Physiologic Testing Flashcards

1
Q

What doesn’t a physiologic test require?

A

A behavioral response from patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What test falls under a physiologic test?

A
  1. Tympanometry
  2. Acoustic Reflexes
  3. Otoacoustic Emissions
  4. Auditory Evoked Potentials
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Acoustic Immittance?

A

Measurements made by Acoustic Impedance Meters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

An acoustic immittance makes up?

A

The tympanometry and acoustic reflex text

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What does tympanometry test?

A

Middle Ear function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

To test the middle ear function, what’s being measured?

A
  1. Tympanic Membrane Compliance
  2. Physical Volume
  3. Middle Ear Pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

An acoustic immittance equipment has how many tubes?

A

3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are three tubes that makes up the Acoustic Immittance test?

A
  1. Speaker
  2. Microphone
  3. Air pressure pump
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what’s the purpose of the speaker?

A

Sends sound into the ear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what’s the purpose of the microphone?

A

It measures the sound that comes back after a sound was sent down the ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what’s the purpose of air pressure pump?

A

It changes the pressure in the ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

For the Tympanometry test, when is an additional speaker used?

A

Contralateral acoustic reflexes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what needs to happen?

A
  1. A tight seal of ear canal with probe

2. EAC must be clear of cerumen/foreign objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

For the Tympanometry test, why must the EAC be free of cerumen/foreign objects?

A

If it’s not free of cerumen/foreign objects we won’t get an accurate result of the movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

For the Tympanometry test, define compliance

A

Compliance is how the eardrum moves as you change pressure in the ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

For the Tympanometry test, as we increase pressure to a specific level, what’s being introduced?

A

Sound is being introduced into to EAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

For the Tympanometry test, how does TM mobility affect sound being reflected?

A

If a lot of sound gets bounced back, the TM is not moving

If a lot of sound is not bouncing back, then the TM is moving, and sound is going where it needs to.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does the physical volume portion measures?

A

The volume of the ear canal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

For the Tympanometry test, how can physical volume be helpful?

A

It can help identify perforations and cerumen impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what is the breakdown of volume with regards to perforation

A

Large volume = Perforation

Average Volume = No perforation

Small volume = Cerumen Impaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what is the Compliance/Physical Volume normative data for adults?

A

Compliance: 0.30-1.70

Volume = 0.9 - 2.0

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what is the Compliance and Physical Volume normative date for children?

A

Compliance: 0.25-1.05

Volume: 0.3-0.9

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does smaller and larger numbers means for compliance?

A

The smaller #’s means the ear canal is more stiff

The larger the #’s means the eardrum is more floppy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

For the Tympanometry test, when the eardrum is too floppy what could be the causes?

A
  1. Perforation that heals and the layers of the TM membrane doesn’t grow back
  2. Ossicular Disarticulation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

For the Tympanometry test, when getting the results for Physical Volume, what should you do and why?

A

Compare right and left with each other because if the number matches in both ears, then there’s nothing to worry about

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

For the Tympanometry test, the middle ear pressure is determined by?

A

Varying pressure in the EAC until point of maximum vibration was found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what are the two steps when finding the middle ear pressure?

A
  1. Find the point where eardrum moves the best

2. Note that that answer would be the same for the ME space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what should the daPa # be for the ME pressure to be considered normal?

A

~0daPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what should the daPa # be for the ME pressure to be considered abnormal?

A

Less than or = to -200 dPa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what type of number is extremely rare for the middle ear pressure?

A

Extreme positive pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

From the Tympanometry test what does the machine create? And what is it called?

A

A graphic representation of results called a tympanogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

For the Tympanometry test, how are the graph, compliance, physical volume, and ME pressure identified?

A
  1. Graph
    Upside down ‘V’
  2. Compliance
    Height of peak
  3. Physical volume
    Height of line
  4. ME pressure
    Location of peak (where the peak falls on horizontal axis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what are the tympanogram classifications?

A
  • Type A
  • Type A(S)
  • Type A(D)
  • Type B
  • Type C
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what is the normal tympanogram?

A

Type A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does a Type A tympanogram mean?

A
  1. Normal middle ear function

2. Normal compliance, physical volume, ME pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does Type A(s) tympanogram mean?

A
  • Reduced compliance (stiffness)
  • Normal physical volume
  • Normal middle ear pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does Type A(d) tympanogram mean?

A
  • Increased Compliance (extra floppy)
  • Normal physical volume
  • Normal ME pressure
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does Type B tympanogram mean?

A
  • No TM mobility
  • No ME pressures
  • Could have normal, small, or large physical volume
39
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does Type C tympanogram mean?

A
  • Compliance depends on height of peak
  • Normal physical volume
  • Negative middle ear pressure
40
Q

For the Tympanometry test, why should we learn about tympanogram graphs?

A
  1. To assess ME issues
  2. To assess TM perforation
  3. To identify prolonged negative middle ear
41
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does a flatter tymps for ME issue mean?

A

It’s a result from obstruction to sound

42
Q

For the Tympanometry test, what does a deeper tymps for ME issue mean?

A

Result from hypermobility

43
Q

What equipment does the Acoustic Reflex Testing use?

A

Acoustic Immittance Equipment

44
Q

What does an acoustic reflex mean?

A

When a bilateral muscle contracts in response to loud sound

45
Q

When an acoustic reflex occurs, what happens?

A

It causes the ME system to stiffen

46
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, what is the equipment measuring?

A

When a loud sound is played in the ear, we will know when the eardrum stiffens

47
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, for normal hearing individuals, what will the reflex to pure tones elicit?

A

85-100 dB SPL

48
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, what kind of response is it?

A

Bilateral

49
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, how do measure Acoustic Reflex?

A
  1. Present a pure tone signa at 500, 1k, 2k Hz to ear

2. Look for a decrease in TM compliance (when it stiffens)

50
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, what are you looking for to find out the client’s acoustic reflex threshold?

A

The softest level at which reflex (the eardrum stiffens) occurs

51
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, what are the two ways you can measure the acoustic reflex?

A
  1. Ipsilateral

2. Contralateral

52
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, what does ipsilateral mean for measuring acoustic reflex?

A

You will stimulate and measure reflex in the same ear

53
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, what does contralateral mean?

A

You will stimulate one ear and measure reflex in opposite ear

54
Q

For Acoustic Reflex Testing, what are the possible outcomes from the test?

A
  1. Expect normal sensation levels ~85 dB SL
  2. Absent to the limit of the equipment/machine
  3. AR occurring at reduced sensation levels (<60 dB SL)
  4. AR present at elevated sensation levels
55
Q

What is Otoacoustic Emission (OAE)

A

An acoustic signal that comes out of your ear, which is a weak or soft generated by the outer hair cells

56
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, where does the signal come from?

A

The outer hair cells

57
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, if there’s damage to the outer hair cells, what does that mean for OAE?

A
  1. There will be a reduced (quitter) OEAs

2. Or there will be eliminates (no signal at all) OAEs

58
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, what are types of testing?

A
  1. Spontaneous Otoacoustic Emission (SOAE)

2. Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions (EOAE)

59
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, what is spontaneous otoacoustic emissions?

A

Without giving an external stimulus, you’re able to measure the otoacoustic emission

60
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, why isn’t using spontaneous otoacoustic emission used for clinical purposes?

A

SOAE is present in over 50% of the normal hearing population, which is not enough for us to use for clinical purposes

61
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, what is evoked otoacoustic emissions (EOAE)?

A

Are hair cells responses brought about by a signal

62
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, for EOAE, what’s the procedure?

A
  1. A signal would be presented for 5-20ms

2. After presentation to the EC, then we measure the signal that came back from the hair cells

63
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, what kind of probe is used?

A

It’s like the tymp probe (soft flexible mushroom probe & need a seal but not too tight)

64
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, are we pressuring?

A

No, but a good seal is still needed

65
Q

For Otoacoustic Emission, what are the two types of EOAE that we may use?

A
  1. Transient-Evoked Otoacoustic Emissions (TEOAE)

2. Distortion-Product Otoacoustic Emissions (DPOAE)

66
Q

What is a transient-evoked otoacoustic emission?

A

It’s sound from the outer hair cells dancing brought out by a transient signal

67
Q

For Transient-evoked Otoacoustic Emission, what stimulus is used?

A

A click

68
Q

For Transient-evoked Otoacoustic Emission, is the stimulus used frequency specific?

A

No

69
Q

For Transient-evoked Otoacoustic Emission, why isn’t using a click ideal for clinical purposes?

A

Since the click isn’t frequency specific, we’ll get a lot of different areas from the hair cells dancing and this will give us a broad response and not isolate the different areas of the cochlea

70
Q

What is Distortion-product Otoacoustic emission?

A

Two tones at different frequencies are being presented to the ear and it creates a distortion product and stimulate a particular region of the cochlea

71
Q

What does DPOAE allows us to do?

A

To isolate different areas of the cochlea

72
Q

When using DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, what does it provide?

A
  1. Information specifically on outer hair cell cochlear function
  2. Amplitude of response
73
Q

For DPOAE, what does ‘amplitude of response typically matches with hearing loss’ mean?

A

Greater the amplitude, the better the functioning of hair cells but if it’s a significant HL, the less dancing of the hair cells and if the hair cells aren’t dancing then the less sound the hair cells generate for us to record

74
Q

For DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, what’s the issue we come across?

A

If the SNHL is >40 dB HL, OAEs will not be present past a mild hearing loss

75
Q

For DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, since OAEs won’t be present past 40 dB HL or greater, what does that mean for threshold searching?

A

We can’t use OAEs to determine a threshold search since they’re absent, we’re not exactly sure at what hearing severity OAEs are absent (mild, severe etc?)

76
Q

For DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, what is it good for?

A

It does not require a behavioral response from client

77
Q

For DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, even though it measures cochlear function, where must sound pass?

A

Through the ME space to reach the cochlea

78
Q

For DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, what hearing loss would exist for OAEs to be present?

A

CHL since sound must pass through ME space to the cochlea

79
Q

For DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, who is often used for?

A
  1. Individuals who can’t or won’t provide behavioral response
  2. Newborn screenings
80
Q

For DPOAE as a diagnostic tool, what other function can it serve?

A
  1. As a screening tool in some medical offices

2. Used to monitor individuals at risk for OHC damage

81
Q

What is Auditory Evoked Potentials (AEP)?

A

A very small electrical response to sound from the cochlea, brainstem, and cortex

82
Q

What is needed to record an AEP?

A
  1. Electrode being placed on the scalp
  2. Transducer
  3. Stimulus
83
Q

Where does Auditory Brainstem Response (ABR) comes from?

A

It’s a type of Auditory Evoked Potentials

84
Q

What is ABR?

A

A series of seven ‘wavelets’ that appear within 10 ms after the stimulus

85
Q

Which AEP is often used?

A

ABR

86
Q

For ABR, where does the response originate?

A

From the VIIIth nerve and brainstem

87
Q

For the wavelets, what are you looking at?

A

Analyzing latency and amplitude of waves as compared to norms

88
Q

For AEPs, what the relationship between an electrical amplitude and the AEP system?

A

The greater the electrical amplitude response to sound is, the better the AEP system

89
Q

For ABRs, what stimuli is preferred?

A

Tone burst

90
Q

What equipment can we use for threshold search?

A

ABR

91
Q

What is the ABR, not affected by?

A

Attention or Sleep

92
Q

AEPs in general…

A
  1. Use to identify retro-cochlear pathology
  2. Identify behavioral thresholds
  3. Used in newborn hearing screenings
  4. Some medical office (but less common)
  5. Used for intraoperative monitoring
93
Q

What else can AEPs do?

A
  1. Evaluate other portions of SN mechanism

3. Evaluate auditory processing