Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EPPP > Physiological & Psychopharmacology > Flashcards

Physiological & Psychopharmacology Flashcards

1
Q

rivastigmine (exelon)

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what might be diagnosed when seizures are recurrent and unprovoked

A

epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

neurotransmitter that is is both excitatory and inhibitory and is involved in movement, arousal, attention, and memory

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

which type of antidepressant is most likely to induce mania

A

tricyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what type of seizures do not affect consciousness

A

simple partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

pemoline (cylert)

A

psychostimulant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which area of the brain is essential for working memory, prospective memory, item memory, and source memory

A

pfc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

acamprosate

A

reduces alcohol cravings

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is ED50

A

Effective Dose
the minimum drug dose that produced the desired therapeutic effect in 50% of the sample

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If you have trouble learning new skills and performing previously learned skills (e.g., driving), what areas of your brain are likely damaged

A

basal ganglia and cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

sertraline (zoloft)

A

SSRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

This theory predicts that there’s a logarithmic relationship between psychological sensation and the magnitude of a physical stimulus

A

Fechner’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

the catacholamine hypothesis

A

posits that some forms of depression are caused by a deficiency of norepinephrine while mania is due to excessive norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

damage to this part of the pfc produces impaired decision-making, moral judgment, lack of insight, confabulation, social cognition (like facial emotional recognition and empathy reduction) and blunted emotional responses

A

ventromedial pfc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The theory that provides an an explanation of how physical arousal elicited by one event can be transferred to and intensify arousal elicited by a later unrelated event

A

Zillman’s excitation transfer theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Damage to this area of the pfc can cause impairments in goal-directed behavior, concrete thinking, impaired judgment and insight, deficits in working memory, perseverative responses, disinterest, and apathy

A

dorsolateral pfc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which neurotransmitter is released more when storing information in short-term memory

A

serotonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What type of waves in REM sleep

A

beta (awake and alert)
+ theta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

amitriptyline (elavil)

A

tricyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In cognitive appraisal theory, what is primary appraisal

A

evaluating an event to determine if it’s irrelevant, benign-positive, or stressful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

doxepin (sinequan)

A

tricyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which type of sleep stage (REM or NREM) is high-voltage, slow-wave synchronized EEG activity

A

NREM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which lobe is associated with tactile agnosia, asomatognosia, and anosognosia

A

parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

naltrexone

A

reduces pleasurable effects and cravings for alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the tendency of the eyes to turn inward as an object gets closer

A

convergence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is another term for tachyphylaxis

A

antidepressant tolerance
antidepressant poop-out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

they’re useful for patients who have low energy and motivation but not for those who have insomnia or are very anxious.

A

NDRI (bupropion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what type of hypertension is diagnosed when the physiological cause of the HBP is unknown

A

primary hypertension / essential hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness by destroying ACh receptors at neuromuscular junctions

A

myasthenia gravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

donepezil (aricept)

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Damage to which lobe can produce certain types of apraxia

A

parietal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What part of the peripheral NS is responsible for voluntary actions

A

somatic NS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

This theory says that perception of a stimulus is the outcome of both sensory and decision-making processes

A

signal detection theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what type of seizures can change consciousness and can begin with an aura

A

complex partial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

These drugs increase attention and concentration and reduce hyperactivity and impulsivity

A

psychostimulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

In contrast to other theories of emotion, which theory says that physiological arousal follows cognitive appraisal

A

Lazarus’s cognitive appraisal theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

nortiptyline (pamelor)

A

tricyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

damage to this area can cause anterograde and retrograde amnesia

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the transitional stage between wakefulness and sleep and what type of waves

A

NREM Stage 1
alpha

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is it called when a blockage of an artery for less than five minutes causes temporary symptoms

A

transient ischemic stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

a primary inhibitory neurotransmitter and is involved in motor control, memory, mood, anxiety, arousal, and sleep

A

GABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

As the night progresses, the duration of XX sleep increases and XX decreases

A

REM
NREM Stages 3 and 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What areas, primarily, degenerate in Huntington’s disease

A

the caudate nucleus and putamen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

type of processing that begins with the brain’s use of preexisting knowledge and expectations to interpret incoming sensory information

A

top-down / concept-driven

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

tacrine (cognex)

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

what drugs are used to slow the progression of alzheimer’s

A

cholinesterase inhibitors and an NMDA receptor antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

imipramine (tofranil)

A

tricyclic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what type of memory formation depends on RNA synthesis

A

long-term memory formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

propanolol (inderal)

A

beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

When do most people experience the most recovery from TBI

A

the first three months, with substantial additional improvement during the first year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

If you have the same level of recall for emotional and nonemotioanl experiences, what area might be damaged

A

amygdala

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

amphetamine-dextroamphetamine

A

adderall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

which part of the brain is involved in memory processing

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What area is implicated in Parkinson’s disease

A

degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

clozapine (clozaril)

A

second gen antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

This theory of emotion:
physiological arousal
THEN a cognitive label is applied to the arousal
= emotional experience

A

Schachter and Singer’s Two-Factor Theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

this part of the pfc is involved in goal-directed behavior, decision-making, memory, motor inhibition, and emotion regulation

A

ventrolateral pfc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

These areas are essential for procedural memories and other implicit memories

A

basal ganglia and cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Gertsmann’s syndrome involves left-right disorientation, finger agnosia, agraphia, and acalculia and occurs where

A

left parietal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

tranylcypromine (parnate)

A

MAOI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what med doesn’t produce the pleasurable effects of heroin, but it does reduce the craving for heroin and withdrawal symptoms.

A

methadone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the risk of combining an SSRI with a MAOI, lithium, or St Johns wort

A

serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

This theory proposes that the experience of an emotion and physiological arousal occur together when an environmental stimulus causes the thalamus to simultaneously send signals to the cerebral cortex and SNS

A

Cannon-Bard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Which lobe is wernicke’s area in?

A

temporal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

neurotransmitter that serves both excitatory and inhibitory functions and contributes to movement, personality, mood, sleep, motivation, and reward

A

dopamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what is the only fda-approved antipsychotic for treatment-resistant schizophrenia

A

clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

inability to express or understand variations in rhythm, pitch, timing, and loudness of speech used to convey emotional information

A

aprosodia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

the type of memory for what happened in the past

A

item memory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What was removed in HM’s surgery

A

hippocampus
amygdala
medial temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

In cognitive appraisal theory, what is secondary appraisal

A

when the person determines that the event is stressful and involves identifying coping optiosn and likelihood that they will adequately deal with the event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

this theory predicts that the just noticeable difference for a stimulus is a constant proportion, regardless of the intensity of the stimulus

A

Weber’s law

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

bupropion (Wellbutrin)

A

NDRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

this occurs when there is a blockage in a cerebral artery that is due to a blood clot that developed in the heart or elsewhere in the body and traveled through the bloodstream to the brain

A

an ischemic, embolic stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

which type of TBI tend to cause more damage (open or closed?)

A

closed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What area of the brain, when damaged, produces a catastrophic reaction (depression, anxiety, fear, paranoia)

A

left (dominant) cerebral cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

citalopram (Celexa)

A

SSRI

77
Q

what is buspar used to treat

A

anxiety

78
Q
A
79
Q

what is propanolol used to treat

A

anxiety, better at somatic than psychological symptoms

80
Q

Which type of antipsychotic is less likely to cause extrapyramidal SEs but more likely to cause metabolic syndrome

A

second gen antipsychotics

81
Q

What type of antidepressant are more likely to cause antidepressant poop-out

A

SSRIs

82
Q

What is the stage where __ waves are interrupted by sleep spindles (sudden bursts of moderately fast waves) and K-complexes (large slow waves). Is it light or deep?

A

NREM Stage 2
theta
light

83
Q

exerts its therapeutic effects by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and dopamine at synapses

A

NDRI

84
Q

Type of processing that begins with incoming sensory informatio nand continues to be perceived, interpreted and stored

A

bottom-up / data-driven

85
Q

Which second gen antipsychotic can cause agranulocytosis

A

clozapine (clozaril)

86
Q

lorazepam (ativan)

A

benzodiazepine

87
Q

fluoxetine

A

SSRI

88
Q

theory proposes that differences in emotional reactions to events are due to different appraisals of those events

A

Lazarus’s Cognitive appraisal theory

89
Q

haloperidol

A

first gen antipsychotic

90
Q

fluphenazine (Prolixin)

A

first-gen antipsychotic

91
Q

when do post-traumatic seizures usually occur after a TBI, and how are they treated

A

within a week, treated with anti-seizure meds

92
Q

In cognitive appraisal theory, what is reappraisal

A

when the person monitors the situation and changes his/her primary and/or secondary appraisal

93
Q

what’s the most common type of focal onset seizure

A

temporal lobe seizures

94
Q

desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)

A

SNRI

95
Q

Their therapeutic effects are due to inhibition of the reuptake of serotonin and norepinephrine at synapses

A

SNRI

96
Q

Which theory argues that differences in emotional reactions cannot be attributed to differences in the nature of physiological arousal

A

Cannon-Bard

97
Q

What is TD50

A

Toxic Dose
the minimum drug dose that had a toxic (effect in 50% of the sample

98
Q

What is deep sleep and what type of waves

A

NREM Stage 4
delta

99
Q

clomipramine (anafranil)

A

tricyclic

100
Q

another term for relative motion of objects at a distance

A

motion parallax

101
Q

What area of the brain mediates sadness

A

right (nondominant) cerebral cortex

102
Q

what type of hypertension is diagnosed when HBP is due to a known disease

A

secondary hypertension

103
Q

this type of medication alleviate positive symptoms primarily by blocking dopamine (especially D3 and D4) receptors and alleviate negative and cognitive symptoms primarily by blocking serotonin receptors

A

second-gen antipsychotics

104
Q

secobarbital

A

barbiturate

105
Q

these drugs are useful for patients with treatment-resistant depression or atypical depression, which involves reversed vegetative symptoms such as hypersomnia, increased appetite, and reactive dysphoria

A

MAOI

106
Q

“the process of organizing and interpreting sensory information”

A

perception

107
Q

olanzapine (zyprexa)

A

second-gen antipsychotic

108
Q

This theory of emotion proposes that fear consists of a subcortical (survival) system and a cortical (conscious emotional system)

A

LeDoux’s Two-System Theory

109
Q

What are the sympathetic and parasympathetic NS part of

A

the Autonomic NS

110
Q

What part of the peripheral NS transmits information from the body’s smooth muscles and organs to the CNS and back

A

autonomic NS

111
Q

Damage to this are of the pfc can cause impulsivity, social inappropriateness, lack of empathy, aggressive or abusive behaviors, and emotion dysregulation

A

orbitofrontal cortex

112
Q

What are the three stages of the general adaptation syndrome (for responding to stress)

A

alarm - >SNS for fight/flight
resistance - cortisol continues at elevated levels to maintain high energy for coping with continued stressor
exhaustion - breakdown when the stressor continues without resolution

113
Q

which artery is most often involved in a stroke

A

middle cerebral artery

114
Q

delay the breakdown of acetylcholine

A

cholinesterase inhibitors

115
Q

diazepam (valium)

A

benzodiazepine

116
Q

What area of the brain mediates happiness and other positive emotions

A

the left (dominant) cerebral cortex

117
Q

which type of antidepressant is lethal/cardiotoxic in overdose

A

tricyclic

118
Q

Which type of sleep stage (REM or NREM) is low-voltage, fast-wave desynchronized EEG activity

A

REM

119
Q

aripiprazole (abilify)

A

second-gen antipsychotic

120
Q

In this stage of sleep ___ waves replace theta waves, and you move from light/moderate/deep to which?

A

NREM Stage 3
delta
moderate to deep

121
Q

These drugs enhance GABA activity and are used as a general anesthetic and as a treatment for anxiety, insomnia, and seizures

A

barbiturates

122
Q

amobarbital (amytal)

A

barbiturate)

123
Q

What is the primary motor symptom in Huntington’s

A

chorea (irregular, uncontrollable jerky/writing movements in the hands, face, limbs, and torso)

124
Q

What part of the NS is responsible for preparing the body for action

A

the sympathetic NS

125
Q

Which theory proposes that there’s an exponential relationship between psychological sensation and the magnitude of a physical stimulus, varying by stimuli

A

Stevens’s power law

126
Q

X occurs because our two eyes see objects from two different views, and, the closer an object, the greater x gets

A

retinal disparity

127
Q

This theory proposes that exposure to an emotionally salient stimulus causes a physiological reaction which, in turn, is perceived as an emotion

A

James-Lange Theory

128
Q

Therapeutic index calculation in human studies

A

TD50/ED60

129
Q

methylphenidate (ritalin, conerta)

A

psychostimulant

130
Q

refers to drugs that are not very safe and require close monitoring because the dose that produces the desired therapeutic effect (ED50) is equal to or higher than the dose that produces a lethal or toxic effect (TD50)
What does TI =?

A

narrow therapeutic window
TI = / < 1

131
Q

chlorpromazine (Thorazine)

A

first-gen antipsychotic

132
Q

an excitatory neurotransmitter and contributes to movement, emotions, learning, and memory

A

glutamate

133
Q

What is post-traumatic epilepsy

A

seizures occurring more than a week after TBI

134
Q

a stroke that is due to bleeding that occurs when there is a rupture in the space between the brain and the membrane that covers the brain

A

a subarachnoid hemorrhagic stroke

135
Q

desipramine (norpramin)

A

tricyclic

136
Q

inhibit the activity of the sympathetic nervous system and are used to treat hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias, migraine headache, and essential tremor

A

beta-blockers

137
Q

memantine (namenda)

A

NMDA receptor antagonist for moderate to severe alzhiemer’s (glutamate regulator)

138
Q

Which part of the nervous system transmits signals between the CNS and the rest of the body

A

peripheral

139
Q

the processes that allow the body to achieve stability by adapting to change

A

allostasis

140
Q

thiopental (pentothal)

A

barbiturate

141
Q

disulfiram

A

antabuse

142
Q

What NS is affected by biofeedback to bring usually involuntary activities under voluntary control

A

autonomic NS

143
Q

this occurs when there is blockage in a cerebral artery that is due to a blood clot that developed in an artery in the brain

A

an ischemic, thrombotic stroke

144
Q

what 3 types of side effects are seen with first gen antipsychotics

A

anticholinergic (low potency - chlorpromazine and theoridazine)
extrapyramidal (high potency - haloperidol and fluphenazine)
neuroleptic malignant syndrome

145
Q

What stage of sleep is called paradoxical sleep because you have an active brain and physiological arousal with paralyzed muscles

A

REM!

146
Q

What antidepressants have the possibility of producing hypertensive crisis with certain meds or foods containing tyramine

A

MAOI

147
Q

buspirone (buspar)

A

azapirones

148
Q

What type of hypertension accounts for up to 90% of cases and is known as the “silent killer”

A

primary hypertension

149
Q

What are the three types of opponent-process cells (used for?)

A

(vision)
red/green
blue/yellow
white/black

150
Q

which visual cues are responsible for depth perception of relatively close objects

A

retinal disparity
convergence

151
Q

Can dreams occur during NREM sleep?

A

Yes, but they’re less vivid and not common

152
Q

what are the first-line treatment for status epilepticus

A

benzodiazephines (then anti-seizure if not effective or for maintenance)

153
Q

what type of medication may be more effective for severe depression than SSRI

A

SNRI

154
Q

isocarboxazid (marplan)

A

MAOI

155
Q

alprazolam (xanax)

A

benzodiazepine

156
Q

valproic acid (depakene)

A

anticonvulsant

157
Q

what type of visual cues are responsible for depth perception of objects at a greater distance

A

monocular cues
(relative size, overlap/interposition of objects, linear perspective, texture gradients, relative motion/motion parallax)

158
Q

quetiapine (seroquel)

A

second-gen antipsychotic

159
Q

what is an advantage of buspirone over other anxiety meds

A

does not cause sedation, dependence, or tolerance

160
Q

the most common type of stroke

A

ischemic

161
Q

What type of symptoms usually show first in Huntington’s?

A

affective (before cognitive and motor)

162
Q

Which theory says that the experience of an emotion follows physiological arousal

A

James-Lange

163
Q

What part of the brain, if damages, produces an “indifference reaction” (indifference/euphoria)

A

Right (nondominant) cerebral cortex

164
Q

an excitatory neurotransmitter and is involved in arousal, attention, learning, memory, stress, and mood.

A

norepinephrine

165
Q

Refers to drugs that are safer because the dose that produces the desired therapeutic effect (ED50) is lower than the dose that produces toxic effects (TD50)
What does TI =

A

wide therapeutic window
TI > 1

166
Q

paroxetine (Paxil)

A

SSRI

167
Q

exert their effects by inhibiting the reuptake of both serotonin and norepinephrine, with some having a stronger effect on serotonin

A

tricyclics

168
Q

compared with tricyclics, what are the advantages of SSRIs

A

safer in overdose (less cardiotoxicity), safer for older adults, fewer side effects, similar efficacy

169
Q

how to reverse growth suppression in children from psychostimulants

A

drug holidays during school breaks

170
Q

Take a deep breath

A

you can do this!

171
Q

a stroke that is due to bleeding that occurs when there is a rupture in a cerebral artery within the brain

A

intracerebral hemorrhagic stroke

172
Q

venlafaxine (effexor)

A

SNRI

173
Q

What part of the peripheral NS is responsible for activities typically considered involuntary

A

autonomic NS

174
Q

neurotransmitter that has an inhibitory effect and plays a role in many functions including arousal, sleep, sexual activity, mood, appetite, and pain

A

serotonin

175
Q

what is it called when someone doesn’t consciously see a visual stimulus but has the appropriate physiological and behavioral responses

A

blindsight

176
Q

What part of the NS is responsible for rest and relaxation

A

parasympathetic NS

177
Q

flovoxamine (luvox)

A

SSRI

178
Q

thioridazine (Mellaril)

A

first gen antipsychotic

179
Q

this part of the brain is responsible for attaching emotions to memories

A

amygdala

180
Q

duloxetine (cymbalta)

A

SNRI

181
Q

galantamine (razadyne)

A

cholinesterase inhibitor

182
Q

what type of medication exert their therapeutic effects by blocking dopamine receptors

A

first-generation antipsychotics

183
Q

which area of the pfc contributes most to executive functions

A

dorsolateral PFC

184
Q

carbamazepine (tegretol)

A

anticonvulsant

185
Q

What part of the peripheral NS transmits information from the body’s sensory receptors to the CNS and from the CNS to the skeletal muscles

A

somatic NS

186
Q

risperidone (risperdal)

A

second-gen antipsychotic

187
Q

phenelzine (nardil)

A

MAOI

188
Q

What did HM have trouble with memory-wise:
short-term
long-term episodic
procedural
transfer of declarative information from s-t to l-t

A

transfer and long-term

EPPP (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions