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Buzzwords Step 1 > Biochem > Flashcards

Biochem Flashcards

1
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: glycolysis?

A

PFK-1

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2
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: gluconeogenesis?

A

Pyruvate carboxylase

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3
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: TA (Krebs) cycle?

A

Isocitrate dehydrogenase

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4
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: glycogenesis (glycogen synthesis)

A

glycogen synthase

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5
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: glycogenolysis

A

glycogen phosphorylase

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6
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: hexose monophosphate (HMP) shunt

A

G6PD

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7
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: fatty acid synthesis

A

Acetyl CoA carboxylase

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8
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: B-oxidation

A

Carnithine acyltransferase I

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9
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: ketogenolysis

A

HMG CoA synthase

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10
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: cholesterol synthesis

A

HMG CoA reductase

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11
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: Urea cycle

A

Carbomoyl phosphate synthetase I

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12
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: heme synthesis

A

d-ALA synthase

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13
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: pyrimidine synthesis

A

Aspartate transcarbomylase

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14
Q

What is the rate limiting step of: purine synthesis

A

PRPP glutamyl amido transferase

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15
Q

What is the only faty acid that is gluconeogenic?

A

propionic acid

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16
Q

Aldose reductase converts galactose to what?

A

galactitol

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17
Q

How many ATPs are generated from glycolysis?

A

8

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18
Q

In the mito, what complex is needed in order for pyruvate carboylase to catalyze the rxn from pyruvate to OAA?

A

Biotin, ATP, and CO2

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19
Q

What is the enzyme for the oxidative reaction in glycolysis

A

Glyceraldehyde dehydrogenase

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20
Q

What 3 substrates control the enzyme PEPCK for the conversion of OAA to pyruvate in the cytoplasm?
What is released from this rxn?

A
  1. Cortisol (stimulates PEPCK)
  2. Glucagon
  3. Guanin triphosphate (GTP)

CO2

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21
Q

What enzyme deficiency causes cataracts, galactosemia, and galactosuria?

A

Galactokinase deficiency

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22
Q

Addition of D-2,3-BPG to HbA does what to the O2 saturation curve?

A

Shift R

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23
Q

What is the glycolysis enzyme found only in the liver?

A

Glucokinase

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24
Q

How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA

A

12 (Not 15 - that would be the answer if you included the pyruvate to acetyl CoA step)

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25
Q

What enzyme is associated with the substrate-level phosphorylation in the TCA cycle?

A

Succinate thiokinase

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26
Q

The availability of OAA and acetyl CoA regulates what pathway?

A

TCA

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27
Q

What complex of the ETC is inhibited by malonate?

A

Complex II

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28
Q

In what 2 places is glycogen made and stored?

A
  1. Liver
  2. Mm
    Liver stores are for blood glucose; mm sotres are for energy reserves
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29
Q

At what step of the TCA is FADH2 generated?

A

Succinate dehydrogenase (inhibited by malonate)

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30
Q

What inhbits complex III of the ETC?

A

Antimycin A

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31
Q

What inhibits the ATP/ADP translocase of the ETC?

A

Atractyloside

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32
Q

TTP is associated with what 3 enzymes?

A
  1. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
  2. pyruvate dehydrogenase
  3. transketolase
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33
Q

What hormone stimulates glycogen synthesis

A

Insulin

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34
Q

Deficiency in what enzyme leads to insoluble glycogen formation?

A

a-1,6 transferase

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35
Q

The reduced nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate (NADPH) generated from G6PD reaction is used exclusively for what?

A

FA synthesis

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36
Q

What enzyme requires selenium to function?

A

GLutathione peroxidase

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37
Q

What are the 2 essential FA?

A
  1. Linolic acid

2. Linolenic acid

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38
Q

What intermediate of the HMP pathway is used to generate nucleotides?

A

Ribose 5-phosphate

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39
Q

A deficiency in what enzyme causes a decrease in oxidoreductase activity in neutrophils?

A

G6PD

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40
Q

What are the nonoxidative enzymes of the HMP shunt?

Are the rxns they catalyze reversible or irreversible?

A

Transketolase and transaldolase

Reversible

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41
Q

VLDL remnants are known as what?

A

IDLs

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42
Q

What carries triacylglycerols (TAGs) and cholesterol from the diet?

A

Chylomicrons

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43
Q

What protein is required for uptake of LDLs in the peripheral tissue?

A

Apoprotein B-100

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44
Q

What 3 apoproteins are on the surface of chylomicrons

A

Apoprotein B-48, CII and E

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45
Q

What protein carries free FA to the liver?

A

Albumin

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46
Q

in the B-oxidation path, what enzyme generates the FADH2?

A

Acyl CoA dehydrogenase

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47
Q

How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoA in B-oxidation

A

5

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48
Q

How many ATPs are generated per acetyl CoAfrom B-oxidation if its run through the TCA cycle?

A

12

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49
Q

What is the only organ in the body that can produce ketone bodies?

A

Liver (in the mito)

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50
Q

What 2 tissues prefer ketone bodies over glucose?

A
  1. Heart mm

2. Renal cortex

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51
Q

What enzyme is absent in the liver so that ketogenolysis cannot occur?

A

Thiophorase

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52
Q

What path uses HMG CoA synthetase in the cytoplasm

A

Cholesterol biosynthesis

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53
Q

What 2 vitamins are inactivated when they come in contact with acetaldehyde

A
  1. Thiamine

2. Folate

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54
Q

What is the precursor of a sphingolipids?

A

Ceramide

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55
Q

What 2 sugars can be used to produce cerebrosides?

A
  1. Glucose

2. Galactose

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56
Q

Where does the energy for the urea cycle come from?

A

Fat metabolism

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57
Q

What are the 2 major carriers of nitrogen from tissues?

A
  1. Glutamine (most tissues)

2. alanine (mm)

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58
Q

WHat are the ketogenic aa?

A

leucine and lysine

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59
Q

What is the storage form of folate?

A

N-methyl folate

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60
Q

Where in the body is heme converted to bilirubin?

A

RES

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61
Q

What is the primary end produce of pyrimidine synthesis?

A

UMP

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62
Q

All aa have titration plateaus at what pH value?

A

pH of 2 and 9

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63
Q

What aa is a good buffer at pH of 7?

A

Histidine

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64
Q

WHat is the only way to inc Vmax?

A

Inc enzyme conc

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65
Q

What happens to affinity if you inc Km?

A

Affinity decreases (they are inversely proportional)

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66
Q

What 2 aa disrupt an a-helix?

A
  1. Glycine

2. proline

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67
Q

What aa is a phenol?

A

Tyrosine

68
Q

What enzyme requires molybdenum (mo) as a cofactor?

A

Xanthine oxidase

69
Q

What determines the rate of a reaction

A

the activation energy

70
Q

What substrate conc is required to produce 1/2 Vmax

A

Km

71
Q

What enzyme is stimulated by PTH to produce 1,25 Vit D3?

A

1-a-hydroxylase

72
Q

What vit is important component of rhodopsin?

A

Vit A

73
Q

What G protein is stimulated by activated rhodopsin?

A

Gt (Transducin), which dec cGMP and closes the Na+ channels, cauisng nerve transmission

74
Q

What vit is connected to selenium metabolism?

A

Vit E

75
Q

What is the activated form of vit E?

A

a-tocopherol

76
Q

What is the MC methylated base?

A

Cytosine

77
Q

DNA is replicated at what phase of the cell cycle?

A

S phase

78
Q

At which end of DNA are new bases added?

A

3’ end

79
Q

What keeps ss DNA from re-annealing during DNA replication?

A

ss binding proetin

80
Q

what enzyme is responsible for producing a ss cut in the DNA to relieve the coil tension

A

topo I

81
Q

What 2 aa are found in high conc in the nucleosome

A
  1. arginine

2. lysine

82
Q

what 3 bases are pyrimidines

A
  1. CUT (cytosine, Uracil, thymidine)
83
Q

what enzyme creates a short seq of RNA to start DNA replication

A

primase

84
Q

what type of enzyme is reverse transcriptase?

A

RNA-dep DNA polymerase

85
Q

What is the direction of transcription

A

5’ –> 3’

86
Q

where is the TATA box in eukaryotes?

A

25 bases downstream

87
Q

what causes transcription to stop in eurkaryotes?

A

Poly(A) site on DNA

88
Q

what protein binds to the promoter region in eukaryotes to initate transcription?

A

TF II D

89
Q

What part of the 30S ribosome binds to the shine-Dalgarno sequence?

A

16S subunite

90
Q

What enzyme activates the aa for the tRNA?

A

aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase

91
Q

What is needed to direct enzymes to a lysosome?

A

phosphorylation of mannose residues

92
Q

What cofactor is needed for lysyl oxidase?

A

Cu2+

93
Q

What part of the 50s and 60S ribosomal subunit is needed for elongation?

A

peptidyl transferase

94
Q

In the lac operon:

  • where is the repressor gene encoded?
  • to which site does the repressor protein bind to inhibit transcription?
A
  1. I gene

2. operator

95
Q

what amplification technique is used to generate a larger amount of DNA?

A

PCR

96
Q

At what organ in the body is urea produced?

A

liver

97
Q

what regulatory proteins work during fetal development to ensure that cells become a specific cell type

A

Homeobox genes (if there is a defect here, there can be a profound structural mutation)

98
Q

Mode of inheritance seen in every generation and is passed by females?

A

mitochondrial inheritance

99
Q

What form of continuous DNA used in cloning has no introns or regulatory elements?

A

cDNA, when made from mRNA

100
Q

What complex of the ETC contains Cu2+?

A

COmplex 4

101
Q

What 2 shuttles are needed to keep NAD+ in the reduced state?

A

Malate/aspartate and glycerol-3-phosphate shuttles

102
Q

Vit required for gamma-carboxylation of many Ca2+ binding proteins

A

Vit K

103
Q

Where is the energy for gluconeogenesis derived?

A

B-oxidation of FA

104
Q

What aa is broken down into N2O causing an inc in cGMP of smooth mm –> vasodilation?

A

Arginine

105
Q

what enzyme in the liver catalyzes glycerol to glycerol-3-phosphate

A

glycerol kinase

106
Q

What shuttle is used to bring fatty acyl CoA from the cytoplasm for ketogenesis?

A

Carnitine acyl CoA transferase II

107
Q

All the carbons in FA are derived from what source?

A

Cytoplasmic acetyl CoA that left the mito as citrate

108
Q

What glycolytic intermediate can be used to synthesize triglycerides and phospholipids?

A

DHAP

109
Q

What is the main inhibitor of pyruvate dehydrogenase?

A

Acetyl CoA (pyruvate to acetyl CoA)

110
Q

What are the 2 substrate-level phosphorylations in glycolysis?

A
  1. pyruvate kinase

2. phosphoglycerate kinase

111
Q

What are 8 liver specific enzymes?

A
  1. Fructokinase
  2. Glucokinase
  3. Glycerol kinase
  4. PEPCK
  5. Pyruvate carboxylase
  6. Galactokinase
  7. F-1,6-BP
  8. G6P
112
Q

In what cycle does glucose go to the mm, where it is converted to pyruvate and then into alanine before being taken back to the liver?

A

Alanine cycle

113
Q

In what cycle does glucose go to the mm, where it is converted to lactate, and then returned to the liver?

A

Cori cycle

114
Q

What 4 substrates inc the rate of gluconeogenesis?

A
  1. Glucagon
  2. NADH
  3. Acetyl CoA
  4. ATP
115
Q

What 3 substances stimulate glycogenolysis?

A
  1. Ca2+: calmodulin ratio
  2. epinephrine
  3. glucagon
116
Q

What are the 2 inhibitors of complex I of the ETC?

A
  1. Rotenone

2. Amytal (barbiturates)

117
Q

5 factors that constitute the pyruvate dehydrogenase complex?

A
  1. TPP
  2. Lipoic acid
  3. CoASH
  4. FAD
  5. NAD
118
Q

What attaches to protons and allows them to enter into the mito without going through the ATP-generating system?

A

24-dinitrophenol

119
Q

What are the 2 decarboxylation steps of the TCA cycle?

A
  1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase

2. alpha-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase

120
Q

What are the 3 inhibitors of complex IV of the ETC?

A
  1. CN
  2. CO
  3. Azide
121
Q

What 3 steps of the TCA cycle generate NADH?

A

Malate dehydrogenase

  1. Isocitrate dehydrogenase
  2. a-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
122
Q

NADPH generated from the HMP shunt is used for what?

A

FA synthesis, nucleotide synthesis, and glutathione reductase

123
Q

Is the oxidative reaction of the HMP shunt reversible or irreversible?

A

Irreversible (G6PD and 6-phosphogluconate dehydrogenase)

124
Q

At what 3 sites can the HMP shunt enter into glycolysis?

A
  1. Fructose-6-phosphate
  2. Glucose-6-phosphate
  3. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate
125
Q

What apoprotein is on the surface of LDL

A

Apoprotein B-100

126
Q

What carries cholesterol from the tissues back to the liver?

A

HDLs

127
Q

What apoprotein mediates the uptake of remnants by the liver?

A

Apoprotein E

128
Q

What is the complex needed for acetyl CoA carboxylase?

A

Biotin
ATP
CO2 (acetyl CoA to malonyl CoA)

129
Q

What are the 3 tissues where TAGs are produced?

A
  1. Liver
  2. MM
  3. Adipose
130
Q

What delivers cholesterol to the tissues?

A

LDLs

131
Q

What apoprotein is produced by the intestinal epithelium?

A

Apoprotein B-48

132
Q

What carries TAGs to the peripheral tissues?

A

VLDLs

133
Q

How many NADPHs are used per addition of each acetyl CoA into a fatty acid chain?

A

2 NADPHs/acetyl CoA

134
Q

What apoprotein activates LPL in the capillary epithelium to hydrolyze TAGs

A

Apoprotein C-II

135
Q

What apoproteins are on the surface of IDL?

A

Apoprotein B-100 and E

136
Q

From which 2 substances are phospholipids made?

A
  1. DAGs

2. Phosphatidic acid

137
Q

What apoproteins are on the surface of HDL?

A

Apoprotein A-I, C-II, and E

138
Q

What is needed to produce a double bond in a fatty acid chain in the ER?

A

NADPH, O2 and cytochrome b5

139
Q

What apoprotein activates lecithin cholesterol acyl transferase to esterify cholesterol from tissue?

A

Apoprotein A-I

140
Q

What apoproteins are on the surface of VLDL

A

Apoproteins B-100, C-II, and E

141
Q

At the end of each round of B-oxidation, what is released?

A

Acetyl CoA, FADH, and NADH

142
Q

What hormone hydrolyzes TAGS to free FA and glyerol?

A

hormone-sensitive lipase?

143
Q

What regulates the rate of ketone body formation?

A

The rate of B-oxidation

144
Q

What intermediate enables propionyl CoA to enter into the TCA cycle?

A

Succinyl CoA

145
Q

What sphingolipid is formed by the union of serine and palmitoyl CoA?

A

Sphingosine

146
Q

What intermediate of cholesterol synthesis anchors proteins in the membranes and forms CoQ

A

Farnesyl pyrophosphate (FPP)

147
Q

What is the complex needed for propionyl CoA carboxylase?

A

Biotin, ATP, and Co2

148
Q

What are the 3 ketone bodies?

A
  1. Acetoacetate
  2. Acetone
  3. B-hydroxybutyrate
149
Q

What is the only sphingolipid that contains choline and PO4?

A

Sphingomyelin (lecithin also, but is not a sphingolipid)

150
Q

Sialic acid and amino sugars are needed to produce what sphingolipid?

A

Ganglioside

151
Q

What vitamin is needed as a cofactor for decarboxylation and transaminase reactions?

A

B6

152
Q

What are the 2 ways that nitrogen can enter into the urea cycle?

A

Aspartate; carbomoyl PO4

153
Q

What is the only enzyme in the body that uses N5 methyl folate?

A

homocysteine methyl transferase

154
Q

What are the glucogenic and ketogenic aa?

A 
Phenylalanine
tyrosine
tryptophan
isoleucine
threonine
155
Q

What is the pyrimidine intermediate the joins PRPP?

A

orotic acid

156
Q

What 3 aa are used to synthesize purine ring?

A
  1. glycine
  2. aspartate
  3. glutamine
157
Q

What is the primary end product of purine synthesis?

A

IMP

158
Q

What are the 2 precursors of heme?

A
  1. glycine

2. Succinyl-CoA

159
Q

What substrates are needed to produce carbamoyl PO4 (de novo pyrimidine synthesis)?

A

Glutamine, CO2, and ATP via carbamoyl PO4 synthetase II

160
Q

What is the end product of purine catabolism?

A

uric acid

161
Q

On a lineweaver-Burke plot, what type of binding has both plots crossing the y-axis in the same spot?

A

competitive, reversible inhibition (Vmax is the same, inc Km)

162
Q

On the lineweaver-burke plot, what type of binding has both plots crossing the x-axis in the same spot?

A

Noncompetitive, reversible binding (dec in Vmax, km is same)

163
Q

What is the max rate possible with a given amount of enzyme

A

Vmax

164
Q

To what are intracellular glucose levels inversely related?

A

cAMP levels

165
Q

DOes a saturated FA have double bonds?

A

no; unsaturated FA have double bonds

Buzzwords Step 1 (19 decks)

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