minute volume or minute ventilation)
169
what is the major hormone secreted by the ovarian follicle?
17b-estradiol
170
what 2 conditions cause ADH to be released?
1. Low blood volume
| 2. elevated plasma volume (high solute concentration)
171
what cell converts androgens to estrogens? what hormone acts on this cell?
granulosa cell
| FSH
172
what 3 lung volumes cannot be measured with a spirometer?
1. residual volume
2. TLC
3. functional residual capacity
173
What 2 conditions dec the secretion of aldosterone?
1. inc in BP
| 2. weightlessness
174
what cell in the female GU system is stimulated by LH and is the site where androgens are produced?
thecal cell
175
what serves as a marker of endogenous insulin secretions?
c peptide
176
what do you have when there is a depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane owing to an influx of Na+ resulting in summation and local gradation?
excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
177
what are days 15-28 in the female cycle known as?
Luteal phase
178
what hormone is secreted by the Sertoli cells to dec FSH production?
Inhibin
179
What hormone regulates osmolarity bc it controls water excretion?
ADH (it causes water reabsorption)
180
what is the term for the air in the system after maximal inspiration?
TLC
181
what is a sign of a Sertoli cell tumor in a man?
excess estradiol in the blood
182
what hormone is responsible for the negative feedback onto LH and FSH of the anterior pituitary and positive feedback onto the granulosa cells?
Estrogen
183
what is the term for the total dead space of the lungs?
physiologic dead space
184
the surge of what hormone induces ovulation?
LH
185
what does positive pressure do to the lungs?
it collapses them
186
what is the term for the air that can be taken in after normal inspiration?
inspiratory reserved volume (IRV)
187
what is the first zone of the lungs that is capable of O2 exchange?
respiratory bronchioles (bc they have alveoli)
188
what is the term for ventilation of underperfused alveoli?
alveolar dead space
189
what is the temp of the scrotum and how is it maintained?
4 degrees cooler than the body - by a countercurrent heat exchanger in the spermatic cord
190
what happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: if the gonads are removed?
sex steroids decrease
LH inc
FSH inc
191
what happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: in postmenopausal women?
sex steroids dec
LH inc
FSH inc
192
what happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: after the admin of testosterone?
Sex steroids inc
LH dec
nothing happens to FSH
193
what happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: after the admin of inhibin?
Sex steroids - nothing
LH - nothing
FSH - dec
194
what happens to sex steroids, LH, and FSH: with constant infusion of GnRH
Sex steroids dec
LH dec
FSH dec (needs to be givin pulsatile)
195
What region of the lungs is incapable of gas exchange?
anatomic dead space
196
what is the term for the amount of air that can never leave the lungs?
residual volume
197
if you inc the depth of breathing, what ventilatory parameters can be inc?
total ventilation and alveolar ventilation
198
If you inc the rate of breathing, what ventilatory parameters can be increased?
total ventilation
199
what is the term for the air left in the lungs after normal expiration?
functional residual capacity (FRC)
200
the lung vol from max insiration to max expiration is known as what?
vital capacity (VC)
201
where is renin produced?
in the juxtaglomerular (JG) cells of the kidney
202
what phase of the female cycle occurs during days 1-15
follicular phase
203
what hormone level peaks 1 day before the surge of LH and FSH in the female cycle?
Estradiol
204
what is the day after the LH surge in the female cycle known as?
ovulation
205
by what mechanism does chronic constriction keep blood flow through the penis low during non-aroused states?
alpha-adrenergic-mediated constriction
206
days 1-7 of the female cycle are known as what?
menses
207
the amount of air that enters or leaves the respiratory system in a single respiratory cycle is known as what?
tidal volume
208
what part of the autonomic nervous system is responsible for the movement of semen through the vas deferens and related structures?
sympathetic nervous system
209
which pancreatic cells secret glucagon?
alpha cells
210
which pancreatic cells secrete somatostatin?
delta cells
211
what term describes how easily a vessel stretches
complaince (pulse pressure is inversely proportional to compliance)
212
what is the most compliant artery in the body
aorta
213
what is the best way to regulate mean arterial pressure?
via total peripheral resistance (TPR)
214
what is the term for resistance to ventricular outflow?
afterload
215
what is the main determinant of resistance?
the radius of the vessel (also the viscosity and length)
216
what is the relationship bw NA+ reabsorption and O2 consumption?
an inc in Na+ causes O2 consumption to inc
217
what vessels have the greatest cross-sectional area?
capillaries
218
what is the nontitratable acid that buffers secreted H+ in the kidney buffered as?
NH4+ (ammonium). H2PO4 (dihydrogen phosphate) is the tiratable acid that buffers secreted H+
219
what are the 5 ways to promote turbulent flow?
1. inc velocity
2. branching
3. narrow orifice
4. inc tube diameter
5. dec viscosity
220
What part of the CV system has the lowest drop in pressure?
R atrium
221
what vessels are the resistance vessels and have the largest drop in pressure?
arterioles
222
What part of the autonomic nervous systemis the main controller of blood flow when a person is at rest?
sympathetic nervous system
Alpha constricts
beta-2 dilates
223
what process occurs when hydrostatic pressure exceeds plasma oncotic pressure?
filtration
224
what vessels have the greatest blood volume?
systemic veins of the lower extremities
225
what vessels have the smallest total cross-sectional area?
aorta then the vena cava
226
what is the only way to inc O2 delivery to the myocardium?
inc blood flow
227
what happens to airway resistance during inspiration?
it decreases
| sympathetics dec resistance; parasymp inc resistance
228
what is the main drive for ventilation?
the PCO2 of systemic circulation
229
where does depolarization in the heart begin?
from the apex to the base and from the endocardium to the epicardium
230
where is the greatest venous PO2 in resting tissue
renal circulation
231
the load on the mm in the relaxed state is known as what?
preload (also the end-diastolic vol [EDV])
232
what cells of the heart have the highest rate of automaticity?
SA nodal cells
233
what are the slowest conducting cells of the heart?
AV nodal cells
234
what is the main control of flow in exercising mm?
vasodilator metabolites
235
During what phase of the cardiac cycle do coronary vessels receive their blood flow?
diastole
236
on the venous pressure curve, what do the following waves represent? a wave
Atrial contraction
237
on the venous pressure curve, what do the following waves represent? C wave
ventricular contraction
238
on the venous pressure curve, what do the following waves represent? v wave
atrial filling (venous filling) Atrial, Contraction, VEnous
239
what causes the second heart sound?
aortic closure
240
Where is the second heart sound on an EKG
T wave
241
what causes the diastolic interval to decrease?
inc in HR
242
what happens to cerebral circulation during hypoventilation?
blood flow inc bc PCO2 is increased (the opp occurs during hyperventilation)
243
what is the main factor affecting PCO2?
alveolar ventilation (hyperventilation dec PaCo2 and vice versa. Body metabolism also affects PaCo2
244
What are the normal values for: PaO2?
100mmHG
245
What are the normal values for: PaCO2?
40mmHG
246
What are the normal values for: PvO2?
40mmHG
247
What are the normal values for: PvCO2
47mmHG
248
what are the 2 ways to inc SV?
1. inc preload (EDV)
| 2. dec end-systolic volume (ESV)
249
what is the mian factor that determines the glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
hydrostatic pressure
250
What is the normal value for the GFR?
120ml/min
251
what happens to pulm blood flow under conditions of low alveolar PO2?
dec in blood flow secondary to vasoconstriction
252
what is the normal compensatory mech for a state of metabolic alkalosis?
Hypoventilation (resp acidosis)
253
what anion is excreted in large amounts in the urine in a patient with a compensated alkalosis?
bicarbonate (alkaline urine
254
which hormone affects the osmolarity?
ADH
255
What are the sympathetic effects on the kidney?
A dec in GFR and inc in filtration fraction: FF= GFR?RPF
| There is a larger dec in RPF than the GFR, resulting in an inc in filtration fraction
256
what are the effects of angiotensin II on the kidney?
construction of the efferent arterioles
257
what 4 changes occur with an increase in contractility?
1. inc slope of action otential
2. inc peak left ventricular pressure
3. inc rate of relaxation
4. dec systolic interval
258
what fibers f the heart have the lowest intrinsic rate of automaticity?
purkinje fibers
259
what causes the first heart sound, and when does it occur on an EKG?
mitral valve closure at the QRS complex
260
what is the main determining factor of filtration fraction?
renal plasma flow (dec flow, inc filtration fraction)
261
what is the normal osmolarity of the filtrate in the renal tubule?
300mOsm
262
what prohibts the filtering of protein anions into the renal tubule?
the neg charge on the filtration membrane
263
what are the fastest conducting fibers in the heart?
purkinje
264
from which point ot which point does repolarization travel in the hear
from the base to the apex and from the epicardium to the endocardium (opp of depolarization)
265
what is the major autoregulator of: cerebral circulation
inc in PCO2
266
what is the major autoregulator of: coronary cirulation
dec in PO2, inc in PCO2 and adenosine
267
what is the major autoregulator of: exercising skeletal mm
lacatate
268
what process occurs if the capillary oncotic pressure is greater than the hydrostatic pressure
reabsorption
269
what area of the circulatory system houses the greatest blood velocity?
aorta
270
what 2 things happen to cutaneous circulation whtn the symp nervous system is stimulated?
1. construction of arterioles to dec blood flow
| 2. constriction of the venous plexus to dec the blood volume
271
adenosine in the kidney, dec PO2 in the lungs, and thromboxane A2 (TXA2) have what effect in the circulation?
vasoconstriction
272
what is the period when higher than normal stimulation is required to induce a second action potential?
relative refractory period
273
during an AP what is the stimulus for opening the Na_ channels?
depolarization
274
what substance "affects" the AP
Na+ conductance
275
what substance "affects the resting membrane potential?
K+ conductance
276
in which direction do somotically active substances cause wtater to move?
toward them
277
what are the 3 tracers for total body water?
1. urea
2. thiourea
3. titrated water
278
whate are the 3 characteristics of an AP
1. all or none
2. propagated
3. non summation
279
in hwat system is the second greatest blood volume found?
pulm system
280
what are the 4 ways to inc total peripheral resistance?
1 dec radius
2. inc viscosity
3 inc length
4. dec # of parallel channels
281
what type of system is high-resistance system with flow equal at all points and where total reistance is the SUM of the indivdiual resistances?
vessels connected in a SERIES
282
what effect on a blood vessel does each of the following have: histamine, bradykinin, prostaglandins (A2, E2, I2), NO, adenosine, inc in K+ ,H, PCO2, and a dec in Po2
vasodilatory
283
What are 3 characteristics of a subthreshold potential?
1. graded
2. summation
3. not propagated
284
what is the depolarization phase of an AP caused by?
na influx
285
if the ventilation-perfusion ratio is less than 1, what part of the lung is involved and what physiologic process is occurring?
base, bc flow exceeds delivery of O2
286
hwo do you compensate for metabolic acidosis?
hyperventilate (resp alkalosis)
287
how many liters of water are there in: total body water?
42L
288
how many liters of water are there in: ICF?
28L
289
how many liters of water are there in: ECF?
14L
290
how many liters of water are there in: ISF?
10.5L
291
how many liters of water are there in: plasma volume?
3.5 L
292
what hormone affects fluid volume?
aldosterone (Na+ content determines the vol of the plasma)
293
the repolarization phase of the AP is caused by what?
K+ efflux (depol opens the gates)
294
what is the name of the period in which, no matter how strong the stimulus, a second action potential cant be generated?
absolute refractory period
295
what hormone is necessary to maintain normal thyroid hormone levels?
GH
296
What region of the lung has the greatest blood flow?
the base
297
during inspiration which region of the lung receives the greatest level of ventilation: the apex or the base?
base
298
what is the function of the stretch receptors in the lungs?
to prevent overdistention of the lungs (inhibits inspiration)
299
where does the inherent rhythm for respiration originate?
in the medullary center of the medulla oblongota
300
where is the deep breathing center located?
apneustic center in the pons
301
what type of system is a low-resistance system in which the total resistance is always less than an y individual resistance, and the reciprocal of the total resistance is the sum of the reciprocal resistances?
system connected in parallel
302
what is happening to the renal arteriole when: inc GFR, inc glomerular pressure, dec RPF, inc FF
constriction of efferent arteriole
303
what is happening to the renal arteriole when: dec GFR, inc RPF, dec glomerular pressure, dec FF?
dilatation of the efferent arteriole
304
what is happening to the renal arteriole when: Dec GFR, dec RPF, dec glomerular pressure?
constriction of the afferent arteriole
305
what is happening to the renal arteriole when: inc GFR, inc RPF, inc glomerular pressure?
dilatation of the afferent arteriole
306
which region in the lungs gives the vest ventilation-perfusion ratio?
hilium
307
what causes peripheral chemoreceptors to be stimulated?
A dec in the arterioal PO2, H+ and PCO2 (not the normal drive for ventilation)
308
what is secreted by the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid?
calcitonin
309
what is the titrated acid that the secreted H+ is buffered as?
H2PO4
310
what type of dehydration is assoc with hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, and diarrhea?
isotonic dehydration
311
what is the potential at which concentrations are equal and opp to the electrical forces and also at which there is no net flux of ions across the membrane
EQ potential (Nernst's equation)
312
what hydration state is caused by the ingestion of salt water?
hypertonic overhydration
313
what is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine is greater than 300mOsm
neg free water clearance (conc urine)
314
what is the term for the process of water traveling from a low solute to a high solute concentration
osmosis
315
what 3 factors inc simple diffusion?
2. inc solubility
2. inc conc gradient
3. dec thickness of membrane
316
what type of dehydration is assoc with addison's disease?
hypotonic dehydration
317
when is GH released?
at night and during puberty
318
what is protein-mediated transportation down a conc gradient known as?
facilitated transport
319
what determines the level of alveolar ventilation?
central chemoreceptors (PCO2)
320
which point in the lungs is involved if the ventilation-perfusion ratio is greater than 1? What is occuring?
Apex/ delivery exceeds the flow
321
how is CO2 carried in the blood?
As plasma bicarbonate
322
to what hydrated state can excess ingestion of water or SIADH lead?
hypotonic overhydration
323
what are the 4 major anabolic hormones?
1. insulin
2. thyroid hormone
3. GH
4. sex steroids
324
What are the 8 insulin-independent tissues?
1. CNS
2. RBCs
3. Renal tubules
4. testis
5. teeth
6, beta cells
7, liver
8. intestinal epithelium
325
what are the growth factors released from the liver called? somatomedins
what state of hydration would you be in if you had edema and if you ingested excess salt
326
isotonic overhydration
what type of cell lays down bone?osteoblast: blasts make; clasts take
327
what is the only condition in which giving enriched O2 will not significantly inc PaO2
pulmonary shunt
328
what is the biologically active form of thyroid hormone?
T3
329
for how many months can you store thyroid hormone?
203 mo
330
what is the ratio of T4 to T3
20:1
331
what type of cell is surrounded by mineralized bone?
osteocyte
332
what type of dehydration is assoc with excess sweating, dec water intake, fever, alcoholism, lithium salts, excess evaporation, and diaetes insipidus?
hypertonic dehyrdation
333
during what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: aortic stenosis?
systole
334
during what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: mitral stenosis?
diastole
335
during what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: mitral regurg
systole (pan)
336
during what part of the cardiac cycle do you hear: aortic regurg
diastole
337
What four factors affec the rate of diffusion
1. surface area
2. thickness of the membrane
3. concentration gradient
4. solubility (main factor)
338
What does a dec in GH in adolescence lead to?
dwarfism
339
what type of transportation requires ATP and is protein mediated against a concentration gradient
primary active transport
340
what does an inc in GH in adolescence lead to?
gigantism
341
what gas has a low driving force but high solubility
CO2
342
what are 2 causes of diffusion impairment in the lungs?
dec in surface area
| 2. inc in membrane thickness(palvo2 greater than Pao2)
343
what is evident in the urinarlysis of a compensated acidotic patient?
low HCO3-excretion (acidotic)
344
what does angiotensin II do to restore blood pressure
vasoconstrictive
345
when is systemic venous blood delivered to the L side of the heart without o2 exchange in the alveoli
pulm shunt
346
what gas has a high driving force and low solubility
o2
347
in what type of shunt do you see an inc in R atrial, ventricular, and pulm arterial Po2 along with an inc in pulm blood flow?
L to R shunt
348
what causes Ca+ and PO4 to be reabsorbed from the kidney and Ca+ and PO4 to be absorbed from the GI tract, and also promotes bone synthesis?
vit D3
349
what does excess secretion of GH in an adult lead to?
acromegaly
350
the rate at which a substance is filtered into Bowman's capsule is known as what?
filtered load rate (GFR x plasma concentration)
351
what part of the nephron has the greatest osmolarity?
tip of the loop of Henle (1200 mOsm)
352
what region of the nephron does H+/HCO3- exchange occur?
distal tubule
353
what is the length of systole on a pressure curve?
from beginning of the isovolumic contraction (IVC) to the beginning of the isovolumic relaxation (IVR)
354
from which point to which point does systole appear on EKG?
QRS to the T wave (S1 to S2)
355
what are the 3 features of aortic stenosis?
1. inc in afterload
2. inc in LV pressure
3. inc in pressure gradient bw LV and aorta
356
when is surface tension the greatest in a resp cycle?
at the end of inspiration
357
what type of transportation requires ATP, can be co- or counter transport, and is proteinmediated transport with a conentration gradient
secondary active transport
358
What lung pathology is assoc with a dec in FEV1/FVC?
obstructive path
359
what is the most important factor in describing lung recoil?
surface tension (also fibers of tissue)
360
what is the free water clearance if the osmolarity of urine is less than 300mOOsm?
positive free water clearance (dilute urine)
361
what four characteristics are common to all protein-mediated transportation?
1. more rapid than diffusion
2. zero-order kinetics
3. chemical specificity
4. competition for carriers
362
what causes an increase in Na+ and water loss from the kidney by inc GFR, stimualted by stress and high Na+ concentrations
atrial natriuetic factor (ANF) release fromt eh RA
363
wwhat growth factors are chondrogenic, working on the epiphyseal end plates of bone?
somatomedins (insulin-like growth factor type 1 [IGF-1]
364
what causes an inc in Ca+ reabsorption from the distal tubule, a dec in PO4 reabsorption from the kidney, and an inc in ca+ and PO4 reabsorption from the GI tract?
PTH
365
if a patient is irritated, excited, and emotionally unstable and has overal symptoms of B-adrenergic stimulation, would you assume that htis patient is hyperthyroidic or hypothyroidic?
hyperthyroidic
366
what is needed for proper postnatal and perinatal mental growth and also for proper bone ossification and GH secretion?
thyroid hormone
367
what type of heart block is assoc with slowed conduction through the A node and PR intervals greater than 0.21 sec?
first-degree heart block
368
what 2 occurences cause an inc in the force of contraction/
1. inc in preload
| 2. inc in contractility by inc intracellular Ca+
369
what are 3 features of mitral regurg?
1. inc in v wave
2. inc in preload
3. inc in atrial pressure and volume
370
what is the length of diastole on a pressure curve and where is it on an EKG?
from the beginning of the IVR to the beginning of IVC, and from the T wave to the QRS complex (s2 to S1)
371
what are the 3 features of mitral stenosis?
1. inc in a wave
2. dec in LV filling
3. inc in AV pressure
372
what type of heart block is characterized by: progressive lengthening of the P-R interval until there is failure of the impulse to be transmitted?
second-degree heart block, Wenckebach (Mobitz type 1)
373
what type of heart block is characterized by: constant P-R interval but with occasional failure of conduction, resulting in atrial rate greater than ventricular rate?
second-degree heart block , non-wenckebach (mobitz type II)
374
what are the 3 functions of surfactant?
1. inc compliance
2. dec surface tension
3. dec probability of pulm edema formation
375
more neg intrathoracic pressure causes what to happen to systemic venous return and what to the pulm vessels?
promotes systemic venous return into the chest and inc the caliber and vol of the pulm vessels.
376
what 4 factors cause the oxygen-hb dissoc curve to shift RIGHT?
1. inc PCO2
2. dec pH
3. inc 2,3 BPG
4. inc temp
377
what part of respiration, on a pressure volume curve acts "like the chest wall"?
inspiration (collapse is due to elastic recoil)
378
"secretion + filtration = excretion" is the transport max (Tm) for what substance?
para-aminohippurate (PAH)
379
what has happened if the amount filtered and the amount excreted per unit time are the same?
nothing; there has been no tubular modification
380
what happens to each of the following parameters in an obstructive vs restrictive lung problem: lung recoil?
obs: dec
rest: inc
381
what happens to each of the following parameters in an obstructive vs restrictive lung problem: FRC?
obs: inc
rest: dec
382
what happens to each of the following parameters in an obstructive vs restrictive lung problem: TLC?
obs: inc
rest: dec
383
what happens to each of the following parameters in an obstructive vs restrictive lung problem: FVC?
obs: dec
rest: dec
384
what happens to each of the following parameters in an obstructive vs restrictive lung problem:FEV1?
obs: dec
rest: dec
385
what happens to each of the following parameters in an obstructive vs restrictive lung problem: peak flow?
obs: dec
rest: inc
386
what happens to each of the following parameters in an obstructive vs restrictive lung problem: RV
obs: inc
rest: dec
387
what hormone inc reabsorption of Na+ by the principal cells and promotes excretion of H and K+ by the intercalated cells of the kidney?
alodsterone
388
what 3 situations cause the RAAS to fire?
1. dec in BP in afferent arteriole
2. low Na+ levels at the macula densa
3. b1-symp nervous system imput
389
what pathology is assoc with low ACTH levels and high levels of cortisol?
Cushing's syndrome (adrenal)
390
when do you see low urine flow, high urine osmolarity, high ECF vol, low ECF osmolarity (low Na+), high ICF vol, and low ICF osmolarity?
SIADH (water retention)
391
what is the term for the process in which excretion is less than the filtered load?
net positive reabsorption (glucose, Na+, urea)
392
what has happened when everything that is filtered is reabsorbed until the carriers are saturated and the excess is excreted int he urine?
the transport maximum has been reached (Tm glucose = 37g mg/min)
393
what 4 factors cause aldosterone to be released?
1. conversion of angiotesnin I to angiotensin II
2. hyperkalemia
3. hyponatrimea
4. dec in blood volume
394
what disease state includes buffalo hump, moon facies, hyperglycemia, hyperlipidemia, HTN, hypokalemia, osteoporosis, and thinning of the hair?
Cushings
395
What condition involes high urine flow, low urine osmolarity, low ECF vol, high ECF osmolarity, low ICF vol and high ICF osmolarity?
Diabetes insipidus (lose water)
396
whcih condition involves elevated ACTH and cortisol levels?
cushings (pituitary tumor)
397
which condition involves high ACTH, low cortisol, high ADH, elevated renin levels, hypotension, and low body hair?
addison's disease (primary adrenal insufficiency)
398
what process has taken place in the kidney when excretion is greater than the filtered load?
net neg secretion (PAH, creatinine)
